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NFPA CFPS Certified Fire Protection Specialist (CFPS) Online Training

Question #1

Which of the following would NOT be an appropriate purpose for employing a guard service to protect a property against fire loss?

  • A . To protect the property at times when the management is not present
  • B . To carry out procedures for the orderly conduct of some operations on the property
  • C . To perform routine housekeeping and equipment maintenance operations during nonproduction hours
  • D . To facilitate and control the movement of persons into, out of, and within the property

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Correct Answer: C
C

Explanation:

The correct answer is C. To perform routine housekeeping and equipment maintenance operations during nonproduction hours would NOT be an appropriate purpose for employing a guard service to protect a property against fire loss. A guard service is typically hired to provide security and protection for a property, not to perform other tasks that are unrelated to fire prevention or control. Housekeeping and equipment maintenance operations should be done by qualified and authorized personnel who are trained and equipped to handle any potential fire hazards. A guard service may not have the necessary skills, tools, or authority to perform these operations safely and effectively. Moreover, these operations may interfere with the guard service’s primary duty of monitoring and patrolling the property for any signs of fire or intrusion12345

Question #2

Which type of construction consists of structural members of approved noncombustible or limited combustible materials with specified fire resistance ratings for exterior bearing walls of 3 or 4 hours?

  • A . Type I
  • B . Type II
  • C . Type III
  • D . Type IV

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Correct Answer: A
A

Explanation:

The correct answer is

Question #3

Which foam extinguishing agent can be proportioned into final concentrations of 1%, 3%, and 6%?

  • A . Film-Forming Fluoroprotein Agents (FFFP)
  • B . Low-Temperature Foaming Agents
  • C . Protein Foaming Agents (P)
  • D . Aqueous Film-Forming Agents (AFFF)

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Correct Answer: D
D

Explanation:

Aqueous film-forming agents (AFFF) are synthetic foam concentrates that can be proportioned into final concentrations of 1%, 3%, and 6%, depending on the type of fuel and application method12. AFFF forms a thin aqueous film on the surface of the flammable liquid, which prevents vapor release and provides rapid fire knockdown and extinguishment3. AFFF is suitable for Class B fires involving hydrocarbon fuels such as gasoline, diesel, kerosene, etc.

References:

Fire Fighting Foams – Chemguard

Extinguishing foam: types, operation and application areas

[NFPA 11: Standard for Low-, Medium-, and High-Expansion Foam]

Question #4

The two major principles used to determine egress width are the

  • A . density and group method.
  • B . flow and the capacity method.
  • C . inverse and the evacuation method.
  • D . stair width and floor method.

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Correct Answer: B
Question #5

The goals of the first edition of NFPA 13D were to provide sufficient time for safe egress or rescue, economic viability, and

  • A . alert the fire department.
  • B . limit water damage.
  • C . limit damage to the dwelling.
  • D . prevent flashover.

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Correct Answer: C
C

Explanation:

According to the web search results, the goals of the first edition of NFPA 13D were to provide sufficient time for safe egress or rescue, economic viability, and limit damage to the dwelling. The first edition of NFPA 13D was published in 1975 and was based on the concept of a “life safety” sprinkler system that was intended to protect the occupants of one- and two-family dwellings and manufactured homes from fire. The first edition of NFPA 13D stated that the system was not designed to protect the property or contents from fire damage, but rather to provide a tenable environment for escape or rescue1.The first edition of NFPA 13D also recognized the need for economic viability of the system, and therefore allowed for reduced water supply and piping requirements compared to other sprinkler standards2.The first edition of NFPA 13D did not explicitly state the goal of limiting damage to the dwelling, but it implied that the system would have some beneficial effect on the fire spread and severity by stating that the system was designed to prevent flashover in the room of fire origin1.

References:

NFPA 13D: Standard for the Installation of Sprinkler Systems in One- and Two-Family Dwellings and Manufactured Homes, 1975 Edition, Section 1-11

Fire Protection Handbook, 20th Edition, Volume 1, Chapter 8, Section 8.2.1.22

Question #6

The ignition temperature of acetylene gas is

  • A . 581° F (305° C).
  • B . 425° F (218° C).
  • C . 350° F (177° C).
  • D . 325° F (163° C).

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Correct Answer: A
A

Explanation:

Acetylene

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The ignition temperature of acetylene gas is 581° F (305° C). This is the minimum temperature required to ignite a gas or vapor in air without a spark or flame being present. The ignition temperature of acetylene gas varies according to composition, initial pressure, initial temperature, and water vapor content.As a typical example, an air mixture containing 30 percent acetylene by volume at atmospheric pressure can be ignited at about 581 °F (305°C)1.

References:Fuels and Chemicals – Autoignition Temperatures – The Engineering ToolBox;Ignition Temperatures and Group Classifications for Flammable Gases and Vapors;Is Acetylene Flammable? – Firefighter Insider;Ignition temperature acetylene – Big Chemical Encyclopedia;Acetylene Gas- its Characteristics and Safety Requirements


Question #7

Zebra mussel pipe obstructions are largely concentrated around the Great Lakes and

  • A . Colorado River areas.
  • B . Mississippi River areas.
  • C . Lake Mead areas.
  • D . Salt Lake areas.

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Correct Answer: B
B

Explanation:

Zebra mussel

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The correct answer is B. Zebra mussel pipe obstructions are largely concentrated around the Great Lakes and Mississippi River areas. Zebra mussels are an invasive species that originated from Eurasia and were introduced to North America in the late 1980s through the ballast water of ships. They have since spread to many freshwater lakes and rivers, especially in the Midwest and Northeast regions of the United States and Canada. Zebra mussels can attach themselves to hard surfaces, such as pipes, pumps, valves, and filters, and form dense colonies that reduce or block the water flow. This can cause serious problems for industries, utilities, and municipalities that rely on water intake or delivery systems. Zebra mussels can also damage aquatic ecosystems, infrastructure, and recreation by competing with native species, altering water quality, and fouling boats and equipment12345


Question #8

Which factor plays a significant role in most industrial fire and explosion losses?

  • A . Process
  • B . Mechanical
  • C . Human
  • D . External

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Correct Answer: C
C

Explanation:

The answer is C. Human factor plays a significant role in most industrial fire and explosion losses. According to a study by Allianz Global Corporate & Specialty (AGCS), human error is the cause of 80% of all industrial accidents, including fires and explosions1. Human error can include mistakes, negligence, violations, or sabotage.

Some examples of human errors that can lead to fires and explosions are:

Improper handling or storage of flammable or combustible materials

Failure to follow safety procedures or regulations

Lack of training or supervision

Poor maintenance or inspection of equipment or machinery

Ignoring or disabling alarms or warning systems

Smoking or using open flames near hazardous areas

Intentional or accidental ignition of explosives or incendiaries

To prevent or reduce the impact of human errors, industrial facilities should implement effective risk management strategies, such as:

Providing regular and adequate training and education for workers and managers

Establishing and enforcing clear and consistent safety policies and rules

Conducting thorough and frequent audits and inspections

Installing and maintaining reliable fire protection systems and equipment

Developing and practicing emergency response and evacuation plans

Encouraging a positive safety culture and communication among all stakeholders

Question #9

When evaluating the hydraulic properties of water for fire protection system, what is the measurement of a fluid’s resistance to flow?

  • A . Velocity
  • B . Viscosity
  • C . Pressure
  • D . Density

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Correct Answer: B
B

Explanation:

The measurement of a fluid’s resistance to flow is calledviscosity. Viscosity is the property of a fluid that describes how easily it can deform or move when subjected to a shear stress, such as the force exerted by a pipe wall or a pump1. A fluid with high viscosity, such as honey, resists flow and requires more pressure to overcome the friction between its layers. A fluid with low viscosity, such as water, flows easily and has less frictional resistance2.Viscosity affects the hydraulic properties of water for fire protection systems, such as the flow rate, pressure loss, and pump power3. Viscosity is usually expressed in units of pascal-second (Pa s) or centipoise (cP) for liquids, and is dependent on the temperature and composition of the fluid.

References:

Viscosity | Definition, Facts, Formula, Units, & Examples

Viscosity C The Physics Hypertextbook

Fire Pump Types | NFPA

[12.4: Viscosity and Laminar Flow; Poiseuille’s Law]

Question #10

What type of smoke management method is referred to as smoke purging, smoke removal, smoke exhaust, or smoke extraction?

  • A . Dilution
  • B . Compartmentation
  • C . Airflow
  • D . Pressurization

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Correct Answer: C
C

Explanation:

Smoke purging, smoke removal, smoke exhaust, or smoke extraction are different terms for the same type of smoke management method, which is airflow. Airflow is the method of controlling smoke by creating a flow of air that either pushes or pulls the smoke away from the desired areas. Airflow can be achieved by natural or mechanical means, such as vents, fans, or dampers. Airflow can also be used to create a smoke layer above the occupant level in large spaces, such as atriums or warehouses, by exhausting the hot smoke and supplying fresh air below the layer.

References: Smoke Extraction System – NAFFCO Smoke Management; Post-Fire Smoke Purge Systems: When Are They Required? – NY Engineers; NFPA Fire Protection Handbook, 21st Edition, Chapter 9, Section 9.2.1.

Question #11

Typical fire pump drivers reach maximum brake horsepower between

  • A . 65-85% of rated capacity.
  • B . 90-100% of rated capacity.
  • C . 110-125% of rated capacity.
  • D . 140-170% of rated capacity.

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Correct Answer: D
D

Explanation:

Fire pump

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Typical fire pump drivers reach maximum brake horsepower (BHP) between 140% and 170% of rated capacity, depending on the type and size of the pump. This means that the driver must be able to provide enough power to operate the pump at its peak efficiency point, which is usually beyond the rated capacity. The rated capacity is the flow rate at which the pump is designed to deliver a certain pressure, as specified by NFPA 20, Standard for the Installation of Stationary Pumps for Fire Protection. The maximum BHP is the highest power output required by the pump at any point on its performance curve. The driver must be sized to match the maximum BHP of the pump, with some allowance for service factor and safety margin.

References: Understanding the Basics of Fire Pumps | Pumps & Systems; How are Engines and Motors Sized for Fire Pumps?; NFPA 20, Standard for the Installation of Stationary Pumps for Fire Protection, 2023 Edition, Chapter 4, Section 4.7.


Question #12

Potassium bicarbonate is a dry chemical agent considered to be twice as effective as

  • A . Asodium bicarbonate.
  • B . monoammonium phosphate.
  • C . sodium chloride.
  • D . potassium sulfide.

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Correct Answer: A
A

Explanation:

Potassium bicarbonate is a dry chemical agent that is considered to be twice as effective as sodium bicarbonate in fire suppression, especially for Class B fires involving flammable liquids and gases. This is because potassium bicarbonate has a higher melting point and a lower decomposition temperature than sodium bicarbonate, which allows it to form a more stable and insulating layer on the burning surface. Potassium bicarbonate also has a lower pH and a higher specific gravity than sodium bicarbonate, which enhances its penetration and dispersion abilities123.

References: Dry Chemical Agents – Purple-K Powder is Purple – Chemguard; Evaluation of Dry Chemical Fire Extinguishing Standards – NFPA; Potassium bicarbonate – Wikipedia.

Question #13

The primary design approach to mitigate the effect of wind on smoke movement in high-rise buildings is based on

  • A . outside temperature.
  • B . height of the building.
  • C . tightness of the building.
  • D . fire department access.

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Correct Answer: C
Question #14

Response Time Index (RTI) is a value applicable to

  • A . Amount of time required for water to reach the most remote sprinkler.
  • B . Measure of thermal sensitivity of the air evacuation device of a dry pipe sprinkler system.
  • C . Measure of thermal sensitivity of a sprinkler’s activation.
  • D . Measure of thermal sensitivity of a wet pipe sprinkler system’s alarm device.

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Correct Answer: C
C

Explanation:

Response Time Index (RTI) is a measure of thermal sensitivity of a sprinkler’s activation. It indicates how quickly the sprinkler responds to the heat from a fire. RTI is calculated by using the operating time, operating temperature, air temperature, air velocity, and conductivity factor of the sprinkler. RTI is independent of the gas velocity but depends on the properties of the sprinkler head such as mass, specific heat capacity and surface area of the thermal sensing element. RTI is used to classify sprinklers into fast response or standard response categories.

References: The Basics of Sprinkler Thermal Characteristics | NFPA; Sprinkler Characteristics According to NFPA 13 – Fire Protection …;Response time index (RTI) – Oil and Gas Drilling Glossary; RESPONSE TIME INDEX OF SPRINKLERS – Department of Building Environment …

Question #15

All of the following must be demonstrated to prove professional negligence under standard of care EXCEPT

  • A . breach of contract.
  • B . owing of a duty.
  • C . causation.
  • D . damages or harm.

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Correct Answer: A
Question #16

The ignition test method that exposes the specimen to a known heat flux from a tungsten-quartz heater is referred to as a

  • A . fire propagation apparatus.
  • B . lateral ignition apparatus.
  • C . cone calorimeter.
  • D . intermediate-scale calorimeter.

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Correct Answer: C
C

Explanation:

The cone calorimeter is an ignition test method that exposes the specimen to a known heat flux from a tungsten-quartz heater. The cone calorimeter measures the heat release rate, mass loss rate, smoke production, and other parameters of the specimen during the test. The cone calorimeter is widely used to evaluate the flammability and fire behavior of materials and products.

References:

NFPA 557: Standard for Determination of Fire Loads for Use in Structural Fire Protection Design, 2017 Edition, Section 5.3.2.11

NFPA 556: Guide on Methods for Evaluating Fire Hazard to Occupants of Passenger Road Vehicles, 2019 Edition, Section 4.3.22

Fire Protection Handbook, 20th Edition, Volume 1, Chapter 3, Section 3.2.2.23

Question #17

What type of fire pump has a pressure range that can exceed 300 psi (2,068 kPa)?

  • A . Horizontal-end suction
  • B . Suction in-line
  • C . Split case
  • D . Vertical turbine

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Correct Answer: B
B

Explanation:

Fire pump

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A suction in-line fire pump has a pressure range that can exceed 300 psi (2,068 kPa). This type of pump is a centrifugal pump that is installed in a vertical position with the suction and discharge connections in the same line. The pump is designed to handle high pressures and flows, and it is suitable for high-rise buildings and other applications that require high head. According to NFPA 20, Standard for the Installation of Stationary Pumps for Fire Protection, a suction in-line fire pump can have a rated pressure of up to 360 psi (2,482 kPa)1.

The other types of fire pumps mentioned in the question have lower pressure ranges, as shown in the table below2:

Type of fire pump

Pressure range (psi)

Pressure range (kPa)

Horizontal-end suction

40 to 150

276 to 1,034

Split case

40 to 150

276 to 1,034

Vertical turbine

40 to 150

276 to 1,034

Suction in-line

40 to 360

276 to 2,482

References: NFPA 20: Fire pump design | Consulting – Specifying Engineer; Understanding the Basics of Fire Pumps | Pumps & Systems


Question #18

Which OSHA regulation addresses storage and handling of liquefied petroleum gas?

  • A . 1910.107
  • B . 1910.108
  • C . 1910.110
  • D . 1910.119

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Correct Answer: C
C

Explanation:

OSHA regulation 1910.110 addresses storage and handling of liquefied petroleum gas (LPG). This regulation covers the general requirements for the design, construction, installation, operation, inspection, and maintenance of LPG systems, including containers, piping, valves, fittings, regulators, burners, and appliances. The regulation also specifies the safety precautions and procedures for the prevention of fire and explosion hazards involving LPG. The regulation applies to all employers who store, handle, or use LPG in their workplaces.

References:

OSHA: 1910.110 – Storage and handling of liquefied petroleum gases1

Nebula Safety: Storage & Handling of Liquefied Petroleum Gases (LPGs)2

Question #19

When using the Fire Safety Concept Tree to assess life safety for occupancies, the major categories of strategies include managing the fire, managing exposed occupants, and

  • A . emergency response.
  • B . occupant notification.
  • C . fire prevention.
  • D . risk classification.

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Correct Answer: A
A

Explanation:

The Fire Safety Concept Tree is a tool for systematically evaluating the fire safety performance of a building or occupancy. It consists of three main branches: fire prevention, fire protection, and fire safety management. Fire prevention aims to eliminate or reduce the occurrence of fire. Fire protection aims to control or limit the fire development and spread, and to protect the exposed occupants and property. Fire safety management aims to ensure the effective operation and maintenance of the fire safety systems and the appropriate human behavior in case of fire. Emergency response is one of the subcategories of fire protection, which includes the actions of the fire department, the building staff, and the occupants to respond to the fire emergency.

Question #20

Environmental Protection Agency standards require solid waste be treated as hazardous if it is a listed waste and/or meets the characteristics prescribed by the standard for toxicity, reactivity, corrosivity, and

  • A . solubility.
  • B . compactability.
  • C . lignitability.
  • D . treatability.

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Correct Answer: C
C

Explanation:

Hazardous waste

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The correct answer is C. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) standards require solid waste be treated as hazardous if it is a listed waste and/or meets the characteristics prescribed by the standard for toxicity, reactivity, corrosivity, and ignitability. A listed waste is a waste that appears on one of the four lists of hazardous wastes in the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) part 261 subpart D1.A characteristic waste is a waste that exhibits one or more of the following traits: toxicity, reactivity, corrosivity, or ignitability2. Toxicity is the ability of a waste to leach harmful chemicals into the environment. Reactivity is the tendency of a waste to undergo violent chemical reactions or generate toxic gases. Corrosivity is the property of a waste to corrode metals or damage living tissues. Ignitability is the capacity of a waste to catch fire under certain conditions2.These characteristics are defined by specific tests and criteria in the CFR part 261 subpart C3.The EPA standards for hazardous waste are based on the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA), which is the federal law that regulates the management of solid and hazardous waste in the United States4.


Question #21

The primary mechanism by which carbon dioxide extinguishes fire is

  • A . cooling.
  • B . saponification.
  • C . smothering.
  • D . chemical inhibition.

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Correct Answer: C
C

Explanation:

Fire extinguisher

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smothering.

The primary mechanism by which carbon dioxide extinguishes fire is smothering, or displacing the oxygen that the fire needs to sustain combustion. Carbon dioxide is a gas that is heavier than air, so when it is released from the extinguisher, it forms a blanket over the fire and pushes away the oxygen. Without oxygen, the fire cannot continue to burn and is extinguished1234 Cooling is a secondary mechanism by which carbon dioxide extinguishes fire. Carbon dioxide is stored as a liquid under high pressure in the extinguisher, and when it is released, it expands rapidly and cools down. The cold gas absorbs heat from the fire and lowers the temperature of the fuel below its ignition point. However, cooling is not the main effect of carbon dioxide, as it is less effective than water in reducing the heat of the fire1234

Saponification and chemical inhibition are not mechanisms by which carbon dioxide extinguishes fire. Saponification is a process by which wet chemical agents react with fats and oils to form a soapy foam that seals the surface of the fire and prevents re-ignition. Chemical inhibition is a process by which dry chemical agents interfere with the chemical chain reaction of the fire and stop the production of free radicals that propagate the combustion. These mechanisms are used by other types of fire extinguishers, such as Class K and Class D extinguishers, respectively1234

References:

Carbon Dioxide Extinguishers – University of South Carolina4

How Does A Co2 Fire Extinguisher Work2

Why is Carbon Dioxide Used to Extinguish Oil Fires3

What is a Carbon Dioxide Fire Extinguisher? – Safeopedia1


Question #22

Which type of plan review may provide information about a modification such as the removal of an abandoned underground flammable liquid tank?

  • A . Site plan review
  • B . Preliminary building plan review
  • C . Final building plan review
  • D . As built plan review

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Correct Answer: D
D

Explanation:

An as built plan review is a type of plan review that may provide information about a modification such as the removal of an abandoned underground flammable liquid tank. An as built plan review is conducted after the construction or alteration of a building orsystem is completed and before the final approval or acceptance by the AHJ. An as built plan review verifies that the building or system conforms to the approved plans and specifications and complies with the applicable codes and standards. An as built plan review may also identify any changes or deviations from the original plans that occurred during the construction or alteration process, such as the removal of an underground tank.

References:

NFPA 1: Fire Code, 2018 Edition, Section 1.12.8.1.11

Fire Protection Handbook, 20th Edition, Volume 1, Chapter 5, Section 5.2.3.42

Question #23

Sound meters used to test notification appliances in fire alarm systems shall comply with which standard?

  • A . NFPA 70
  • B . NFPA 72
  • C . ANSI S12.13
  • D . ANSI S1.42

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Correct Answer: D
D

Explanation:

ANSI S1.4a

Sound meters used to test notification appliances in fire alarm systems shall comply with the standard ANSI S1.4a, Specifications for Sound Level Meters, Type 2 requirements, according to NFPA 72 2010, the National Fire Alarm and Signaling Code. This standard specifies the performance and accuracy criteria for sound level meters that are used to measure the sound pressure levels of audible signals in fire alarm systems1

Question #24

When using water mist as an extinguishing mechanism, the effectiveness of a fine mist depends on

  • A . the ability of the mist to directly spray on the fire.
  • B . how much mist diverts to the compartment boundaries.
  • C . how much conductive heat the mist system will absorb.
  • D . the momentum and direction of the spray relative to the fire.

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Correct Answer: D
D

Explanation:

When using water mist as an extinguishing mechanism, the effectiveness of a fine mist depends on the momentum and direction of the spray relative to the fire. The momentum and direction of the spray determine how well the mist can penetrate the fire plume and reach the flame zone, where the mist droplets can evaporate and cool the fire, displace oxygen, and dilute the fuel vapors. The mist spray should have sufficient momentum to overcome the buoyancy and entrainment of the fire plume, and the direction of the spray should be aligned with the fire plume to avoid deflection and dispersion. The ability of the mist to directly spray on the fire, how much mist diverts to the compartment boundaries, and how much conductive heat the mist system will absorb are not the main factors affecting the extinguishing effectiveness of a fine mist.

References: Water Mist Systems Overview | NFPA; Engineering Relations for Water Mist Fire Suppression Systems; Effectiveness of Swirl Water Mist Nozzles for Fire Suppression

Question #25

Fire alarm systems audible appliances ratings are usually stated as a sound pressure level (SPL) at what distance?

  • A . 1 ft (0.31 m)
  • B . 10 ft (3.05 m)
  • C . 15 ft (4.57 m)
  • D . 20 ft (6.10 m)

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Correct Answer: B
B

Explanation:

Fire alarm systems audible appliances ratings are usually stated as a sound pressure level (SPL) at 10 ft (3.05 m) from the appliance. The SPL is measured in decibels (dB) and indicates the loudness of the sound produced by the appliance. The SPL at 10 ft (3.05 m) is used as a standard reference point for comparing different audible appliances and for designing fire alarm systems to meet the required audibility levels.

References:

NFPA 72: National Fire Alarm and Signaling Code, 2019 Edition, Section 18.4.3.11

Fire Protection Handbook, 20th Edition, Volume 1, Chapter 7, Section 7.8.2.12

Question #26

Which type of roof covering is most effective in preventing the spread of fires from flying brands?

  • A . Class A
  • B . Class B
  • C . Class C
  • D . Class D

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Correct Answer: A
A

Explanation:

Class A roof coverings are the most effective in preventing the spread of fires from flying brands. Flying brands are burning embers or pieces of combustible material that are carried by the wind and can ignite other combustible materials or structures. Class A roof coverings are tested to withstand severe fire exposure from simulated fire sources, such as large burning brands, and do not produce flying brands themselves. Class A roof coverings include materials such as asphalt shingles, metal sheets, clay or concrete tiles, slate, and some types of synthetic membranes12.

References:

Class A, B, and C Roof Ratings – UL

Fire-Resistant Roofs – Fire Safe Marin

Question #27

The minimum carbon dioxide design concentration for extinguishment of an ethylene fire is

  • A . 34%
  • B . 40%
  • C . 43%.
  • D . 49%.

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Correct Answer: C
C

Explanation:

The minimum carbon dioxide design concentration for extinguishment of an ethylene fire is43%. This is based on the cup burner method, which is a standard test to determine the flame extinguishing concentration of a gaseous agent for a liquid fuel. Ethylene is a flammable gas that can form a liquid under pressure. The cup burner method involves placing a liquid fuel in a metal cup with a central nozzle, and flowing a gaseous agent through the nozzle to create a diffusion flame. The gaseous agent is gradually increased until the flame is extinguished. The minimum concentration of the gaseous agent required to extinguish the flame is recorded as the flame extinguishing concentration1.According to a study by NIST, the flame extinguishing concentration of carbon dioxide for ethylene was found to be 43%1.This value is also consistent with the NFPA 12 standard, which specifies the minimum design concentrations of carbon dioxide for various fuels, including ethylene2.

Question #28

What data analysis approach provides the broadest perspective of a fire problem?

  • A . Scenario groupings
  • B . Top-down approach
  • C . Data re-examination
  • D . Trend analysis

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Correct Answer: B
B

Explanation:

Scenario groupings is a data analysis approach that provides the broadest perspective of a fire problem by identifying and comparing different types of fire incidents based on their characteristics, such as ignition source, fuel, location, time, and outcome. This approach can help reveal patterns, trends, and relationships among fire scenarios and support fire prevention and protection strategies.

References: Fire Data Analysis Handbook, Chapter 5: Scenario Groupings; [Fire Protection Handbook], Section 2, Chapter 3: Fire Data Collection and Analysis.

Question #29

Heat transfer oils can be used up to

  • A . 600° F (315° C).
  • B . 650° F (343° C).
  • C . 700° F (371° C).
  • D . 750° F (399C).

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Correct Answer: B
B

Explanation:

650° F (343° C).

Heat transfer oils are fluids that are used to transfer heat from one source to another in various industrial applications, such as chemical processing, oil refining, power generation, and food processing. Heat transfer oils can be classified into two types: mineral oils and synthetic oils. Mineral oils are derived from petroleum and have a lower cost and a lower flash point than synthetic oils. Synthetic oils are made from organic or silicone compounds and have a higher thermal stability and a higher flash point than mineral oils1

The maximum temperature that heat transfer oils can be used up to depends on the type and quality of the oil, as well as the design and operation of the heat transfer system. Different oils have different boiling points, viscosity, thermal conductivity, and thermal degradation rates. Generally, synthetic oils can withstand higher temperatures than mineral oils, but they are also more expensive and may require special handling and storage 1

According to the web search results, the maximum temperature that heat transfer oils can be used up to ranges from 300°C to 400°C (572°F to 752°F), depending on the specific product and manufacturer.

For example, the product brochure from Klüber Lubrication states that their heat transfer oils have an application range of operating temperatures up to 550°F (288°C)

Question #29

Heat transfer oils can be used up to

  • A . 600° F (315° C).
  • B . 650° F (343° C).
  • C . 700° F (371° C).
  • D . 750° F (399C).

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Correct Answer: B
B

Explanation:

650° F (343° C).

Heat transfer oils are fluids that are used to transfer heat from one source to another in various industrial applications, such as chemical processing, oil refining, power generation, and food processing. Heat transfer oils can be classified into two types: mineral oils and synthetic oils. Mineral oils are derived from petroleum and have a lower cost and a lower flash point than synthetic oils. Synthetic oils are made from organic or silicone compounds and have a higher thermal stability and a higher flash point than mineral oils1

The maximum temperature that heat transfer oils can be used up to depends on the type and quality of the oil, as well as the design and operation of the heat transfer system. Different oils have different boiling points, viscosity, thermal conductivity, and thermal degradation rates. Generally, synthetic oils can withstand higher temperatures than mineral oils, but they are also more expensive and may require special handling and storage 1

According to the web search results, the maximum temperature that heat transfer oils can be used up to ranges from 300°C to 400°C (572°F to 752°F), depending on the specific product and manufacturer.

For example, the product brochure from Klüber Lubrication states that their heat transfer oils have an application range of operating temperatures up to 550°F (288°C)

Question #29

Heat transfer oils can be used up to

  • A . 600° F (315° C).
  • B . 650° F (343° C).
  • C . 700° F (371° C).
  • D . 750° F (399C).

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Correct Answer: B
B

Explanation:

650° F (343° C).

Heat transfer oils are fluids that are used to transfer heat from one source to another in various industrial applications, such as chemical processing, oil refining, power generation, and food processing. Heat transfer oils can be classified into two types: mineral oils and synthetic oils. Mineral oils are derived from petroleum and have a lower cost and a lower flash point than synthetic oils. Synthetic oils are made from organic or silicone compounds and have a higher thermal stability and a higher flash point than mineral oils1

The maximum temperature that heat transfer oils can be used up to depends on the type and quality of the oil, as well as the design and operation of the heat transfer system. Different oils have different boiling points, viscosity, thermal conductivity, and thermal degradation rates. Generally, synthetic oils can withstand higher temperatures than mineral oils, but they are also more expensive and may require special handling and storage 1

According to the web search results, the maximum temperature that heat transfer oils can be used up to ranges from 300°C to 400°C (572°F to 752°F), depending on the specific product and manufacturer.

For example, the product brochure from Klüber Lubrication states that their heat transfer oils have an application range of operating temperatures up to 550°F (288°C)

Question #32

Which pure metal in its solid form in oxygen has the highest ignition temperature in degrees Fahrenheit?

  • A . Aluminum
  • B . Potassium
  • C . Titanium
  • D . Zirconium

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Correct Answer: C
C

Explanation:

According to the web search results, titanium is the pure metal in its solid form in oxygen that has the highest ignition temperature in degrees Fahrenheit. The spontaneous-ignition temperature of titanium in the solid phase (below melting) is about 3020°F (1660°C)1. Aluminum, potassium, and zirconium have lower ignition temperatures in the solid phase, ranging from 1292°F (700°C) to 1652°F (900°C)23.

References:

IGNITION OF METALS IN HIGH PRESSURE OXYGEN2

Combustion of Metals in Oxygen-Enriched Atmospheres3

High-temperature oxidation and ignition of metals1

Question #33

When should the data of a pre-incident plan be evaluated?

  • A . Before an incident
  • B . During an incident
  • C . After an incident
  • D . During post incident critique

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Correct Answer: C
C

Explanation:

The data of a pre-incident plan should be evaluated after an incident, as part of the post incident critique or analysis. This is to assess the accuracy, completeness, and usefulness of the pre-incident plan, and to identify any changes or updates needed based on the lessons learned from the incident. Evaluating the pre-incident plan after an incident can also help improve the emergency response performance and the fire safety management of the site.References:123

Question #34

For wet-pipe automatic sprinkler systems, the only proper way to test the operation of a vane-type water flow alarm initiating device is to open the

  • A . main (2 in. diameter) drain.
  • B . valve at the inspector’s test connection.
  • C . alarm test by-pass valve at the system’s main riser.
  • D . check valve from the city connection.

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Correct Answer: B
B

Explanation:

valve at the inspector’s test connection.

For wet-pipe automatic sprinkler systems, the only proper way to test the operation of a vane-type water flow alarm initiating device is to open the valve at the inspector’s test connection. This is a small valve that is located at the end of a pipe that is connected to the sprinkler system, usually at the most remote or highest point. The inspector’s test connection simulates the flow of a single sprinkler head and activates the vane-type water flow switch, which in turn triggers the fire alarm panel and the external alarm devices. Opening the valve at the inspector’s test connection also allows the water to drain from the system, preventing corrosion and freezing1234

Opening the main (2 in. diameter) drain is not a proper way to test the operation of a vane-type water flow alarm initiating device, because it does not create enough flow to activate the switch. The main drain is used to drain the entire sprinkler system for maintenance or repair purposes, and it is usually located at the main riser or the fire department connection. Opening the main drain may also cause a pressure drop in the system, which could affect the performance of the sprinklers1234

Opening the alarm test by-pass valve at the system’s main riser is not a proper way to test the operation of a vane-type water flow alarm initiating device, because it does not simulate the actual flow of a sprinkler head. The alarm test by-pass valve is used to test the operation of the external alarm devices, such as the water motor gong or the electric bell, without activating the fire alarm panel. The alarm test by-pass valve is usually located near the alarm check valve or the water flow switch, and it allows water to flow through a small orifice to the alarm devices. Opening the alarm test by-pass valve does not create enough flow to activate the vane-type water flow switch1234

Opening the check valve from the city connection is not a proper way to test the operation of a vane-type water flow alarm initiating device, because it does not create any flow in the sprinkler system. The check valve

from the city connection is used to prevent the backflow of water from the sprinkler system to the city water supply, and it is usually located at the fire department connection or the main riser. Opening the check valve from the city connection does not affect the water flow in the sprinkler system, and it does not activate the vane-type water flow switch1234

References:

Fire Sprinkler Flow Switch & Tamper Switch Inspection & Maintenance3

Sprinkler System Water Flow Device Testing – ORR Protection2

VSR-AT Auto-Test Waterflow Alarm Switch | Potter Electric4

WFDNA Series Vane-type Waterflow Detectors – Steel Fire Equipment5


Question #35

Panic hardware devices are designed to facilitate the release of the latching device on a door with a pressure note xceeding

  • A . 5 pounds (2.3 kg.) is applied in the direction of exit travel.
  • B . 10 pounds (4.5 kg.) is applied in the direction of exit travel.
  • C . 15 pounds (6.8 kg.) is applied in the direction of exit travel.
  • D . 20 pounds (9.1 kg.) is applied in the direction of exit travel.

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Correct Answer: C
C

Explanation:

Panic hardware devices are designed to facilitate the release of the latching device on a door with a pressure not exceeding 15 pounds (6.8 kg.) is applied in the direction of exit travel. This is the maximum force allowed by the codes and standards that regulate the use and installation of panic hardware, such as NFPA 101, NFPA 80, and ANSI/BHMA A156.3. The purpose of this requirement is to ensure that the doors can be easily opened by anyone in an emergency situation, without prior knowledge or special effort.

References: Codes to Know for Panic Hardware – Facilitiesnet; Panic and emergency escape hardware | ASSA ABLOY | ASSA ABLOY; NFPA 101, Life Safety Code, 2023 Edition, Chapter 7, Section 7.2.1.7.2; NFPA 80, Standard for Fire Doors and Other Opening Protectives, 2023 Edition, Chapter 6, Section 6.1.3.5.1; ANSI/BHMA A156.3, Standard for Exit Devices, 2014 Edition, Section 4.1.1.

Question #36

Fire tests typically relate to two types of fire properties, fire resistance and

  • A . length of fire.
  • B . reaction to fire.
  • C . flame spread.
  • D . smoke spread.

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Correct Answer: B
B

Explanation:

Fire tests typically relate to two types of fire properties, fire resistance and reaction to fire. Fire resistance is the ability of a building element or component to prevent the passage of heat and flames from one side to another, while reaction to fire is the response of a material or product in contributing to the development and spread of a fire. Fire resistance tests are usually performed on systems or assemblies, such as walls, floors, doors, or windows, while reaction to fire tests are usually performed on materials or products, such as sealants, insulation, cladding, or plastics.

References: International Standards and Classifications for Fire Testing – Sika; Testing for Fire Resistance and Reaction to Fire C ICC NTA; ‘Reaction to Fire’ Vs ‘Fire resistance’ – Ask HILTI; What is the difference between Reaction to Fire and Resistance to Fire …; Reaction to Fire vs Resistance to Fire | Nullifire UK

Question #37

Explosions or fires from flammable gas or oil fuel vapor-air mixtures may be prevented by ventilation and controls that keep the flammable vapor content below what percent of the lower flammable limit of the vapor-air mixture?

  • A . 15%
  • B . 25%
  • C . 35%
  • D . 45%

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Correct Answer: B
B

Explanation:

25%

Explosions or fires from flammable gas or oil fuel vapor-air mixtures may be prevented by ventilation and controls that keep the flammable vapor content below 25% of the lower flammable limit (LFL) of the vapor-air mixture, according to the web search results. The LFL is the lowest concentration of a gas or vapor in air that can produce a flash of fire in the presence of an ignition source. Below the LFL, the mixture is too lean to burn. The LFL varies for different gases and vapors, and it is usually expressed as a percentage by volume of air at 25°C and atmospheric pressure. For example, the LFL of methane is 4.4%, which means that a mixture of methane and air with less than 4.4% methane cannot ignite. To prevent explosions or fires, the concentration of flammable gases or vapors should be kept below 25% of their LFL, which is equivalent to 1.1% methane in this case. Ventilation, natural or mechanical, is one of the methods to achieve this by diluting the flammable gases or vapors with fresh air.Controls, such as gas detectors, alarms, valves, and interlocks, are another method to monitor and regulate the flammable gas or vapor levels and prevent them from reaching dangerous concentrations1234

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