Which of the following can be used to accomplish this objective?

A borrower pays a floating rate on a loan and wishes to convert it to a position where a fixed rate is paid.

Which of the following can be used to accomplish this objective?

I. A short position in a fixed rate bond and a long position in an FRN

II. An long position in an interest rate collar and long an FRN

III. A short position in a fixed rate bond and a short position in an FRN

IV. An interest rate swap where the investor pays the fixed rate
A . None of the above
B . I and IV
C . I, II and IV
D . II and III

View Answer

Answer: C

Explanation:

A short position in a fixed rate bond and a long position in an FRN has the effect of paying fixed and receiving floating. The floating received offsets the floating payment on the borrowing, leaving the borrower with just a fixed rate outflow. Therefore the combination identified in statement I can be used to achieve the objective of paying fixed. A collar is equivalent to a long position in an interest rate cap combined with a short position in an interest rate floor. This has the effect of setting a range within which the investor’s borrowing rate will vary. In the case where the cap and floor rates are the same, the combination of a collar and a long FRN effectively produces an outcome where the holder of such positions pays a fixed rate. Therefore, an interest rate collar can be used to convert the fixed payment to a floating rate payment. [Example: Assume current interest rate is 3%, and therefore the borrower has a liability of 3% on the FRN. Assume that the borrower now buys a collar at the strike rate of 4%. Now the borrower receives 0% (=Max(3% – 4%, 0)) on the cap part of the collar, and pays 1% on the floor part of the collar (=Max(4% – 3%, 0)). The net borrowing cost therefore is 3% paid on the FRN plus 1% paid on the collar, equal to 4%. Now if interest rates rise to say 6%, the borrower pays 6% on the FRN, and receives 2% from the collar (=Max(6% – 4%, 0) – Max(4% – 6%, 0)), creating a net cost of 6% – 2% = 4%.

A collar is often issued with an FRN to convert floating flows to fixed. Therefore combination II is an acceptable choice.

A short position in a fixed rate bond and a short position in an FRN produces a cash flow that does not produce a net fixed cash outflow when combined with the borrowing. Therefore statement III is not a valid combination.

An interest rate swap where the investor pays fixed and receives floating, when combined with a floating payment on an FRN leaves a net fixed payment, Therefore statement IV is a valid way to achieve the borrower’s objective.