Question #1
Which analysis detonates previously unknown submissions in a custom-built, evasion-resistant virtual environment to determine real-world effects and behavior?
- A . Dynamic
- B . Pre-exploit protection
- C . Bare-metal
- D . Static
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
Dynamic analysis is a method of malware analysis that executes the malware in a controlled environment and observes its behavior and effects. Dynamic analysis can reveal the malware’s network activity, file system changes, registry modifications, and other indicators of compromise. Dynamic analysis is performed by Palo Alto Networks WildFire, a cloud-based service that analyzes unknown files and links from various sources, such as email attachments, web downloads, and firewall traffic. WildFire uses a custom-built, evasion-resistant virtual environment to detonate the submissions and generate detailed reports and verdicts. WildFire can also share the threat intelligence with other Palo Alto Networks products and partners to prevent future attacks.
Reference: WildFire Overview, WildFire Features, WildFire Dynamic Analysis
A
Explanation:
Dynamic analysis is a method of malware analysis that executes the malware in a controlled environment and observes its behavior and effects. Dynamic analysis can reveal the malware’s network activity, file system changes, registry modifications, and other indicators of compromise. Dynamic analysis is performed by Palo Alto Networks WildFire, a cloud-based service that analyzes unknown files and links from various sources, such as email attachments, web downloads, and firewall traffic. WildFire uses a custom-built, evasion-resistant virtual environment to detonate the submissions and generate detailed reports and verdicts. WildFire can also share the threat intelligence with other Palo Alto Networks products and partners to prevent future attacks.
Reference: WildFire Overview, WildFire Features, WildFire Dynamic Analysis
Question #2
What is required for a SIEM to operate correctly to ensure a translated flow from the system of interest to the SIEM data lake?
- A . connectors and interfaces
- B . infrastructure and containers
- C . containers and developers
- D . data center and UPS
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
Connectors and interfaces are the components that enable a SIEM to collect, process, and analyze data from various sources, such as Microsoft 365 services and applications1, cloud platforms, network devices, and security solutions. Connectors are responsible for extracting and transforming data from the source systems, while interfaces are responsible for sending and receiving data to and from the SIEM server. Without connectors and interfaces, a SIEM cannot operate correctly and ensure a translated flow from the system of interest to the SIEM data lake.
Reference: SIEM server integration with Microsoft 365 services and applications
What Is SIEM Integration? 2024 Comprehensive Guide – SelectHub
SIEM Connector – docs.metallic.io
SIEM Connector
A
Explanation:
Connectors and interfaces are the components that enable a SIEM to collect, process, and analyze data from various sources, such as Microsoft 365 services and applications1, cloud platforms, network devices, and security solutions. Connectors are responsible for extracting and transforming data from the source systems, while interfaces are responsible for sending and receiving data to and from the SIEM server. Without connectors and interfaces, a SIEM cannot operate correctly and ensure a translated flow from the system of interest to the SIEM data lake.
Reference: SIEM server integration with Microsoft 365 services and applications
What Is SIEM Integration? 2024 Comprehensive Guide – SelectHub
SIEM Connector – docs.metallic.io
SIEM Connector
Question #3
Which type of Wi-Fi attack depends on the victim initiating the connection?
- A . Evil twin
- B . Jasager
- C . Parager
- D . Mirai
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
An evil twin is a type of Wi-Fi attack that involves setting up a fake malicious Wi-Fi hotspot with the same name as a legitimate network to trick users into connecting to it. The attacker can then intercept the user’s data, such as passwords, credit card numbers, or personal information. The victim initiates the connection by choosing the fake network from the list of available Wi-Fi networks, thinking it is the real one. The attacker can also use a deauthentication attack to disconnect the user from the legitimate network and force them to reconnect to the fake one.
Reference: Types of Wi-Fi Attacks You Need to Guard Your Business Against – TechGenix Types of Wireless and Mobile Device Attacks – GeeksforGeeks
The 5 most dangerous Wi-Fi attacks, and how to fight them What are Wi-Fi Attacks & How to Fight – Tech Resider
A
Explanation:
An evil twin is a type of Wi-Fi attack that involves setting up a fake malicious Wi-Fi hotspot with the same name as a legitimate network to trick users into connecting to it. The attacker can then intercept the user’s data, such as passwords, credit card numbers, or personal information. The victim initiates the connection by choosing the fake network from the list of available Wi-Fi networks, thinking it is the real one. The attacker can also use a deauthentication attack to disconnect the user from the legitimate network and force them to reconnect to the fake one.
Reference: Types of Wi-Fi Attacks You Need to Guard Your Business Against – TechGenix Types of Wireless and Mobile Device Attacks – GeeksforGeeks
The 5 most dangerous Wi-Fi attacks, and how to fight them What are Wi-Fi Attacks & How to Fight – Tech Resider
Question #4
Which term describes data packets that move in and out of the virtualized environment from the host network or a corresponding traditional data center?
- A . North-South traffic
- B . Intrazone traffic
- C . East-West traffic
- D . Interzone traffic
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
North-South traffic refers to the data packets that move between the virtualized environment and the external network, such as the internet or a traditional data center. This traffic typically involves requests from clients to access applications or services hosted on virtual machines (VMs) or containers, or responses from those VMs or containers to the clients. North-South traffic can also include management or monitoring traffic from external devices to the virtualized environment.
Reference: Fundamentals of Cloud Security, East-West and North-South Traffic Security, What is the meaning / origin of the terms north-south and east-west traffic?
A
Explanation:
North-South traffic refers to the data packets that move between the virtualized environment and the external network, such as the internet or a traditional data center. This traffic typically involves requests from clients to access applications or services hosted on virtual machines (VMs) or containers, or responses from those VMs or containers to the clients. North-South traffic can also include management or monitoring traffic from external devices to the virtualized environment.
Reference: Fundamentals of Cloud Security, East-West and North-South Traffic Security, What is the meaning / origin of the terms north-south and east-west traffic?
Question #5
Which organizational function is responsible for security automation and eventual vetting of the solution to help ensure consistency through machine-driven responses to security issues?
- A . NetOps
- B . SecOps
- C . SecDevOps
- D . DevOps
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
SecOps is the organizational function that is responsible for security automation and eventual vetting of the solution to help ensure consistency through machine-driven responses to security issues. SecOps is a collaboration between security and operations teams that aims to align their goals, processes, and tools to improve security posture and efficiency. SecOps can leverage automation to simplify and accelerate security tasks, such as threat detection, incident response, vulnerability management, compliance enforcement, and more. Security automation can also reduce human errors, enhance scalability, and free up resources for more strategic initiatives.
Reference: SecOps from Palo Alto Networks
What is security automation? from Red Hat
What is Security Automation? from Check Point Software
B
Explanation:
SecOps is the organizational function that is responsible for security automation and eventual vetting of the solution to help ensure consistency through machine-driven responses to security issues. SecOps is a collaboration between security and operations teams that aims to align their goals, processes, and tools to improve security posture and efficiency. SecOps can leverage automation to simplify and accelerate security tasks, such as threat detection, incident response, vulnerability management, compliance enforcement, and more. Security automation can also reduce human errors, enhance scalability, and free up resources for more strategic initiatives.
Reference: SecOps from Palo Alto Networks
What is security automation? from Red Hat
What is Security Automation? from Check Point Software
Question #6
DRAG DROP
Given the graphic, match each stage of the cyber-attack lifecycle to its description.
Correct Answer:
Question #7
DRAG DROP
Match the Identity and Access Management (IAM) security control with the appropriate definition.
Correct Answer:
Question #8
On an endpoint, which method should you use to secure applications against exploits?
- A . endpoint-based firewall
- B . strong user passwords
- C . full-disk encryption
- D . software patches
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
Software patches are updates that fix bugs, vulnerabilities, or performance issues in applications. Applying software patches regularly is one of the best practices to secure applications against exploits, as it prevents attackers from taking advantage of known flaws in the software. Software patches can also improve the functionality and compatibility of applications, as well as address any security gaps that may arise from changes in the operating system or other software components. Endpoint security solutions, such as Cortex XDR, can help organizations automate and streamline the patch management process, ensuring that all endpoints are up to date and protected from exploits.
Reference: Endpoint Protection – Palo Alto Networks
Endpoint Security – Palo Alto Networks
Patch Management – Palo Alto Networks
D
Explanation:
Software patches are updates that fix bugs, vulnerabilities, or performance issues in applications. Applying software patches regularly is one of the best practices to secure applications against exploits, as it prevents attackers from taking advantage of known flaws in the software. Software patches can also improve the functionality and compatibility of applications, as well as address any security gaps that may arise from changes in the operating system or other software components. Endpoint security solutions, such as Cortex XDR, can help organizations automate and streamline the patch management process, ensuring that all endpoints are up to date and protected from exploits.
Reference: Endpoint Protection – Palo Alto Networks
Endpoint Security – Palo Alto Networks
Patch Management – Palo Alto Networks
Question #9
Which not-for-profit organization maintains the common vulnerability exposure catalog that is available through their public website?
- A . Department of Homeland Security
- B . MITRE
- C . Office of Cyber Security and Information Assurance
- D . Cybersecurity Vulnerability Research Center
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
MITRE is a not-for-profit organization that operates research and development centers sponsored by the federal government. MITRE maintains the Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures (CVE) catalog, which is a dictionary of common names for publicly known cybersecurity vulnerabilities. CVE’s common identifiers, called CVE Identifiers, make it easier to share data across separate network security databases and tools, and provide a baseline for evaluating the coverage of an organization’s security tools12.
Reference: Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures (CVE®)
CVE – CVE
B
Explanation:
MITRE is a not-for-profit organization that operates research and development centers sponsored by the federal government. MITRE maintains the Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures (CVE) catalog, which is a dictionary of common names for publicly known cybersecurity vulnerabilities. CVE’s common identifiers, called CVE Identifiers, make it easier to share data across separate network security databases and tools, and provide a baseline for evaluating the coverage of an organization’s security tools12.
Reference: Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures (CVE®)
CVE – CVE
Question #10
Which Palo Alto Networks tools enable a proactive, prevention-based approach to network automation that accelerates security analysis?
- A . MineMeld
- B . AutoFocus
- C . WildFire
- D . Cortex XDR
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
Cortex XDR is a security analytics platform that converges logs from network, identity, endpoint, application, and other security relevant sources to generate high-fidelity behavioral alerts and facilitate rapid incident analysis, investigation, and response1. Cortex XDR uses machine learning algorithms to automate data analysis and apply modeling in real time, helping organizations to reduce analyst workloads and improve security1. Cortex XDR also integrates with Palo Alto Networks next-generation firewalls and other security tools to streamline and speed network security response2.
Reference: Security Analytics – Palo Alto Networks, Network Security Automation – Palo Alto Networks
D
Explanation:
Cortex XDR is a security analytics platform that converges logs from network, identity, endpoint, application, and other security relevant sources to generate high-fidelity behavioral alerts and facilitate rapid incident analysis, investigation, and response1. Cortex XDR uses machine learning algorithms to automate data analysis and apply modeling in real time, helping organizations to reduce analyst workloads and improve security1. Cortex XDR also integrates with Palo Alto Networks next-generation firewalls and other security tools to streamline and speed network security response2.
Reference: Security Analytics – Palo Alto Networks, Network Security Automation – Palo Alto Networks
Question #11
Which endpoint product from Palo Alto Networks can help with SOC visibility?
- A . STIX
- B . Cortex XDR
- C . WildFire
- D . AutoFocus
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
Cortex XDR is an endpoint product from Palo Alto Networks that can help with SOC visibility by allowing you to rapidly detect and respond to threats across your networks, endpoints, and clouds. It assists SOC analysts by allowing them to view all the alerts from all Palo Alto Networks products in one place, and to perform root cause analysis and automated response actions. Cortex XDR also integrates with other Palo Alto Networks products, such as WildFire, AutoFocus, and Cortex Data Lake, to provide comprehensive threat intelligence and data enrichment12.
Reference: SOC Services – Palo Alto Networks
Endpoint Protection – Palo Alto Networks
Security Operations | Palo Alto Networks
Cortex – Palo Alto Networks
B
Explanation:
Cortex XDR is an endpoint product from Palo Alto Networks that can help with SOC visibility by allowing you to rapidly detect and respond to threats across your networks, endpoints, and clouds. It assists SOC analysts by allowing them to view all the alerts from all Palo Alto Networks products in one place, and to perform root cause analysis and automated response actions. Cortex XDR also integrates with other Palo Alto Networks products, such as WildFire, AutoFocus, and Cortex Data Lake, to provide comprehensive threat intelligence and data enrichment12.
Reference: SOC Services – Palo Alto Networks
Endpoint Protection – Palo Alto Networks
Security Operations | Palo Alto Networks
Cortex – Palo Alto Networks
Question #12
Which technique changes protocols at random during a session?
- A . use of non-standard ports
- B . port hopping
- C . hiding within SSL encryption
- D . tunneling within commonly used services
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
Port hopping is a technique that changes protocols at random during a session to evade detection and analysis by security devices. Port hopping can be used by malware or attackers to communicate with command and control servers or to exfiltrate data. Port hopping makes it difficult to identify and block malicious traffic based on port numbers or signatures.
Reference: Port Hopping, Ports Used for Management Functions, Adding a Custom Application/Ports to Security Policy
B
Explanation:
Port hopping is a technique that changes protocols at random during a session to evade detection and analysis by security devices. Port hopping can be used by malware or attackers to communicate with command and control servers or to exfiltrate data. Port hopping makes it difficult to identify and block malicious traffic based on port numbers or signatures.
Reference: Port Hopping, Ports Used for Management Functions, Adding a Custom Application/Ports to Security Policy
Question #13
What is the primary security focus after consolidating data center hypervisor hosts within trust levels?
- A . control and protect inter-host traffic using routers configured to use the Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) dynamic routing protocol
- B . control and protect inter-host traffic by exporting all your traffic logs to a sysvol log server using the User Datagram Protocol (UDP)
- C . control and protect inter-host traffic by using IPv4 addressing
- D . control and protect inter-host traffic using physical network security appliances
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
page 211 "Consolidating servers within trust levels: Organizations often consolidate servers within the same trust level into a single virtual computing environment: … … … This virtual systems capability enables a single physical device to be used to simultaneously meet the unique requirements of multiple VMs or groups of VMs. Control and protection of inter-host traffic with physical network security appliances that are properly positioned and configured is the primary security focus."
D
Explanation:
page 211 "Consolidating servers within trust levels: Organizations often consolidate servers within the same trust level into a single virtual computing environment: … … … This virtual systems capability enables a single physical device to be used to simultaneously meet the unique requirements of multiple VMs or groups of VMs. Control and protection of inter-host traffic with physical network security appliances that are properly positioned and configured is the primary security focus."
Question #14
Which product from Palo Alto Networks extends the Security Operating Platform with the global threat intelligence and attack context needed to accelerate analysis, forensics, and hunting workflows?
- A . Global Protect
- B . WildFire
- C . AutoFocus
- D . STIX
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
page 173 "AutoFocus makes over a billion samples and sessions, including billions of artifacts, immediately actionable for security analysis and response efforts. AutoFocus extends the product portfolio with the global threat intelligence and attack context needed to accelerate analysis, forensics, and hunting workflows. Together, the platform and AutoFocus move security teams away from legacy manual approaches that rely on aggregating a growing number of detectionbased alerts and post-event mitigation, to preventing sophisticated attacks and enabling proactive hunting activities."
C
Explanation:
page 173 "AutoFocus makes over a billion samples and sessions, including billions of artifacts, immediately actionable for security analysis and response efforts. AutoFocus extends the product portfolio with the global threat intelligence and attack context needed to accelerate analysis, forensics, and hunting workflows. Together, the platform and AutoFocus move security teams away from legacy manual approaches that rely on aggregating a growing number of detectionbased alerts and post-event mitigation, to preventing sophisticated attacks and enabling proactive hunting activities."
Question #15
Question #16
Which characteristic of serverless computing enables developers to quickly deploy application code?
- A . Uploading cloud service autoscaling services to deploy more virtual machines to run their application code based on user demand
- B . Uploading the application code itself, without having to provision a full container image or any OS virtual machine components
- C . Using cloud service spot pricing to reduce the cost of using virtual machines to run their application code
- D . Using Container as a Service (CaaS) to deploy application containers to run their code.
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
"In serverless apps, the developer uploads only the app package itself, without a full container image or any OS components. The platform dynamically packages it into an image, runs the image in a container, and (if needed) instantiates the underlying host OS and VM and the hardware required to run them."
B
Explanation:
"In serverless apps, the developer uploads only the app package itself, without a full container image or any OS components. The platform dynamically packages it into an image, runs the image in a container, and (if needed) instantiates the underlying host OS and VM and the hardware required to run them."
Question #17
Which key component is used to configure a static route?
- A . router ID
- B . enable setting
- C . routing protocol
- D . next hop IP address
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
A static route is a manually configured route that specifies the destination network and the next hop IP address or interface to reach it. A static route does not depend on any routing protocol and remains in the routing table until it is removed or overridden. Static routes are useful for defining default routes, reaching stub networks, or providing backup routes in case of link failures. To configure a static route in a virtual router on a Palo Alto Networks firewall, you need to specify the name, destination, interface, and next hop IP address or virtual router of the route.
Reference: Configure a Static Route in Virtual Routers, Palo Alto Networks Certified Cybersecurity Entry-level Technician (PCCET), FREE Cybersecurity Education Courses
D
Explanation:
A static route is a manually configured route that specifies the destination network and the next hop IP address or interface to reach it. A static route does not depend on any routing protocol and remains in the routing table until it is removed or overridden. Static routes are useful for defining default routes, reaching stub networks, or providing backup routes in case of link failures. To configure a static route in a virtual router on a Palo Alto Networks firewall, you need to specify the name, destination, interface, and next hop IP address or virtual router of the route.
Reference: Configure a Static Route in Virtual Routers, Palo Alto Networks Certified Cybersecurity Entry-level Technician (PCCET), FREE Cybersecurity Education Courses
Question #18
A native hypervisor runs:
- A . with extreme demands on network throughput
- B . only on certain platforms
- C . within an operating system’s environment
- D . directly on the host computer’s hardware
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
● Type 1 (native or bare metal). Runs directly on the host computer’s hardware
● Type 2 (hosted). Runs within an operating system environment
D
Explanation:
● Type 1 (native or bare metal). Runs directly on the host computer’s hardware
● Type 2 (hosted). Runs within an operating system environment
Question #19
Which Palo Alto Networks product provides playbooks with 300+ multivendor integrations that help solve any security use case?
- A . Cortex XSOAR
- B . Prisma Cloud
- C . AutoFocus
- D . Cortex XDR
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
SOAR tools ingest aggregated alerts from detection sources (such as SIEMs, network security tools,
and mailboxes) before executing automatable, process-driven playbooks to enrich and respond to these alerts.
https://www.paloaltonetworks.com/cortex/security-operations-automation
A
Explanation:
SOAR tools ingest aggregated alerts from detection sources (such as SIEMs, network security tools,
and mailboxes) before executing automatable, process-driven playbooks to enrich and respond to these alerts.
https://www.paloaltonetworks.com/cortex/security-operations-automation
Question #20
Which activities do local organization security policies cover for a SaaS application?
- A . how the data is backed up in one or more locations
- B . how the application can be used
- C . how the application processes the data
- D . how the application can transit the Internet
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
Local organization security policies are the rules and guidelines that define how a SaaS application can be used by the employees, contractors, and partners of an organization. These policies cover aspects such as authentication, authorization, data access, data protection, data sharing, and compliance. Local organization security policies aim to ensure that the SaaS application is used in a secure, ethical, and legal manner, and that the organization’s data and assets are not compromised or misused123.
Reference: Securing SaaS tools for your organisation – GOV.UK
SaaS Security: A Complete Best Practices Guide – BetterCloud Security policy document examples for B2B SaaS apps
B
Explanation:
Local organization security policies are the rules and guidelines that define how a SaaS application can be used by the employees, contractors, and partners of an organization. These policies cover aspects such as authentication, authorization, data access, data protection, data sharing, and compliance. Local organization security policies aim to ensure that the SaaS application is used in a secure, ethical, and legal manner, and that the organization’s data and assets are not compromised or misused123.
Reference: Securing SaaS tools for your organisation – GOV.UK
SaaS Security: A Complete Best Practices Guide – BetterCloud Security policy document examples for B2B SaaS apps
Question #21
Which Palo Alto Networks subscription service complements App-ID by enabling you to configure the next- generation firewall to identify and control access to websites and to protect your organization from websites hosting malware and phishing pages?
- A . Threat Prevention
- B . DNS Security
- C . WildFire
- D . URL Filtering
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
The URL Filtering service complements App-ID by enabling you to configure the next-generation firewall to identify and control access to websites and to protect your organization from websites that host malware and phishing pages.
D
Explanation:
The URL Filtering service complements App-ID by enabling you to configure the next-generation firewall to identify and control access to websites and to protect your organization from websites that host malware and phishing pages.
Question #22
Which option would be an example of PII that you need to prevent from leaving your enterprise network?
- A . Credit card number
- B . Trade secret
- C . National security information
- D . A symmetric encryption key
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
A credit card number is an example of PII that you need to prevent from leaving your enterprise network. PII, or personally identifiable information, is any information that can be used to identify an individual, either alone or in combination with other data. PII can be sensitive or non-sensitive, depending on the level of protection required and the potential harm if exposed. Sensitive PII includes data that can directly identify an individual and cause significant harm if leaked or stolen, such as financial information, medical records, or government-issued ID numbers. Non-sensitive PII includes data that is easily accessible from public sources and does not pose a high risk of identity theft, such as zip code, race, or gender. A credit card number is a sensitive PII because it can be used to access the cardholder’s account, make fraudulent transactions, or steal their identity. Therefore, it is important to prevent credit card numbers from leaving the enterprise network, where they could be intercepted by hackers, malicious insiders, or third parties. To protect credit card numbers and other sensitive PII, enterprises should implement data security measures such as encryption, tokenization, masking, access control, auditing, and monitoring. Additionally, enterprises should comply with data privacy laws and standards that regulate the collection, use, and protection of PII, such as the Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard (PCI DSS), the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR), or the California Consumer Privacy Act (CCPA).
Reference: What is PII? Examples, laws, and standards | CSO Online
What is Personally Identifiable Information (PII)? | IBM
What Is Personally Identifiable Information (PII)? Types and Examples
What is PII (personally identifiable information)? – Cloudflare
What is Personally Identifiable Information (PII)? – Data Privacy Manager
A
Explanation:
A credit card number is an example of PII that you need to prevent from leaving your enterprise network. PII, or personally identifiable information, is any information that can be used to identify an individual, either alone or in combination with other data. PII can be sensitive or non-sensitive, depending on the level of protection required and the potential harm if exposed. Sensitive PII includes data that can directly identify an individual and cause significant harm if leaked or stolen, such as financial information, medical records, or government-issued ID numbers. Non-sensitive PII includes data that is easily accessible from public sources and does not pose a high risk of identity theft, such as zip code, race, or gender. A credit card number is a sensitive PII because it can be used to access the cardholder’s account, make fraudulent transactions, or steal their identity. Therefore, it is important to prevent credit card numbers from leaving the enterprise network, where they could be intercepted by hackers, malicious insiders, or third parties. To protect credit card numbers and other sensitive PII, enterprises should implement data security measures such as encryption, tokenization, masking, access control, auditing, and monitoring. Additionally, enterprises should comply with data privacy laws and standards that regulate the collection, use, and protection of PII, such as the Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard (PCI DSS), the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR), or the California Consumer Privacy Act (CCPA).
Reference: What is PII? Examples, laws, and standards | CSO Online
What is Personally Identifiable Information (PII)? | IBM
What Is Personally Identifiable Information (PII)? Types and Examples
What is PII (personally identifiable information)? – Cloudflare
What is Personally Identifiable Information (PII)? – Data Privacy Manager
Question #23
Which network analysis tool can be used to record packet captures?
- A . Smart IP Scanner
- B . Wireshark
- C . Angry IP Scanner
- D . Netman
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
Wireshark is a network analysis tool that can capture packets from various network interfaces and protocols. It can display the captured packets in a human-readable format, as well as filter, analyze, and export them. Wireshark is widely used for network troubleshooting, security testing, and education purposes12.
Reference: Wireshark ・ Go Deep, How to Use Wireshark to Capture, Filter and Inspect Packets, Palo Alto Networks Certified Cybersecurity Entry-level Technician
B
Explanation:
Wireshark is a network analysis tool that can capture packets from various network interfaces and protocols. It can display the captured packets in a human-readable format, as well as filter, analyze, and export them. Wireshark is widely used for network troubleshooting, security testing, and education purposes12.
Reference: Wireshark ・ Go Deep, How to Use Wireshark to Capture, Filter and Inspect Packets, Palo Alto Networks Certified Cybersecurity Entry-level Technician
Question #24
Systems that allow for accelerated incident response through the execution of standardized and automated playbooks that work upon inputs from security technology and other data flows are known as what?
- A . XDR
- B . STEP
- C . SOAR
- D . SIEM
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
SOAR stands for security orchestration, automation and response. It is a software solution that enables security teams to integrate and coordinate separate tools into streamlined threat response workflows. SOAR systems allow for accelerated incident response through the execution of standardized and automated playbooks that work upon inputs from security technology and other data flows. SOAR systems can also help ensure consistency, reduce human errors, and improve efficiency and scalability of security operations.
Reference: Security Operations Infrastructure from Palo Alto Networks
What is SOAR (security orchestration, automation and response)? from IBM
Security Operations Fundamentals (SOF) Flashcards from Quizlet
C
Explanation:
SOAR stands for security orchestration, automation and response. It is a software solution that enables security teams to integrate and coordinate separate tools into streamlined threat response workflows. SOAR systems allow for accelerated incident response through the execution of standardized and automated playbooks that work upon inputs from security technology and other data flows. SOAR systems can also help ensure consistency, reduce human errors, and improve efficiency and scalability of security operations.
Reference: Security Operations Infrastructure from Palo Alto Networks
What is SOAR (security orchestration, automation and response)? from IBM
Security Operations Fundamentals (SOF) Flashcards from Quizlet
Question #25
Which Palo Alto Networks tool is used to prevent endpoint systems from running malware executables such as viruses, trojans, and rootkits?
- A . Expedition
- B . Cortex XDR
- C . AutoFocus
- D . App-ID
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
Cortex XDR is a cloud-based, advanced endpoint protection solution that combines multiple methods of prevention against known and unknown malware, ransomware, and exploits. Cortex XDR uses behavioral threat protection, exploit prevention, and local analysis to stop the execution of malicious programs before an endpoint can be compromised. Cortex XDR also enables remediation on the endpoint following an alert or investigation, giving administrators the option to isolate, terminate, block, or quarantine malicious files or processes. Cortex XDR is part of the Cortex platform, which provides unified visibility and detection across the network, endpoint, and cloud.
Reference: Cortex XDR – Palo Alto Networks
Endpoint Protection – Palo Alto Networks
Endpoint Security – Palo Alto Networks
Preventing Malware and Ransomware With Traps – Palo Alto Networks
B
Explanation:
Cortex XDR is a cloud-based, advanced endpoint protection solution that combines multiple methods of prevention against known and unknown malware, ransomware, and exploits. Cortex XDR uses behavioral threat protection, exploit prevention, and local analysis to stop the execution of malicious programs before an endpoint can be compromised. Cortex XDR also enables remediation on the endpoint following an alert or investigation, giving administrators the option to isolate, terminate, block, or quarantine malicious files or processes. Cortex XDR is part of the Cortex platform, which provides unified visibility and detection across the network, endpoint, and cloud.
Reference: Cortex XDR – Palo Alto Networks
Endpoint Protection – Palo Alto Networks
Endpoint Security – Palo Alto Networks
Preventing Malware and Ransomware With Traps – Palo Alto Networks
Question #26
What does SIEM stand for?
- A . Security Infosec and Event Management
- B . Security Information and Event Management
- C . Standard Installation and Event Media
- D . Secure Infrastructure and Event Monitoring
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
Originally designed as a tool to assist organizations with compliance and industry-specific regulations, security information and event management (SIEM) is a technology that has been around for almost two decades
B
Explanation:
Originally designed as a tool to assist organizations with compliance and industry-specific regulations, security information and event management (SIEM) is a technology that has been around for almost two decades
Question #27
DRAG DROP
Match the IoT connectivity description with the technology.
Correct Answer:
Explanation:
Short-range wireless:
● Adaptive Network Technology+ (ANT+): ANT+ is a proprietary multicast wireless sensor network technology primarily used in personal wearables, such as sports and fitness sensors.
● Bluetooth/Bluetooth Low-Energy (BLE): Bluetooth is a low-power, short-range
communications technology primarily designed for point-to-point communications between wireless devices in a hub-and-spoke topology. BLE (also known as Bluetooth Smart or Bluetooth 4.0+) devices consume significantly less power than Bluetooth devices and can access the internet directly through 6LoWPAN connectivity.
● Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6) over Low-Power Wireless Personal Area Networks (6LoWPAN): 6LoWPAN allows IPv6 traffic to be carried over low-power wireless mesh networks. 6LoWPAN is designed for nodes and applications that require wireless internet connectivity at relatively low data rates in small form factors, such as smart light bulbs and smart meters.
● Wi-Fi/802.11: The Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) defines the 802 LAN protocol standards. 802.11 is the set of standards used for Wi-Fi networks typically operating in the 2.4GHz and 5GHz frequency bands. The most common implementations today include:
‒ 802.11n (labeled Wi-Fi 4 by the Wi-Fi Alliance), which operates on both 2.4GHz and 5GHz bands at ranges from 54Mbps to 600Mbps
‒ 802.11ac (Wi-Fi 5), which operates on the 5GHz band at ranges from 433Mbps to 3.46 Gbps
‒ 802.11ax (Wi-Fi 6), which operates on the 2.4GHz and 5GHz bands (and all bands between 1 and 6GHz, when they become available for 802.11 use) at ranges up to 11Gbps
● Z-Wave: Z-Wave is a low-energy wireless mesh network protocol primarily used for home automation applications such as smart appliances, lighting control, security systems, smart thermostats, windows and locks, and garage doors.
● Zigbee/802.14: Zigbee is a low-cost, low-power wireless mesh network protocol based on the IEEE 802.15.4 standard. Zigbee is the dominant protocol in the low-power networking market, with a large installed base in industrial environments and smart home products.
Question #28
Which option is an example of a North-South traffic flow?
- A . Lateral movement within a cloud or data center
- B . An internal three-tier application
- C . Client-server interactions that cross the edge perimeter
- D . Traffic between an internal server and internal user
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
North-south refers to data packets that move in and out of the virtualized environment from the host network or a corresponding traditional data center. North-south traffic is secured by one or more physical form factor perimeter edge firewalls.
C
Explanation:
North-south refers to data packets that move in and out of the virtualized environment from the host network or a corresponding traditional data center. North-south traffic is secured by one or more physical form factor perimeter edge firewalls.
Question #29
Which aspect of a SaaS application requires compliance with local organizational security policies?
- A . Types of physical storage media used
- B . Data-at-rest encryption standards
- C . Acceptable use of the SaaS application
- D . Vulnerability scanning and management
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
SaaS applications are cloud-based software that users can access from anywhere and any device. This poses a challenge for organizations to ensure that their employees are using the SaaS applications in a secure and compliant manner. Therefore, organizations need to establish and enforce acceptable use policies (AUPs) for SaaS applications that define the rules and guidelines for accessing and using the applications, such as who can use them, what data can be stored or shared, and what actions are prohibited12. AUPs help organizations to protect their data, prevent unauthorized access, and
comply with local regulations and standards3.
Reference: Using Software as a Service (SaaS) securely
– NCSC, Minimum Security Standards for Software-as-a-Service (SaaS) and Platform-as-a-Service (PaaS) | University IT, How to Secure Your SaaS Applications – CyberArk
C
Explanation:
SaaS applications are cloud-based software that users can access from anywhere and any device. This poses a challenge for organizations to ensure that their employees are using the SaaS applications in a secure and compliant manner. Therefore, organizations need to establish and enforce acceptable use policies (AUPs) for SaaS applications that define the rules and guidelines for accessing and using the applications, such as who can use them, what data can be stored or shared, and what actions are prohibited12. AUPs help organizations to protect their data, prevent unauthorized access, and
comply with local regulations and standards3.
Reference: Using Software as a Service (SaaS) securely
– NCSC, Minimum Security Standards for Software-as-a-Service (SaaS) and Platform-as-a-Service (PaaS) | University IT, How to Secure Your SaaS Applications – CyberArk
Question #30
Which option describes the “selective network security virtualization” phase of incrementally transforming data centers?
- A . during the selective network security virtualization phase, all intra-host communication paths are strictly controlled
- B . during the selective network security virtualization phase, all intra-host traffic is forwarded to a Web proxy server
- C . during the selective network security virtualization phase, all intra-host traffic is encapsulated and encrypted using the IPSEC protocol
- D . during the selective network security virtualization phase, all intra-host traffic is load balanced
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
Selective network security virtualization: Intra-host communications and live migrations are architected at this phase. All intra-host communication paths are strictly controlled to ensure that traffic between VMs at different trust levels is intermediated either by an on-box, virtual security appliance or by an off-box, physical security appliance.
A
Explanation:
Selective network security virtualization: Intra-host communications and live migrations are architected at this phase. All intra-host communication paths are strictly controlled to ensure that traffic between VMs at different trust levels is intermediated either by an on-box, virtual security appliance or by an off-box, physical security appliance.
Question #31
Which TCP/IP sub-protocol operates at the Layer7 of the OSI model?
- A . UDP
- B . MAC
- C . SNMP
- D . NFS
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
● Application (Layer 7 or L7): This layer identifies and establishes availability of communication partners, determines resource availability, and synchronizes communication.
● Presentation (Layer 6 or L6): This layer provides coding and conversion functions (such as data representation, character conversion, data compression, and data encryption) to ensure that data sent from the Application layer of one system is compatible with the Application layer of the receiving system.
● Session (Layer 5 or L5): This layer manages communication sessions (service requests and service responses) between networked systems, including connection establishment, data transfer, and connection release.
● Transport (Layer 4 or L4): This layer provides transparent, reliable data transport and
end-to-end transmission control.
C
Explanation:
● Application (Layer 7 or L7): This layer identifies and establishes availability of communication partners, determines resource availability, and synchronizes communication.
● Presentation (Layer 6 or L6): This layer provides coding and conversion functions (such as data representation, character conversion, data compression, and data encryption) to ensure that data sent from the Application layer of one system is compatible with the Application layer of the receiving system.
● Session (Layer 5 or L5): This layer manages communication sessions (service requests and service responses) between networked systems, including connection establishment, data transfer, and connection release.
● Transport (Layer 4 or L4): This layer provides transparent, reliable data transport and
end-to-end transmission control.
Question #32
Anthem server breaches disclosed Personally Identifiable Information (PII) from a number of its servers.
The infiltration by hackers was attributed to which type of vulnerability?
- A . an intranet-accessed contractor’s system that was compromised
- B . exploitation of an unpatched security vulnerability
- C . access by using a third-party vendor’s password
- D . a phishing scheme that captured a database administrator’s password
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
The Anthem data breach of 2015 was caused by a phishing scheme that captured a database administrator’s password. According to the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) Office for Civil Rights (OCR), hackers sent phishing emails to an Anthem subsidiary. At least one employee responded. Attackers were able to plant malware on the company’s system and gain remote access to confidential information1. The breach exposed the electronic protected health information of almost 79 million people, including names, Social Security numbers, medical identification numbers, addresses, dates of birth, email addresses, and employment information2.
Reference: Anthem Pays OCR $16 Million in Record HIPAA Settlement Following Largest U.S. Health Data Breach How Anthem Data Breach Exposed Personnel Records – IDStrong
D
Explanation:
The Anthem data breach of 2015 was caused by a phishing scheme that captured a database administrator’s password. According to the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) Office for Civil Rights (OCR), hackers sent phishing emails to an Anthem subsidiary. At least one employee responded. Attackers were able to plant malware on the company’s system and gain remote access to confidential information1. The breach exposed the electronic protected health information of almost 79 million people, including names, Social Security numbers, medical identification numbers, addresses, dates of birth, email addresses, and employment information2.
Reference: Anthem Pays OCR $16 Million in Record HIPAA Settlement Following Largest U.S. Health Data Breach How Anthem Data Breach Exposed Personnel Records – IDStrong
Question #33
Routing Information Protocol (RIP), uses what metric to determine how network traffic should flow?
- A . Shortest Path
- B . Hop Count
- C . Split Horizon
- D . Path Vector
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
Routing Information Protocol (RIP) is an example of a distance-vector routing protocol that uses hop count as its routing metric. To prevent routing loops, in which packets effectively get stuck bouncing between various router nodes, RIP implements a hop limit of 15, which limits the size of networks that RIP can support. After a data packet crosses 15 router nodes (hops) between a source and a destination, the destination is considered unreachable.
B
Explanation:
Routing Information Protocol (RIP) is an example of a distance-vector routing protocol that uses hop count as its routing metric. To prevent routing loops, in which packets effectively get stuck bouncing between various router nodes, RIP implements a hop limit of 15, which limits the size of networks that RIP can support. After a data packet crosses 15 router nodes (hops) between a source and a destination, the destination is considered unreachable.
Question #34
Why is it important to protect East-West traffic within a private cloud?
- A . All traffic contains threats, so enterprises must protect against threats across the entire network
- B . East-West traffic contains more session-oriented traffic than other traffic
- C . East-West traffic contains more threats than other traffic
- D . East-West traffic uses IPv6 which is less secure than IPv4
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
East-West traffic is the lateral movement of data packets between servers within a data center, or across private and public clouds1. This type of traffic has grown substantially with the proliferation of data centers and cloud adoption, and it now surpasses the conventional North-South traffic that goes in or out of the network2. Therefore, it is important to protect East-West traffic from potential malicious actors and breaches, as threats can arise internally and move laterally without ever touching the traditional network perimeter12. By inspecting and monitoring all East-West traffic, organizations can effectively block the lateral movement of threat actors, increase network visibility, protect vital applications and data, and lower costs and risks for distributed operations23.
Reference: East-West Traffic: Everything You Need to Know | Gigamon Blog What is East-West Security? | VMware Glossary
How to Harness East-West Visibility for a Stronger Defensive Security …
A
Explanation:
East-West traffic is the lateral movement of data packets between servers within a data center, or across private and public clouds1. This type of traffic has grown substantially with the proliferation of data centers and cloud adoption, and it now surpasses the conventional North-South traffic that goes in or out of the network2. Therefore, it is important to protect East-West traffic from potential malicious actors and breaches, as threats can arise internally and move laterally without ever touching the traditional network perimeter12. By inspecting and monitoring all East-West traffic, organizations can effectively block the lateral movement of threat actors, increase network visibility, protect vital applications and data, and lower costs and risks for distributed operations23.
Reference: East-West Traffic: Everything You Need to Know | Gigamon Blog What is East-West Security? | VMware Glossary
How to Harness East-West Visibility for a Stronger Defensive Security …
Question #35
Which IPsec feature allows device traffic to go directly to the Internet?
- A . Split tunneling
- B . Diffie-Hellman groups
- C . Authentication Header (AH)
- D . IKE Security Association
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
"Or split tunneling can be configured to allow internet traffic from the device to go directly to the internet, while other specific types of traffic route through the IPsec tunnel, for acceptable protection with much less performance degradation."
A
Explanation:
"Or split tunneling can be configured to allow internet traffic from the device to go directly to the internet, while other specific types of traffic route through the IPsec tunnel, for acceptable protection with much less performance degradation."
Question #36
Which attacker profile uses the internet to recruit members to an ideology, to train them, and to spread fear and include panic?
- A . cybercriminals
- B . state-affiliated groups
- C . hacktivists
- D . cyberterrorists
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
Cyberterrorists are attackers who use the internet to recruit members to an ideology, to train them, and to spread fear and induce panic. Cyberterrorists may target critical infrastructure, government systems, or public services to cause disruption, damage, or harm. Cyberterrorists may also use the internet to disseminate propaganda, incite violence, or coordinate attacks. Cyberterrorists differ from other attacker profiles in their motivation, which is usually political, religious, or ideological, rather than financial or personal.
Reference: Cyberterrorism, Cyber Threats, Cybersecurity Threat Landscape
D
Explanation:
Cyberterrorists are attackers who use the internet to recruit members to an ideology, to train them, and to spread fear and induce panic. Cyberterrorists may target critical infrastructure, government systems, or public services to cause disruption, damage, or harm. Cyberterrorists may also use the internet to disseminate propaganda, incite violence, or coordinate attacks. Cyberterrorists differ from other attacker profiles in their motivation, which is usually political, religious, or ideological, rather than financial or personal.
Reference: Cyberterrorism, Cyber Threats, Cybersecurity Threat Landscape
Question #37
What are two key characteristics of a Type 1 hypervisor? (Choose two.)
- A . is hardened against cyber attacks
- B . runs without any vulnerability issues
- C . runs within an operating system
- D . allows multiple, virtual (or guest) operating systems to run concurrently on a single physical host computer
Correct Answer: A D
A D
Explanation:
A Type 1 hypervisor, also known as a bare-metal hypervisor, is a software layer that runs directly on the hardware of a physical host computer, without requiring an underlying operating system. A Type 1 hypervisor can create and manage multiple isolated virtual machines (VMs), each with its own virtual (or guest) operating system and applications. A Type 1 hypervisor is hardened against cyber attacks, as it has a smaller attack surface and fewer vulnerabilities than a Type 2 hypervisor, which runs within an operating system. A Type 1 hypervisor also offers better performance, scalability, and resource utilization than a Type 2 hypervisor.
Reference: 10 Palo Alto Networks PCCET Exam Practice Questions, Palo Alto Networks Certified Cybersecurity Entry-level Technician v1.0, FREE Cybersecurity Education Courses.
A D
Explanation:
A Type 1 hypervisor, also known as a bare-metal hypervisor, is a software layer that runs directly on the hardware of a physical host computer, without requiring an underlying operating system. A Type 1 hypervisor can create and manage multiple isolated virtual machines (VMs), each with its own virtual (or guest) operating system and applications. A Type 1 hypervisor is hardened against cyber attacks, as it has a smaller attack surface and fewer vulnerabilities than a Type 2 hypervisor, which runs within an operating system. A Type 1 hypervisor also offers better performance, scalability, and resource utilization than a Type 2 hypervisor.
Reference: 10 Palo Alto Networks PCCET Exam Practice Questions, Palo Alto Networks Certified Cybersecurity Entry-level Technician v1.0, FREE Cybersecurity Education Courses.
Question #38
The customer is responsible only for which type of security when using a SaaS application?
- A . physical
- B . platform
- C . data
- D . infrastructure
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
Data security is the only type of security that the customer is fully responsible for when using a SaaS application. Data security refers to the protection of data from unauthorized access, use, modification, deletion, or disclosure. Data security includes aspects such as encryption, backup, recovery, access control, and compliance12. The customer is responsible for ensuring that their data is secure in transit and at rest, and that they comply with any applicable regulations or policies regarding their data.
The other types of security – physical, platform, and infrastructure – are the responsibility of the SaaS provider. Physical security refers to the protection of the hardware and facilities that host the SaaS application. Platform security refers to the protection of the software and services that run the SaaS application. Infrastructure security refers to the protection of the network and systems that support the SaaS application. The SaaS provider is responsible for ensuring that these layers of security are maintained and updated, and that they meet the required standards and certifications34.
Reference: SaaS and the Shared Security Model
A Guide to SaaS Shared Responsibility Model
The Shared Responsibility Model for Security in The Cloud (IaaS, PaaS & SaaS)
Shared responsibility in the cloud
C
Explanation:
Data security is the only type of security that the customer is fully responsible for when using a SaaS application. Data security refers to the protection of data from unauthorized access, use, modification, deletion, or disclosure. Data security includes aspects such as encryption, backup, recovery, access control, and compliance12. The customer is responsible for ensuring that their data is secure in transit and at rest, and that they comply with any applicable regulations or policies regarding their data.
The other types of security – physical, platform, and infrastructure – are the responsibility of the SaaS provider. Physical security refers to the protection of the hardware and facilities that host the SaaS application. Platform security refers to the protection of the software and services that run the SaaS application. Infrastructure security refers to the protection of the network and systems that support the SaaS application. The SaaS provider is responsible for ensuring that these layers of security are maintained and updated, and that they meet the required standards and certifications34.
Reference: SaaS and the Shared Security Model
A Guide to SaaS Shared Responsibility Model
The Shared Responsibility Model for Security in The Cloud (IaaS, PaaS & SaaS)
Shared responsibility in the cloud
Question #39
Which Palo Alto subscription service identifies unknown malware, zero-day exploits, and advanced persistent threats (APTs) through static and dynamic analysis in a scalable, virtual environment?
- A . DNS Security
- B . URL Filtering
- C . WildFire
- D . Threat Prevention
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
"The WildFire cloud-based malware analysis environment is a cyber threat prevention service that identifies unknown malware, zero-day exploits, and advanced persistent threats (APTs) through static and dynamic analysis in a scalable, virtual environment. WildFire automatically disseminates updated protections in near-real time to immediately prevent threats from spreading; this occurs without manual intervention"
C
Explanation:
"The WildFire cloud-based malware analysis environment is a cyber threat prevention service that identifies unknown malware, zero-day exploits, and advanced persistent threats (APTs) through static and dynamic analysis in a scalable, virtual environment. WildFire automatically disseminates updated protections in near-real time to immediately prevent threats from spreading; this occurs without manual intervention"
Question #40
In which step of the cyber-attack lifecycle do hackers embed intruder code within seemingly innocuous files?
- A . weaponization
- B . reconnaissance
- C . exploitation
- D . delivery
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
"Weaponization: Next, attackers determine which methods to use to compromise a target endpoint. They may choose to embed intruder code within seemingly innocuous files such as a PDF or Microsoft Word document or email message."
A
Explanation:
"Weaponization: Next, attackers determine which methods to use to compromise a target endpoint. They may choose to embed intruder code within seemingly innocuous files such as a PDF or Microsoft Word document or email message."
Question #41
Which endpoint tool or agent can enact behavior-based protection?
- A . AutoFocus
- B . Cortex XDR
- C . DNS Security
- D . MineMeld
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
Cortex XDR is an endpoint tool or agent that can enact behavior-based protection. Behavior-based protection is a method of detecting and blocking malicious activities based on the actions or potential actions of an object, such as a file, a process, or a network connection. Behavior-based protection can identify and stop threats that are unknown or evade traditional signature-based detection, by analyzing the object’s behavior for suspicious or abnormal patterns. Cortex XDR is a comprehensive solution that provides behavior-based protection for endpoints, networks, and cloud environments. Cortex XDR uses artificial intelligence and machine learning to continuously monitor and analyze data from multiple sources, such as logs, events, alerts, and telemetry. Cortex XDR can detect and prevent advanced attacks, such as ransomware, fileless malware, zero-day exploits, and lateral movement, by applying behavioral blocking and containment rules. Cortex XDR can also perform root cause analysis, threat hunting, and incident response, to help organizations reduce the impact and duration of security incidents.
Reference: Cortex XDR – Palo Alto Networks
Behavioral blocking and containment | Microsoft Learn
Behaviour Based Endpoint Protection | Signature-Based Security – Xcitium The 12 Best Endpoint Security Software Solutions and Tools [2024]
B
Explanation:
Cortex XDR is an endpoint tool or agent that can enact behavior-based protection. Behavior-based protection is a method of detecting and blocking malicious activities based on the actions or potential actions of an object, such as a file, a process, or a network connection. Behavior-based protection can identify and stop threats that are unknown or evade traditional signature-based detection, by analyzing the object’s behavior for suspicious or abnormal patterns. Cortex XDR is a comprehensive solution that provides behavior-based protection for endpoints, networks, and cloud environments. Cortex XDR uses artificial intelligence and machine learning to continuously monitor and analyze data from multiple sources, such as logs, events, alerts, and telemetry. Cortex XDR can detect and prevent advanced attacks, such as ransomware, fileless malware, zero-day exploits, and lateral movement, by applying behavioral blocking and containment rules. Cortex XDR can also perform root cause analysis, threat hunting, and incident response, to help organizations reduce the impact and duration of security incidents.
Reference: Cortex XDR – Palo Alto Networks
Behavioral blocking and containment | Microsoft Learn
Behaviour Based Endpoint Protection | Signature-Based Security – Xcitium The 12 Best Endpoint Security Software Solutions and Tools [2024]
Question #42
Which tool supercharges security operations center (SOC) efficiency with the world’s most comprehensive operating platform for enterprise security?
- A . Prisma SAAS
- B . WildFire
- C . Cortex XDR
- D . Cortex XSOAR
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
Cortex XSOAR enhances Security Operations Center (SOC) efficiency with the world’s most comprehensive operating platform for enterprise security. Cortex XSOAR unifies case management, automation, real-time collaboration, and native threat intel management in the industry’s first extended security orchestration, automation, and response (SOAR) offering.
D
Explanation:
Cortex XSOAR enhances Security Operations Center (SOC) efficiency with the world’s most comprehensive operating platform for enterprise security. Cortex XSOAR unifies case management, automation, real-time collaboration, and native threat intel management in the industry’s first extended security orchestration, automation, and response (SOAR) offering.
Question #43
During the OSI layer 3 step of the encapsulation process, what is the Protocol Data Unit (PDU) called when the IP stack adds source (sender) and destination (receiver) IP addresses?
- A . Frame
- B . Segment
- C . Packet
- D . Data
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
The IP stack adds source (sender) and destination (receiver) IP addresses to the TCP segment (which now is called an IP packet) and notifies the server operating system that it has an outgoing message ready to be sent across the network.
C
Explanation:
The IP stack adds source (sender) and destination (receiver) IP addresses to the TCP segment (which now is called an IP packet) and notifies the server operating system that it has an outgoing message ready to be sent across the network.
Question #44
Which core component is used to implement a Zero Trust architecture?
- A . VPN Concentrator
- B . Content Identification
- C . Segmentation Platform
- D . Web Application Zone
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
"Remember that a trust zone is not intended to be a “pocket of trust” where systems (and therefore threats) within the zone can communicate freely and directly with each other. For a full Zero Trust implementation, the network would be configured to ensure that all communications traffic, including traffic between devices in the same zone, is intermediated by the corresponding Zero Trust Segmentation Platform."
C
Explanation:
"Remember that a trust zone is not intended to be a “pocket of trust” where systems (and therefore threats) within the zone can communicate freely and directly with each other. For a full Zero Trust implementation, the network would be configured to ensure that all communications traffic, including traffic between devices in the same zone, is intermediated by the corresponding Zero Trust Segmentation Platform."
Question #45
In addition to local analysis, what can send unknown files to WildFire for discovery and deeper analysis to rapidly detect potentially unknown malware?
- A . Cortex XDR
- B . AutoFocus
- C . MineMild
- D . Cortex XSOAR
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
In addition to local analysis, Cortex XDR can send unknown files to WildFire for discovery and deeper analysis to rapidly detect.
A
Explanation:
In addition to local analysis, Cortex XDR can send unknown files to WildFire for discovery and deeper analysis to rapidly detect.
Question #46
On an endpoint, which method is used to protect proprietary data stored on a laptop that has been stolen?
- A . operating system patches
- B . full-disk encryption
- C . periodic data backups
- D . endpoint-based firewall
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
Full-disk encryption is a method of protecting data on a laptop that has been stolen by encrypting the entire hard drive, making it unreadable without the correct password or key. This prevents unauthorized access to the proprietary data stored on the laptop, even if the thief removes the hard drive and connects it to another device. Full-disk encryption can be enabled using built-in features such as BitLocker on Windows or FileVault on macOS, or using third-party software such as Absolute Home & Office12.
Reference: How to Protect your Data if a Laptop is Lost or Stolen, What to do when your laptop is stolen, Palo Alto Networks Certified Cybersecurity Entry-level Technician
B
Explanation:
Full-disk encryption is a method of protecting data on a laptop that has been stolen by encrypting the entire hard drive, making it unreadable without the correct password or key. This prevents unauthorized access to the proprietary data stored on the laptop, even if the thief removes the hard drive and connects it to another device. Full-disk encryption can be enabled using built-in features such as BitLocker on Windows or FileVault on macOS, or using third-party software such as Absolute Home & Office12.
Reference: How to Protect your Data if a Laptop is Lost or Stolen, What to do when your laptop is stolen, Palo Alto Networks Certified Cybersecurity Entry-level Technician
Question #47
Why have software developers widely embraced the use of containers?
- A . Containers require separate development and production environments to promote authentic code.
- B . Containers share application dependencies with other containers and with their host computer.
- C . Containers simplify the building and deploying of cloud native applications.
- D . Containers are host specific and are not portable across different virtual machine hosts.
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
Containers are portable and lightweight alternatives to virtual machines that allow developers to package, isolate, and deploy applications across different cloud environments. Containers simplify the building and deploying of cloud native applications by providing consistent and efficient development, testing, and production environments. Containers also offer benefits such as rapid provisioning, high scalability, resource optimization, and security isolation.
Reference: What are containerized applications? from Google Cloud
What are containers and why do you need them? from IBM Developer Embracing containers for software-defined cloud infrastructure from Red Hat
C
Explanation:
Containers are portable and lightweight alternatives to virtual machines that allow developers to package, isolate, and deploy applications across different cloud environments. Containers simplify the building and deploying of cloud native applications by providing consistent and efficient development, testing, and production environments. Containers also offer benefits such as rapid provisioning, high scalability, resource optimization, and security isolation.
Reference: What are containerized applications? from Google Cloud
What are containers and why do you need them? from IBM Developer Embracing containers for software-defined cloud infrastructure from Red Hat
Question #48
When signature-based antivirus software detects malware, what three things does it do to provide protection? (Choose three.)
- A . decrypt the infected file using base64
- B . alert system administrators
- C . quarantine the infected file
- D . delete the infected file
- E . remove the infected file’s extension
Correct Answer: B C D
B C D
Explanation:
Signature-based antivirus software is a type of security software that uses signatures to identify malware. Signatures are bits of code that are unique to a specific piece of malware. When signature-based antivirus software detects a piece of malware, it compares the signature to its database of known signatures12. If a match is found, the software can do three things to provide protection: Alert system administrators: The software can notify the system administrators or the users about the malware detection, and provide information such as the name, type, location, and severity of the malware. This can help the administrators or the users to take appropriate actions to prevent further damage or infection3.
Quarantine the infected file: The software can isolate the infected file from the rest of the system, and prevent it from accessing or modifying any other files or processes. This can help to contain the malware and limit its impact on the system4.
Delete the infected file: The software can remove the infected file from the system, and prevent it from running or spreading. This can help to eliminate the malware and restore the system to a clean state4.
Reference: What is a signature-based antivirus? – Info Exchange What is a Signature and How Can I detect it? – Sophos How Does Heuristic Analysis Antivirus Software Work? What Is Signature-based Malware Detection? | RiskXchange
B C D
Explanation:
Signature-based antivirus software is a type of security software that uses signatures to identify malware. Signatures are bits of code that are unique to a specific piece of malware. When signature-based antivirus software detects a piece of malware, it compares the signature to its database of known signatures12. If a match is found, the software can do three things to provide protection: Alert system administrators: The software can notify the system administrators or the users about the malware detection, and provide information such as the name, type, location, and severity of the malware. This can help the administrators or the users to take appropriate actions to prevent further damage or infection3.
Quarantine the infected file: The software can isolate the infected file from the rest of the system, and prevent it from accessing or modifying any other files or processes. This can help to contain the malware and limit its impact on the system4.
Delete the infected file: The software can remove the infected file from the system, and prevent it from running or spreading. This can help to eliminate the malware and restore the system to a clean state4.
Reference: What is a signature-based antivirus? – Info Exchange What is a Signature and How Can I detect it? – Sophos How Does Heuristic Analysis Antivirus Software Work? What Is Signature-based Malware Detection? | RiskXchange
Question #49
Which option is a Prisma Access security service?
- A . Compute Security
- B . Firewall as a Service (FWaaS)
- C . Virtual Private Networks (VPNs)
- D . Software-defined wide-area networks (SD-WANs)
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
Prisma Access provides firewall as a service (FWaaS) that protects branch offices from threats while also providing the security services expected from a next-generation firewall. The full spectrum of FWaaS includes threat prevention, URL filtering, sandboxing, and more.
B
Explanation:
Prisma Access provides firewall as a service (FWaaS) that protects branch offices from threats while also providing the security services expected from a next-generation firewall. The full spectrum of FWaaS includes threat prevention, URL filtering, sandboxing, and more.
Question #50
Which pillar of Prisma Cloud application security addresses ensuring that your cloud resources and SaaS applications are correctly configured?
- A . visibility, governance, and compliance
- B . network protection
- C . dynamic computing
- D . compute security
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
Ensuring that your cloud resources and SaaS applications are correctly configured and adhere to your organization’s security standards from day one is essential to prevent successful attacks. Also, making sure that these applications, and the data they collect and store, are properly protected and compliant is critical to avoid costly fines, a tarnished image, and loss of customer trust. Meeting security standards and maintaining compliant environments at scale, and across SaaS applications, is the new expectation for security teams.
A
Explanation:
Ensuring that your cloud resources and SaaS applications are correctly configured and adhere to your organization’s security standards from day one is essential to prevent successful attacks. Also, making sure that these applications, and the data they collect and store, are properly protected and compliant is critical to avoid costly fines, a tarnished image, and loss of customer trust. Meeting security standards and maintaining compliant environments at scale, and across SaaS applications, is the new expectation for security teams.
Question #51
Which item accurately describes a security weakness that is caused by implementing a “ports first” data security solution in a traditional data center?
- A . You may have to use port numbers greater than 1024 for your business-critical applications.
- B . You may have to open up multiple ports and these ports could also be used to gain unauthorized entry into your datacenter.
- C . You may not be able to assign the correct port to your business-critical applications.
- D . You may not be able to open up enough ports for your business-critical applications which will increase the attack surface area.
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
A “ports first” data security solution is a traditional approach that relies on port numbers to identify and filter network traffic. This approach has several limitations and security weaknesses, such as12: Port numbers are not reliable indicators of the type or content of network traffic, as they can be easily spoofed or changed by malicious actors.
Port numbers do not provide any visibility into the application layer, where most of the attacks occur. Port numbers do not account for the dynamic and complex nature of modern applications, which often use multiple ports or protocols to communicate.
Port numbers do not support granular and flexible policies based on user identity, device context, or application behavior. One of the security weaknesses that is caused by implementing a “ports first” data security solution in a traditional data center is that you may have to open up multiple ports and these ports could also be used to gain unauthorized entry into your datacenter. For example, if you have a web server that runs on port 80, you may have to open up port 80 on your firewall to allow incoming traffic. However, this also means that any other service or application that uses port 80 can also access your datacenter, potentially exposing it to attacks. Moreover, opening up multiple ports increases the attack surface area of your network, as it creates more entry points for attackers to exploit34.
Reference: Common Open Port Vulnerabilities List – Netwrix, Optimize security with Azure Firewall solution for Azure Sentinel | Microsoft Security Blog, Which item accurately describes a security weakness that is caused by …, Which item accurately describes a security weakness … – Exam4Training
B
Explanation:
A “ports first” data security solution is a traditional approach that relies on port numbers to identify and filter network traffic. This approach has several limitations and security weaknesses, such as12: Port numbers are not reliable indicators of the type or content of network traffic, as they can be easily spoofed or changed by malicious actors.
Port numbers do not provide any visibility into the application layer, where most of the attacks occur. Port numbers do not account for the dynamic and complex nature of modern applications, which often use multiple ports or protocols to communicate.
Port numbers do not support granular and flexible policies based on user identity, device context, or application behavior. One of the security weaknesses that is caused by implementing a “ports first” data security solution in a traditional data center is that you may have to open up multiple ports and these ports could also be used to gain unauthorized entry into your datacenter. For example, if you have a web server that runs on port 80, you may have to open up port 80 on your firewall to allow incoming traffic. However, this also means that any other service or application that uses port 80 can also access your datacenter, potentially exposing it to attacks. Moreover, opening up multiple ports increases the attack surface area of your network, as it creates more entry points for attackers to exploit34.
Reference: Common Open Port Vulnerabilities List – Netwrix, Optimize security with Azure Firewall solution for Azure Sentinel | Microsoft Security Blog, Which item accurately describes a security weakness that is caused by …, Which item accurately describes a security weakness … – Exam4Training
Question #52
DRAG DROP
Match each description to a Security Operating Platform key capability.
Correct Answer:
Explanation:
● Reduce the attack surface: Best-of-breed technologies that are natively integrated provide a prevention architecture that inherently reduces the attack surface. This type of architecture allows organizations to exert positive control based on applications, users, and content, with support for open communication, orchestration, and visibility.
● Prevent all known threats, fast: A coordinated security platform accounts for the full scope of an attack across the various security controls that compose the security posture, thus enabling organizations to quickly identify and block known threats.
● Detect and prevent new, unknown threats with automation: Security that simply detects threats and requires a manual response is too little, too late. Automated creation and delivery of near-real-time protections against new threats to the various security solutions in the organization’s environments enable dynamic policy updates. These updates are
designed to allow enterprises to scale defenses with technology, rather than people.
Question #53
Which statement describes DevOps?
- A . DevOps is its own separate team
- B . DevOps is a set of tools that assists the Development and Operations teams throughout the software delivery process
- C . DevOps is a combination of the Development and Operations teams
- D . DevOps is a culture that unites the Development and Operations teams throughout the software delivery process
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
DevOps is not:
● A combination of the Dev and Ops teams: There still are two teams; they just operate in a communicative, collaborative way.
● Its own separate team: There is no such thing as a “DevOps engineer.” Although some companies may appoint a “DevOps team” as a pilot when trying to transition to a DevOps culture, DevOps refers to a culture where developers, testers, and operations personnel cooperate throughout the entire software delivery lifecycle.
● A tool or set of tools: Although there are tools that work well with a DevOps model or help promote DevOps culture, DevOps ultimately is a strategy, not a tool.
● Automation: Although automation is very important for a DevOps culture, it alone does not define DevOps.
D
Explanation:
DevOps is not:
● A combination of the Dev and Ops teams: There still are two teams; they just operate in a communicative, collaborative way.
● Its own separate team: There is no such thing as a “DevOps engineer.” Although some companies may appoint a “DevOps team” as a pilot when trying to transition to a DevOps culture, DevOps refers to a culture where developers, testers, and operations personnel cooperate throughout the entire software delivery lifecycle.
● A tool or set of tools: Although there are tools that work well with a DevOps model or help promote DevOps culture, DevOps ultimately is a strategy, not a tool.
● Automation: Although automation is very important for a DevOps culture, it alone does not define DevOps.
Question #54
Which product from Palo Alto Networks enables organizations to prevent successful cyberattacks as well as simplify and strengthen security processes?
- A . Expedition
- B . AutoFocus
- C . MineMeld
- D . Cortex XDR
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
From a business perspective, XDR platforms enable organizations to prevent successful cyberattacks as well as simplify and strengthen security processes.
D
Explanation:
From a business perspective, XDR platforms enable organizations to prevent successful cyberattacks as well as simplify and strengthen security processes.
Question #55
Which network firewall operates up to Layer 4 (Transport layer) of the OSI model and maintains information about the communication sessions which have been established between hosts on trusted and untrusted networks?
- A . Group policy
- B . Stateless
- C . Stateful
- D . Static packet-filter
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
Stateful packet inspection firewalls Second-generation stateful packet inspection (also known as dynamic packet filtering) firewalls have the following characteristics:
● They operate up to Layer 4 (Transport layer) of the OSI model and maintain state information about
the communication sessions that have been established between hosts on the trusted and untrusted networks.
● They inspect individual packet headers to determine source and destination IP address, protocol (TCP, UDP, and ICMP), and port number (during session establishment only) to
determine whether the session should be allowed, blocked, or dropped based on configured firewall rules.
● After a permitted connection is established between two hosts, the firewall creates and
deletes firewall rules for individual connections as needed, thus effectively creating a tunnel that allows traffic to flow between the two hosts without further inspection of individual packets during the session.
● This type of firewall is very fast, but it is port-based and it is highly dependent on the trustworthiness of the two hosts because individual packets aren’t inspected after the connection is established.
C
Explanation:
Stateful packet inspection firewalls Second-generation stateful packet inspection (also known as dynamic packet filtering) firewalls have the following characteristics:
● They operate up to Layer 4 (Transport layer) of the OSI model and maintain state information about
the communication sessions that have been established between hosts on the trusted and untrusted networks.
● They inspect individual packet headers to determine source and destination IP address, protocol (TCP, UDP, and ICMP), and port number (during session establishment only) to
determine whether the session should be allowed, blocked, or dropped based on configured firewall rules.
● After a permitted connection is established between two hosts, the firewall creates and
deletes firewall rules for individual connections as needed, thus effectively creating a tunnel that allows traffic to flow between the two hosts without further inspection of individual packets during the session.
● This type of firewall is very fast, but it is port-based and it is highly dependent on the trustworthiness of the two hosts because individual packets aren’t inspected after the connection is established.
Question #56
Which subnet does the host 192.168.19.36/27 belong?
- A . 192.168.19.0
- B . 192.168.19.16
- C . 192.168.19.64
- D . 192.168.19.32
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
To find the subnet that the host 192.168.19.36/27 belongs to, we need to convert the IP address and the subnet mask to binary form and perform a logical AND operation. The /27 notation means that the subnet mask has 27 bits of ones and 5 bits of zeros. In decimal form, the subnet mask is 255.255.255.224.
The binary form of the IP address and the subnet mask are:
IP address: 11000000.10101000.00010011.00100100 Subnet mask:
B
Explanation:
To find the subnet that the host 192.168.19.36/27 belongs to, we need to convert the IP address and the subnet mask to binary form and perform a logical AND operation. The /27 notation means that the subnet mask has 27 bits of ones and 5 bits of zeros. In decimal form, the subnet mask is 255.255.255.224.
The binary form of the IP address and the subnet mask are:
IP address: 11000000.10101000.00010011.00100100 Subnet mask:
Question #56
Which subnet does the host 192.168.19.36/27 belong?
- A . 192.168.19.0
- B . 192.168.19.16
- C . 192.168.19.64
- D . 192.168.19.32
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
To find the subnet that the host 192.168.19.36/27 belongs to, we need to convert the IP address and the subnet mask to binary form and perform a logical AND operation. The /27 notation means that the subnet mask has 27 bits of ones and 5 bits of zeros. In decimal form, the subnet mask is 255.255.255.224.
The binary form of the IP address and the subnet mask are:
IP address: 11000000.10101000.00010011.00100100 Subnet mask:
B
Explanation:
To find the subnet that the host 192.168.19.36/27 belongs to, we need to convert the IP address and the subnet mask to binary form and perform a logical AND operation. The /27 notation means that the subnet mask has 27 bits of ones and 5 bits of zeros. In decimal form, the subnet mask is 255.255.255.224.
The binary form of the IP address and the subnet mask are:
IP address: 11000000.10101000.00010011.00100100 Subnet mask:
Question #56
Which subnet does the host 192.168.19.36/27 belong?
- A . 192.168.19.0
- B . 192.168.19.16
- C . 192.168.19.64
- D . 192.168.19.32
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
To find the subnet that the host 192.168.19.36/27 belongs to, we need to convert the IP address and the subnet mask to binary form and perform a logical AND operation. The /27 notation means that the subnet mask has 27 bits of ones and 5 bits of zeros. In decimal form, the subnet mask is 255.255.255.224.
The binary form of the IP address and the subnet mask are:
IP address: 11000000.10101000.00010011.00100100 Subnet mask:
B
Explanation:
To find the subnet that the host 192.168.19.36/27 belongs to, we need to convert the IP address and the subnet mask to binary form and perform a logical AND operation. The /27 notation means that the subnet mask has 27 bits of ones and 5 bits of zeros. In decimal form, the subnet mask is 255.255.255.224.
The binary form of the IP address and the subnet mask are:
IP address: 11000000.10101000.00010011.00100100 Subnet mask:
Question #59
Order the OSI model with Layer7 at the top and Layer1 at the bottom.
- A . Layer 1
- B . Layer 2
- C . Layer 3
- D . Layer 7
Correct Answer: AD
Question #60
How does adopting a serverless model impact application development?
- A . costs more to develop application code because it uses more compute resources
- B . slows down the deployment of application code, but it improves the quality of code development
- C . reduces the operational overhead necessary to deploy application code
- D . prevents developers from focusing on just the application code because you need to provision the underlying infrastructure to run the code
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
List three advantages of serverless computing over CaaS: – Reduce costs – Increase agility – Reduce operational overhead
C
Explanation:
List three advantages of serverless computing over CaaS: – Reduce costs – Increase agility – Reduce operational overhead
Question #61
In addition to integrating the network and endpoint components, what other component does Cortex integrate to speed up IoC investigations?
- A . Computer
- B . Switch
- C . Infrastructure
- D . Cloud
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
Cortex XDR breaks the silos of traditional detection and response by natively integrating network, endpoint, and cloud data to stop sophisticated attacks
D
Explanation:
Cortex XDR breaks the silos of traditional detection and response by natively integrating network, endpoint, and cloud data to stop sophisticated attacks
Question #62
In the attached network diagram, which device is the switch?
- A . A
- B . B
- C . C
- D . D
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
A switch is a network device that connects multiple devices on a local area network (LAN) and forwards data packets between them. A switch can be identified by its icon, which is a rectangle with four curved lines on each side. In the attached network diagram, device D is the switch, as it matches the icon and connects three computers to device A, which is another network device.
Reference: [What is a Network Switch and How Does it Work?]
[Network Diagram Symbols and Icons | Lucidchart]
D
Explanation:
A switch is a network device that connects multiple devices on a local area network (LAN) and forwards data packets between them. A switch can be identified by its icon, which is a rectangle with four curved lines on each side. In the attached network diagram, device D is the switch, as it matches the icon and connects three computers to device A, which is another network device.
Reference: [What is a Network Switch and How Does it Work?]
[Network Diagram Symbols and Icons | Lucidchart]