Which of the following is not one of the key steps in the grief process?
- A . Denial
- B . Anger
- C . Bargaining
- D . Rejection
Which of the following matches the definition: covering up a weakness by stressing a desirable or stronger trait?
- A . Compensation
- B . Projection
- C . Rationalization
- D . Dysphoria
Which of the following waveforms is most commonly found with light sleepers?
- A . Theta
- B . Alpha
- C . Beta
- D . Zeta
Which of the following months matches with an infant first having the ability to sit-up independently?
- A . 4 months
- B . 6 months
- C . 8 months
- D . 10 months
Object permanence for toddlers develops in this age range?
- A . 5C10 months
- B . 10C14 months
- C . 12C24 months
- D . 15C24 months
Which of the following matches the definition: attributing of our own unwanted trait onto another person?
- A . Compensation
- B . Projection
- C . Rationalization
- D . Dysphoria
Which of the following matches the definition: the justification of behaviors using reason other than the real reason?
- A . Compensation
- B . Projection
- C . Rationalization
- D . Dysphoria
Which of the following matches the definition: response to severe emotion stress resulting in involuntary disturbance of physical functions?
- A . Conversion disorder
- B . Depressive reaction
- C . Bipolar disorder
- D . Alzheimer’s disease
Which of the following waveforms is most commonly found when you are awake?
- A . Theta
- B . Alpha
- C . Beta
- D . Zeta
The REM sleep cycle occur approximately every ____ minutes?
- A . 45
- B . 60
- C . 75
- D . 90
Which of the following reflexes is not found at birth?
- A . Babinski
- B . Palmar
- C . Moro
- D . Flexion
Parallel play for toddlers develops in this age range?
- A . 5C10 months
- B . 10C14 months
- C . 12C24 months
- D . 24C48 months
Which of the following is not a sign of anxiety?
- A . Dyspnea
- B . Hyperventilation
- C . Moist mouth
- D . GI symptoms
Which of the following best describes a person that is completely awake falling asleep spontaneously?
- A . Cataplexy
- B . Narcolepsy
- C . Transitional sleep
- D . REM absence
Which of the following best describes a person that is unable to tell you were there hand or foot is?
- A . Autotopagnosia
- B . Cataplexy
- C . Ergophobia
- D . Anosognosia
Which of the following is not a characteristic of a panic disorder?
- A . Nausea
- B . Excessive perspiration
- C . Urination D. Chest pain
Which of the following categories would a 70-year-old adult be placed in?
- A . Intimacy vs. Isolation
- B . Generativity vs. Stagnation
- C . Integrity vs. Despair
- D . Longevity vs. Guilt
Which of the following categories would a 60-year-old adult be placed in?
- A . Intimacy vs. Isolation
- B . Generativity vs. Stagnation
- C . Integrity vs. Despair
- D . Longevity vs. Guilt
Which of the following categories would a 20-year-old adult be placed in?
- A . Intimacy vs. Isolation
- B . Generativity vs. Stagnation
- C . Integrity vs. Despair
- D . Longevity vs. Guilt
Which of the following describes a person using words that have no known meaning?
- A . Neologisms
- B . Neolithic
- C . Verbalism
- D . Delusional blocking
Which of the following is the mRNA start codon in most cases?
- A . UAA
- B . AGU
- C . AUG
- D . UGA
Which of the types of RNA is the smallest?
- A . mRNA
- B . tRNA
- C . rRNA
Which of the following is not considered a pyrimidine?
- A . C
- B . T
- C . U
- D . G
Which of the following is paired correctly?
- A . A-G
- B . C-G
- C . A-U
- D . G-T
Which of the following characterizes a Western blot?
- A . Antibody/protein hybridization
- B . DNA/RNA combination
- C . RNA transcription
- D . Polymerase chain reaction
Which of the following is the approximate prevalence ratio for cystic fibrosis?
- A . 1: 25,000
- B . 1: 5,000
- C . 1: 2,000
- D . 1: 800
Which of the following divisions of cell growth precedes Mitosis in the cell cycle?
- A . G2
- B . G1
- C . S
- D . G0
Down syndrome is directly linked to a genetic abnormality of chromosome?
- A . XXII
- B . XXI
- C . XIIX
- D . XV
Which of the following is a characteristic of the Hardy-Weinberg law?
- A . Mating between species occurs at a set rate.
- B . Migration is a considerable factor.
- C . Mutation occurs at the locus
- D . Genotype selection does not occur at the locus
Which of the following is not a characteristic of Hurler’s syndrome?
- A . Autosomal recessive condition
- B . Associated with delayed mental development
- C . Spasticity
- D . Corneal deficits
Which of the following is not a characteristic of Krabbe’s disease?
- A . Autosomal recessive condition
- B . Spasticity
- C . Nausea
- D . Optic nerve deficits
Which of the following is not a characteristic of Fabry’s disease?
- A . X-linked disease
- B . Low levels of alpha-galactosidase A
- C . Profound muscular weakness
- D . Increased levels of ceramide trihexoside
Which of the following is not a characteristic of Sickle Cell Anemia?
- A . More common in African Americans
- B . Autosomal dominant
- C . Mutation in beta-globin
- D . Intense chronic pain
Which of the following is not a characteristic of the Southern blot?
- A . DNA hybridization
- B . Use of a filter and film combination
- C . Activated by antigen/antibody reactions
- D . Uses a DNA sample
Which of the following is not a characteristic of S-Adenosyl methionine?
- A . May be associated phosphocreatine
- B . Considered a rate limiting enzyme of glycolysis
- C . Aids in the transfer of methyl
- D . Byproduct of Methionine and ATP combination
Which of the following is not an activated carrier?
- A . ATP
- B . SAM
- C . TPP
- D . GMP
The end product of the TCA cycle produces ____ NADH.
- A . 3
- B . 4
- C . 5
- D . 6
How many ATP are required to transform pyruvate into glucose?
- A . 5
- B . 6
- C . 7
- D . 8
Which of the following is not a derivative of the amino acid (Tryptophan)?
- A . Melatonin
- B . Serotonin
- C . Creatine
- D . Niacin
Pompe’s disease is a type ___ glycogen storage disease.
- A . I
- B . II
- C . III
- D . IV
Prothrombin is a ____ globulin and is produced by the _____.
- A . Alpha, Kidney
- B . Alpha, Liver
- C . Beta, Kidney
- D . Beta, Liver
The right coronary artery divides to form the posterior interventricular artery and the ___artery.
- A . Marginal
- B . LVC
- C . RVC
- D . LAD
Blood flowing into the cardiac veins enters the _______ next.
- A . Coronary Sinus
- B . Left Ventricle
- C . Right Ventricle
- D . Left Atrium
If you are using a stethoscope and trying to detect the tricuspid valve which of the following would be the best location?
- A . Within 2 inches of the xiphoid process
- B . On the right side of the sternum
- C . On the left side of the sternum near the midpoint
- D . On the left side of the sternum near the midpoint of the sixth rib
Which of the following occurs during ventricular systole?
- A . Increased aortic pressure
- B . Increased ventricular volume
- C . Dup heart sound
- D . P wave
Which of the following occurs during ventricular diastole?
- A . Increased aortic pressure
- B . Increased ventricular volume
- C . Lub heart sound
- D . T wave
The innermost layer of a blood vessel is lined with _______ ______ cells
- A . Simple squamous
- B . Stratified squamous
- C . Simple cuboidal epithelium
- D . Stratified cuboidal epithelium
Angiotensin can directly cause the release of ____ from the adrenal cortex.
- A . Renin
- B . Aldosterone
- C . Calcitonin
- D . Thyroxine
Cardiac output is the product of ____ and ____.
- A . HR and Diastolic pressure
- B . HR and Stroke Volume
- C . HR and EF
- D . Diastolic and Systolic pressure
Pulmonary edema is most like associated with a failing _____ _____.
- A . Right atrium
- B . Left atrium
- C . Right ventricle
- D . Left ventricle
Which of the following is the first branch off the aortic arch?
- A . Common carotid
- B . Brachiocephalic
- C . Right Subclavian
- D . Thoracic
The brachiocephalic artery divides to form the right common carotid and the ____ ____ artery.
- A . Left subclavian
- B . Right subclavian
- C . Left common carotid
- D . Right thoracic artery
Which of the following arteries creates the left splenic, hepatic and gastric arteries?
- A . Left sacral artery
- B . Celiac artery
- C . Suprarenal artery
- D . Phrenic artery
Which of the following is not considered a major branch off of the descending thoracic aorta?
- A . Mediastinal artery
- B . Renal artery
- C . Bronchial artery
- D . Posterior intercostal artery
Which of the following is not considered a major branch off of the abdominal aorta?
- A . Phrenic artery
- B . Common iliac artery
- C . Gonadal artery
- D . Mediastinal artery
Which of the following is not considered a major branch off of the femoral artery?
- A . Superficial pudendal arteries
- B . Deep external pudendal arteries
- C . Superficial circumflex iliac artery
- D . Deep circumflex iliac artery
Which of the following is not considered a tributary of the portal vein?
- A . Inferior mesenteric vein
- B . Splenic vein
- C . Left gastric vein
- D . Subclavian vein
Inside the cranial cavity the vertebral arteries form the ____ artery.
- A . Basilar
- B . Common Carotid
- C . MCA
- D . PCA
Pulse pressure (pp) is considered the _____.
- A . Difference between the systolic and diastolic pressure
- B . The sum of the systolic and diastolic pressure
- C . The inverse of the blood pressure
- D . Half of the systolic pressure
_____ nerves can be found joining the SA and AV nodes in the heart.
- A . Accelerator
- B . Phrenic
- C . Thoracic
- D . Gastric
Insulin inhibits the release of _______.
- A . Glucagon
- B . ADH
- C . Beta cells
- D . Somatostatin
Which of the following is caused by insulin release?
- A . Increased breakdown of fats
- B . Increase breakdown of proteins
- C . Decreased blood sugar
- D . Causes glucose to be phosphorylated in kidney
Glucagon causes increased blood sugar and causes slow breakdown of glycogen in the liver.
- A . TRUE
- B . FALSE
As blood glucose decreases glucagon is inhibited.
- A . TRUE
- B . FALSE
Glucagon increases blood levels of glucose by causing liver to breakdown glycogen.
- A . TRUE
- B . FALSE
Which of the following is not true about Type I DM?
- A . May be linked to autoimmunity
- B . Onset usually prior to age 20
- C . Beta islet cells destroyed
- D . Does not require insulin injections
Which of the following is not true about Type II DM?
- A . Considered adult onset diabetes
- B . Cause unknown may be due to genetics
- C . Require insulin 80% of cases
- D . May take a drug that sensitize cells or increase insulin release
Which of the following is not an effect of diabetes?
- A . Small vessel occlusion
- B . Necrosis of extremities
- C . Ketone Body production
- D . Decreased fat metabolism
Which of the following is not an indicator of a hypoglycemic condition?
- A . Fatigue
- B . Poor appetite
- C . Tachycardia
- D . Confusion
Which of the following is not an adverse effect of oral hypoglycemics?
- A . Hypoglycemia
- B . Headache
- C . Rashes
- D . Projectile vomiting
Which of the following is not an adverse effect of glucagon?
- A . Allergic reaction
- B . Vomiting
- C . Nausea
- D . Fever
Which of the following drugs may be given as an immunosuppressant soon after onset of Type I Diabetes?
- A . Torsemide
- B . Cyclosporine
- C . Clofibrate
- D . Ceftriaxone
Which of the following is not considered an endocrine hormone?
- A . Renin
- B . Insulin
- C . Glucagon
- D . Somatostatin
What type of cells secrete glucagon?
- A . Beta cells
- B . Alpha cells
- C . Plasma cells
- D . Acinar cells
What type of cells secretes insulin?
- A . Beta cells
- B . Alpha cells
- C . Plasma cells
- D . Acinar cells
Which of the following would not be considered an acute effect of diabetes mellitus?
- A . Polyuria
- B . Weight gain
- C . Polydipsia
- D . Polyphagia
Which of the following is not an accurate test for diabetes?
- A . Glucose tolerance test
- B . HbA
- C . Fasting serum glucose
- D . Fasting glucagon test
Which of the following is not an indicator of diabetic ketoacidosis?
- A . Hyperthermia
- B . Nausea/Vomiting
- C . Slow and shallow breathing
- D . Psychosis leading to dementia
Which of the following is not related to a chronic diabetes mellitus condition?
- A . Atherosclerosis
- B . Neuropathy
- C . Glaucoma
- D . Hypotension
Which of the following conditions is not linked to diabetic ketoacidosis?
- A . Cerebral edema
- B . Arrhythmias
- C . Peptic ulcers
- D . Mucormycosis
Which of the following is not a specific element of duodenal ulcers?
- A . Primarily affects males
- B . Occasional malignancy
- C . Can lead to weight gain
- D . Affects people over 65
Which of the following is not a specific element of Hepatitis C?
- A . Vaccine available
- B . May be transmitted with sexual contact
- C . Inflammation of the liver
- D . Lifetime carrier
Which of the following Vitamins is not stored in the Liver?
- A . Vitamin A
- B . Vitamin B
- C . Vitamin C
- D . Vitamin D
Which of the following is not a contributor to a condition of ascites?
- A . Elevated levels of aldosterone
- B . Hypertension
- C . Low levels of albumin
- D . Elevated levels of angiotensin I
Which of the following drugs is a histamine blocker and reduces levels of gastric acid?
- A . Omeprazole (Prilosec)
- B . Metoclopramide (Reglan)
- C . Cimetidine (Tagamet)
- D . Magnesium Hydroxide (Maalox)
Which of the following drugs is an antacid?
- A . Omeprazole (Prilosec)
- B . Metoclopramide (Reglan)
- C . Cimetidine (Tagamet)
- D . Magnesium Hydroxide (Maalox)
Which of the following drugs is a dopamine antagonist?
- A . Omeprazole (Prilosec)
- B . Metoclopramide (Reglan)
- C . Cimetidine (Tagamet)
- D . Magnesium Hydroxide (Maalox)
Another name for the Whipple procedure is a ________.
- A . Cholangiopancreatography
- B . Pancreatoduodenectomy
- C . Cholangiogram
- D . Cholecystogram
Which of the following microorganisms has been linked to Parotitis?
- A . Staphylococcus aureus
- B . Schistosoma
- C . Wucheriabancrofti
- D . Trypanosomacruzi
What type of cell releases somatostatin?
- A . b cells
- B . a cells
- C . plasma cells
- D . D cells
What type of cell releases glucagon?
- A . b cells
- B . a cells
- C . plasma cells
- D . D cells
What type of cell releases insulin?
- A . b cells
- B . a cells
- C . plasma cells
- D . D cells
Another name for the (Billroth II) procedure is a ________.
- A . Gastrojejunostomy
- B . Gastroduodenostomy
- C . Cholangiogram
- D . Cholecystogram
Another name for the (Billroth I) procedure is a ________.
- A . Gastrojejunostomy
- B . Gastroduodenostomy
- C . Cholangiogram
- D . Cholecystogram
Which of the following arteries supplies blood primarily to the Midgut?
- A . IMA
- B . Celiac
- C . SMA
- D . Axillary
Which of the following is not considered a right of medication?
- A . Dose
- B . Time
- C . Route
- D . Limit
Another name for the Myenteric plexus is the ________.
- A . Submucosal plexus
- B . Branchial plexus
- C . Auerbach’s plexus
- D . Lumbar plexus
Which of the following enzyme breaks down starches to maltose?
- A . Amylase
- B . Lipase
- C . Trypsinogen
- D . Pepsin
Which of the following is not considered an H2 blocker?
- A . Ranitidine (Zantac)
- B . Famotidine (Pepcid)
- C . Cimetidine (Tagament)
- D . Sucralfate (Carafate)
Which of the following drugs aids in gastric emptying?
- A . Cisapride (Propulsid)
- B . Ranitidine (Zantac)
- C . Famotidine (Pepcid)
- D . Tranylcypromine sulfate (Parnate)