Test Prep MCQS Multiple-choice questions (MCQS) Prometric MCQS for general practitioner (GP) Doctor Online Training
Test Prep MCQS Online Training
The questions for MCQS were last updated at Nov 22,2024.
- Exam Code: MCQS
- Exam Name: Multiple-choice questions (MCQS) Prometric MCQS for general practitioner (GP) Doctor
- Certification Provider: Test Prep
- Latest update: Nov 22,2024
A 70-year-old man with prostatic cancer has had severe acute back pain waking him up at night for 6wks.
What is appropriate investigation?
- A . DEXA scan
- B . Serum ALP concentration
- C . Serum calcium concentration
- D . MRI spine
A
Explanation:
Radionuclide bone scan. MRI is good for soft tissue but not for bone. If it was radiculopathy, spina compression or prolapsed disc creating pressure on nerve MRI would be fine but not for bony metastasis. Her choice is radionuclide bone scan.
A 62-year-old man diagnosed with T2DM with BMI=33. Lifestyle modifications have failed to control blood. Labs: urea=3.6mmol/l, creatinine=89mmol/l.
What is the next appropriate management?
- A . Sulfonylurea receptor binder
- B . Glitazone
- C . Biguanide
- D . Sulfonylurea
C
Explanation:
Explanation Patient is obese type 2 diabetic. So biguanide is the treatment of choice
A 65-year-old man presents with significant weight loss and complains of cough, SOB and chest pain. Exam constricted, drooping of left eyelid.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A . Pancoast tumor
- B . Cervical rib
- C . Thoracic outlet syndrome
- D . Pneumonia
The strongest type of epidemiological studies is:
- A . Time line
- B . Prospective cohort studies
- C . Retrospective control case studies
- D . Cross sectional
B
Explanation:
Prospective cohort study is a cohort study that follows over time a group of similar individuals (cohorts) who differ with respect to certain factors under study, to determine how these factors affect rates of a certain outcome. For example, one might follow a cohort of middle-aged truck drivers who vary in terms of smoking habits, to test the hypothesis that the 20-year incidence rate of lung cancer will be highest among heavy smokers, followed by moderate smokers, and then nonsmokers. The prospective study is important for research on the etiology of diseases and disorders. The distinguishing feature of a prospective cohort study is that at the time that the investigators begin enrolling subjects and collecting baseline exposure information, none of the subjects have developed any of the outcomes of interest. After baseline information is collected, subjects in a prospective cohort study are then followed "longitudinally," i.e. over a period of time, usually for years, to determine if and when they become diseased and whether their exposure status changes outcomes. In this way, investigators can eventually use the data to answer many questions about the associations between "risk factors" and disease outcomes. For example, one could identify smokers and non-smokers at baseline and compare their subsequent incidence of developing heart disease. Alternatively, one could group subjects based on their body mass index (BMI) and compare their risk of developing heart disease or cancer. Prospective cohort studies are typically ranked higher in the hierarchy of evidence than retrospective cohort studies and can be more expensive than a caseC control study. One of the advantages of prospective cohort studies is they can help determine risk factors for being infected with a new disease because they are a longitudinal observation over time, and the collection of results is at regular time intervals, so recall error is minimized.
A 2-year-old baby with atrophy of the buttocks, distended abdomen with frequent offensive smelly stool.
What is the most likely investigation?
- A . Upper GI endoscopy
- B . Colonoscopy
- C . Stool culture
- D . Sweat test
- E . Endomysium/alpha gliadin antibody
E
Explanation:
Endomysium/alphagliadin antibody. Atrophy of buttock due to fat malabsorption and distended abdo (sometimes with everted umbilicus) with frequent offensive smelly stools are seen in coeliac disease. Hence gliadin antibody should be done.
A 57-year-old man having hypertension on oral anti-HTN. However, he is finding it difficult to mobilize as he tries to get up.
What is the most appropriate investigation for him?
- A . ECG
- B . CXR
- C . Ambulatory BP
- D . CT SCAN
- E . MRI
C
Explanation:
Ambulatory BP. Ambulatory BP to document low BP as cause of presenting symptom. The case sees hypotension and low BP as a result of given anti-hypertensive.
A new screening test has been devised to detect early stages of prostate cancer.
However, the test tends t of people with no cancer, although they do have cancer as diagnosed by other standard tests.
What is this flaw?
- A . True Cve
- B . False +ve
- C . Poor specificity
- D . True +ve
- E . False -ve
A 24-year-old woman known to be suffering from panic disorder presents to the hospital with tingling and nu fingers. ABG: pH=7.52, PCO2=2.2kPa, PO2=11kPa, Bicarbonate-20.
What is the most likely condition?
- A . Acute respiratory alkalosis
- B . Compensated metabolic acidosis
- C . Compensated respiratory alkalosis
- D . Acute metabolic alkalosis
A
Explanation:
In panic attack there occurs hyperventilation which causes washout of acute respiratory alkalosis resulting in raised pH >7.45 (here 7.52), low PCO2 (here 2.2 kPa) with compensatory HCO3 (here 20meq/l).
19-year-old sexually active lady came for her annual check-up, she is otherwise healthy using no contraceptive, her pap smear and all investigations are normal.
What will you suggest regarding her next check-up?
- A . After 6 months
- B . After 5 years
- C . After 1 year
- D . After 3 years
D
Explanation:
Usually pap smear should be started after 21 years of age regardless of sexual activeness but if a female is sexually active and u suspect any abnormality then u can do pap smear before 21 years of age as in this case. Pap Smear = Negative, then should be followed for screening after 3 years. Pap smear + HPV Testing = Negative, then should be followed after 5 years
An 8 year’s boy has his tonsils and adenoids removed. On the 7th post-op day, he comes back to the hemoptysis and fever.
What is the most appropriate management?
- A . Reassurance
- B . Packing
- C . Admit for IV antibiotics
- D . Surgery
- E . Prescribe oral antibiotics and discharge
C
Explanation:
Most secondary hemorrhage occurs due to infection which erodes a vessel. S be admitted for IV antibiotics.
Latest MCQS Dumps Valid Version with 249 Q&As
Latest And Valid Q&A | Instant Download | Once Fail, Full Refund
