Test Prep MCQS Multiple-choice questions (MCQS) Prometric MCQS for general practitioner (GP) Doctor Online Training
Test Prep MCQS Online Training
The questions for MCQS were last updated at Feb 20,2025.
- Exam Code: MCQS
- Exam Name: Multiple-choice questions (MCQS) Prometric MCQS for general practitioner (GP) Doctor
- Certification Provider: Test Prep
- Latest update: Feb 20,2025
A 3-month-old female infant is brought in because her parents say she will not eat anymore. Upon physical examination, a loud pansystolic murmur is appreciated. The child also appears small for her age, but her records show no maternal or delivery complications.
Which of the following is the most likely finding on EKG?
- A . ST segment elevation
- B . Right ventricular hypertrophy
- C . QT interval elongation
- D . Right bundle branch block
B
Explanation:
The key to this case is understanding that a child who was otherwise healthy but presents with a holosystolic murmur and symptoms of failure to thrive most likely has a VSD. Right ventricular hypertrophy occurs from blood shunting from the high pressure left system to the low pressure right system. This could later lead to Eisenmenger syndrome (ES). ES is defined as the process in which a left-to-right shunt caused by a VSD reverses into a right-to-left shunt due to hypertrophy of the right ventricle.
70 year’s woman is admitted with diarrhea, vomiting and dehydration. Exam: yellow visual halos in her e ECG=bradycardia. She has a history of chronic Atrial-fib.
Which drug causes the above mentioned side effects?
- A . Nifedipine
- B . Digoxin
- C . Ramipril
- D . Atenolol
17 year’s female with lump in the breast, freely mobile, not attached to the skin.
What is the next investigation?
- A . Ultrasound
- B . Mammogram
- C . FNA
- D . Biopsy
A 20 year’s woman with no previous history of ear complains, presents with 1day history of severe pain in is extremely tender to examine.
What is the single most likely diagnosis?
- A . Chondromalasia
- B . Myringitis
- C . Furuncle
- D . Otitis media
- E . Otitis Externa
E
Explanation:
Extreme tenderness to examine indicate otitis externa.
60 year’s old patient has only HTN best drug to start with:
- A . Beta blocker
- B . ACEI
- C . Diuretics
- D . ARB
- E . Alpha blocker
C
Explanation:
Antihypertensive therapy has been shown to reduce morbidity and mortality in older patients with elevated systolic or diastolic blood pressures. This benefit appears to persist in patients older than 80 years, but less than one third of older patients have adequate blood pressure control. Systolic blood pressure is the most important predictor of cardiovascular disease. Blood pressure measurement in older persons should include an evaluation for orthostatic hypotension. Low-dose thiazide diuretics remain first-line therapy for older patients. Beta blockers, angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors, angiotensin-receptor blockers, and calcium channel blockers are second-line medications that should be selected based on comorbidities and risk factors.
A 78 year’s retired teacher was admitted for a hernioplasty procedure. After the operation he became agitate and confused.
What is the most appropriate management?
- A . Diazepam
- B . Clozapine
- C . Chlordiazepoxide
- D . Thiamine
- E . Vitamin B
A woman with sickle cell disease complains of heavy menstrual blood loss.
What is the most appropriate combined oral contraceptive pills?
- A . Depot provera
- B . Transdermal patch
- C . Copper IUCD
- D . Mirena
A 28 year’s woman has been on treatment for Rheumatoid arthritis for 3yrs. She has gradual loss of vision Her ocular pressure is normal. Red reflex is absent in both eyes.
What is the single most likely diagnosis?
- A . Hypermetropia
- B . Cataract
- C . Macular degeneration
- D . HTN retinopathy
- E . DM retinopathy
A young girl presented to gynecologist for assessment with lower abdominal pain and per vaginal bleedin of hysterosalpingograph as a part of her infertility treatment. Observation: BP=90/50mmHg, pulse-120bpm, and revealed rigid abdomen.
What is the most appropriate next investigation?
- A . Coagulation profile
- B . Chest X ray
- C . Ultrasound abdomen
- D . X-ray erect and supine
- E . CT SCAN
C
Explanation:
Likely cause of bleeding and shock is ruptured fallopian tube for which appropriate ne is US abdomen.
What is the most specific test for syphilis?
- A . TPI
- B . Treponema antibody absorption test FTA-ABS
- C . FAAT
C
Explanation:
This test is used when a screening test for syphilis is positive to confirm that there is a true infection. A negative or nonreactive result means there you do not have a current or past infection with syphilis. 52Ans- Management of dog, cat and human bite is essentially similar. They are managed with Amoxycillin/ Clavulanate and Tetanus vaccine booster if more than 5 years since last immunization/vaccine Dog and cat bite-Pasteurellamultocida Human bite-EikenellaCorrodens Humab bites are more damaging then dog bite and cat bites
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