Test Prep MCQS Multiple-choice questions (MCQS) Prometric MCQS for general practitioner (GP) Doctor Online Training
Test Prep MCQS Online Training
The questions for MCQS were last updated at Nov 26,2024.
- Exam Code: MCQS
- Exam Name: Multiple-choice questions (MCQS) Prometric MCQS for general practitioner (GP) Doctor
- Certification Provider: Test Prep
- Latest update: Nov 26,2024
A 10-year-old child has got progressive bilateral hearing loss. He has started to increase the TV volume. All other is normal.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A . Wax
- B . Bilateral OM with effusion
- C . Foreign body
- D . Meningitis due to meningococcus
A 27-year-old lady after C-section developed epigastric pain after 8h.
What is the appropriate investigations?
- A . Liver enzyme
- B . Liver biopsy
- C . ABG
- D . Coagulation
A
Explanation:
Epigastric pain is a warning sign of HELLP syndrome. So to rule out HELLP syndrome should be done.
Healthy parents have 2 children, a child with Cystic fibrosis and a healthy child.
They want to have another are the chances of that child being a carrier?
- A . 1:2
- B . 1:4
- C . 1:8
- D . 1:16
- E . 2:3
A
Explanation:
As the parents have a child with cystic fibrosis and they are healthy both of them are carrier. autosomal recessive disease where if both parents are carrier mode of inheritance is as follows: Chance of being child 1:4, Chance of being diseased 1:4 and chance of being carrier 1:2.
A 30-year-old female has chronic diarrhea, mouth ulcers and skin tags. She complains of visual problems, low morning stiffness. Inv: ESR & CRP=raised, Hgb=10mg/dl.
What is the most probable diagnosis?
- A . SLE
- B . Seronegative arthritis
- C . Gout
- D . Reactive Arthritis
B
Explanation:
Chronic diarrhea, mouth ulcers and skin tags are features of IBD. There is a w association between IBD and seronegative arthritis (particularly AS). Here low back pain, visual problem, morn raised ESR and CRP, low hemoglobin indicates the diagnosis of seronegative arthritis.
14-year-old boy has been diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome. 5days later he presents with flank pain, hem urea levels. A diagnosis of renal vein thrombosis is made.
What is the most likely cause for renal vein thrombo?
- A . Loss of anithrombin III
- B . Stasis
- C . Protein C deficiency
- D . High estrogen levels
- E . Vasculitis
A 33 year’s man has a temp-38.5C, cough and chest pain on the right side on inspiration. He also has puru.
What is the most likely organism to cause pneumonia in this patient?
- A . PCP cold agglutinins
- B . AFB
- C . Gram Cve doplicoccic
- D . Gram +ve doplococcic
- E . Coagulase +ve cocci
C
Explanation:
It is a case of community acquired pneumonia caused by streptococcus pneumonia.
A 54-year-old patient wakes up with right sided weakness. His current medication is bendroflumethiazide for BP=160/90mmHg. CT shows left cerebral infarct.
What is the most appropriate treatment?
- A . Alteplase
- B . Aspirin
- C . Simvastatin
- D . Dipyridamole
- E . Clopidogrel
A 45-year-old man has developed an annular rash with a scaly edge on his thigh. The rash has been spreading. He has some general aches and pains.
What is the single most useful investigation?
- A . ANA
- B . Skin scrap for mycology
- C . Skin swab for bacteria
- D . Biopsy lesion E. Lyme antibodies
E
Explanation:
Explanation Spreading annular rash suggests erythema migrans of lyme disease.
Drug of choice of generalized anxiety disorder is ______________.
- A . Acetalopram
- B . Bubropion
- C . Buspirone
- D . beta blocker
A
Explanation:
What is Citalopram an antidepressant in a group of drugs called selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs). Citalopram is used to treat depression. Treatment for Anxiety Disorders Many variables influence the selection of medication for individual patients. The following is general information regarding beginning treatment. Most common – sertraline (Zoloft), citalopram (Celexa), and escitalopram (Lexapro). These allow a low starting dose (12.5mg of Zoloft, 5mg of Celexa) and slow titration (anxiety patients are very vulnerable to initial activation and worsening of symptoms). Effective ranges: 50-200 mg of Zoloft, 20- 40 mg of Celexa, and 10-20 mg of Lexapro. We routinely utilize much higher doses than those previously listed to treat OCD. We rarely use benzodiazepines as first line drugs for these disorders and generally discourage as needed/rescue use. Benzodiazepines remain widely used drugs for panic and other anxiety disorders in both primary care and mental health settings. While they have clear value in some circumstances, we avoid them as first line treatments because they so powerfully reinforce the anxious patient’s wish for a simple and quick way to avoid the distressing experience of his or her anxiety. Overcoming this desire to flee distressing circumstances or feelings is the bedrock of CBT and is absolutely critical to successful long-term outcomes. Benzodiazepines often make these efforts more difficult.
Fluoxetine half-life after acute administration is ______________________________
- A . 1-4 days
- B . 6-9 days
A
Explanation:
The relatively slow elimination of fluoxetine (elimination half-life of 1 to 3 days after acute administration and 4 to 6 days after chronic administration) and its active metabolite, nor fluoxetine (elimination half-life of 4 to 16 days after acute and chronic administration), leads to significant accumulation of these active species in chronic use. After 30 days of dosing at 40 mg/day, plasma concentrations of fluoxetine in the range of 91 to 302 ng/mL and nor fluoxetine in the range of 72 to 258 ng/mL have been observed. Plasma concentrations of fluoxetine were higher than those predicted by single dose studies, presumably because fluoxetine’s metabolism is not proportional to dose. Nor fluoxetine, however, appears to have linear pharmacokinetics. Its mean terminal half-life after a single dose was 8.6 days and after multiple dosing was 9.3 days.
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