Question #1
What is the minimum fire resistance rating for the enclosure of floor openings connecting four or more stories in new construction?
- A . 1 hour
- B . 1½ hours
- C . 2 hours
- D . 2½ hours
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
The minimum fire resistance rating for the enclosure of floor openings that connect four or more stories is governed by NFPA 101®, Life Safety Code®. According to NFPA 101 (2021 edition), Section 8.6.5.1, vertical openings (such as stairwells, shafts, and floor openings) connecting multiple floors in new construction must meet specific requirements to prevent the vertical spread of fire and smoke.
For openings connecting four or more stories, the fire resistance rating must be a minimum of 2 hours.
The reasoning for the 2-hour rating is to allow sufficient time for occupant evacuation and firefighting operations while maintaining structural integrity.
Floor enclosures are required to be designed with fire-rated construction that can contain a fire and limit its spread between floors.
1-hour ratings are typical for smaller vertical openings involving fewer floors.
2½-hour ratings are more stringent and often seen in specific high-risk areas or older construction requirements.
Reference: NFPA 101, Section 8.6.5.1: Fire resistance ratings for vertical openings in new construction.
NFPA 101 ensures that these ratings are consistent with safety objectives and risk levels posed by openings connecting multiple stories.
C
Explanation:
The minimum fire resistance rating for the enclosure of floor openings that connect four or more stories is governed by NFPA 101®, Life Safety Code®. According to NFPA 101 (2021 edition), Section 8.6.5.1, vertical openings (such as stairwells, shafts, and floor openings) connecting multiple floors in new construction must meet specific requirements to prevent the vertical spread of fire and smoke.
For openings connecting four or more stories, the fire resistance rating must be a minimum of 2 hours.
The reasoning for the 2-hour rating is to allow sufficient time for occupant evacuation and firefighting operations while maintaining structural integrity.
Floor enclosures are required to be designed with fire-rated construction that can contain a fire and limit its spread between floors.
1-hour ratings are typical for smaller vertical openings involving fewer floors.
2½-hour ratings are more stringent and often seen in specific high-risk areas or older construction requirements.
Reference: NFPA 101, Section 8.6.5.1: Fire resistance ratings for vertical openings in new construction.
NFPA 101 ensures that these ratings are consistent with safety objectives and risk levels posed by openings connecting multiple stories.
Question #2
What is the maximum volume of Class I, Class II, and Class III A liquids allowed to be stored in an individual storage cabinet?
- A . 80 gal (303 L)
- B . 100 gal (379 L)
- C . 120 gal (460 L)
- D . 140 gal (530 L)
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
The maximum volume of flammable and combustible liquids permitted in an individual storage cabinet is addressed by NFPA 30, Flammable and Combustible Liquids Code.
Specifically:
Class I liquids are flammable liquids with flashpoints below 100°F (37.8°C).
Class II and IIIA liquids are combustible liquids with higher flashpoints but still pose significant fire hazards when improperly stored.
According to NFPA 30, Section 9.5.2, the maximum allowable quantity of Class I, II, and IIIA liquids in a storage cabinet is 120 gallons (460 liters).
Why 120 gallons?
The 120-gallon limit is determined based on:
The need to minimize fire risk and contain potential ignition sources.
Storage cabinets are designed to limit vapor emissions and resist fire exposure for a minimum duration (e.g., 10 minutes per OSHA standards).
Additional Considerations:
Cabinets must meet construction requirements outlined in NFPA 30, Chapter 9 (e.g., self-closing doors, ventilation, and fire resistance).
Exceeding the 120-gallon limit would require additional fire safety measures or a different storage approach (e.g., a flammable liquid storage room).
Reference: NFPA 30, Flammable and Combustible Liquids Code, Section 9.5.2
OSHA 1910.106(d)(3): Storage requirements for flammable and combustible liquids.
C
Explanation:
The maximum volume of flammable and combustible liquids permitted in an individual storage cabinet is addressed by NFPA 30, Flammable and Combustible Liquids Code.
Specifically:
Class I liquids are flammable liquids with flashpoints below 100°F (37.8°C).
Class II and IIIA liquids are combustible liquids with higher flashpoints but still pose significant fire hazards when improperly stored.
According to NFPA 30, Section 9.5.2, the maximum allowable quantity of Class I, II, and IIIA liquids in a storage cabinet is 120 gallons (460 liters).
Why 120 gallons?
The 120-gallon limit is determined based on:
The need to minimize fire risk and contain potential ignition sources.
Storage cabinets are designed to limit vapor emissions and resist fire exposure for a minimum duration (e.g., 10 minutes per OSHA standards).
Additional Considerations:
Cabinets must meet construction requirements outlined in NFPA 30, Chapter 9 (e.g., self-closing doors, ventilation, and fire resistance).
Exceeding the 120-gallon limit would require additional fire safety measures or a different storage approach (e.g., a flammable liquid storage room).
Reference: NFPA 30, Flammable and Combustible Liquids Code, Section 9.5.2
OSHA 1910.106(d)(3): Storage requirements for flammable and combustible liquids.
Question #3
For flammable and combustible liquids, what is the number of control areas allowed on the 2nd floor above grade level of a building?
- A . 2
- B . 3
- C . 4
- D . 5
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
The number of control areas for flammable and combustible liquids is regulated under NFPA 30 and the International Fire Code (IFC). A control area is a designated area within a building where quantities of hazardous materials are allowed to be stored or used.
For the 2nd floor above grade level, the number of control areas is reduced compared to ground level due to increased risks related to fire containment, evacuation, and firefighting operations.
Specifically:
Ground floor: Up to 4 control areas are allowed.
2nd floor above grade: Up to 3 control areas are allowed.
The reduction ensures that hazardous materials are limited as the building height increases, thereby mitigating fire spread and potential risks.
Reference: NFPA 30, Flammable and Combustible Liquids Code
IFC Table 5003.8.2: Control area limits based on building levels.
B
Explanation:
The number of control areas for flammable and combustible liquids is regulated under NFPA 30 and the International Fire Code (IFC). A control area is a designated area within a building where quantities of hazardous materials are allowed to be stored or used.
For the 2nd floor above grade level, the number of control areas is reduced compared to ground level due to increased risks related to fire containment, evacuation, and firefighting operations.
Specifically:
Ground floor: Up to 4 control areas are allowed.
2nd floor above grade: Up to 3 control areas are allowed.
The reduction ensures that hazardous materials are limited as the building height increases, thereby mitigating fire spread and potential risks.
Reference: NFPA 30, Flammable and Combustible Liquids Code
IFC Table 5003.8.2: Control area limits based on building levels.
Question #4
Which of the following is true regarding the copy of an issued permit?
- A . It shall be readily accessible at each place of operation.
- B . It shall be reissued upon completion of the project.
- C . It shall be maintained by the architect of record.
- D . It shall be transferable to a new address.
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
Permits are required to document authorization for specific fire protection and safety activities.
According to NFPA 1, Fire Code, and general permit guidelines:
Issued permits must be readily accessible at the location of the operation to ensure:
Inspectors can verify compliance with the permit requirements.
The permit holder demonstrates authorization for ongoing work.
Reissuing a permit after completion of a project (B) is not standard practice.
Permits are not the responsibility of architects (C) unless they are the permit holder.
Permits are generally non-transferable (D) because they are site-specific and operation-specific.
Reference: NFPA 1, Fire Code, Section 1.12.13: Permit requirements for accessibility and non-transferability.
A
Explanation:
Permits are required to document authorization for specific fire protection and safety activities.
According to NFPA 1, Fire Code, and general permit guidelines:
Issued permits must be readily accessible at the location of the operation to ensure:
Inspectors can verify compliance with the permit requirements.
The permit holder demonstrates authorization for ongoing work.
Reissuing a permit after completion of a project (B) is not standard practice.
Permits are not the responsibility of architects (C) unless they are the permit holder.
Permits are generally non-transferable (D) because they are site-specific and operation-specific.
Reference: NFPA 1, Fire Code, Section 1.12.13: Permit requirements for accessibility and non-transferability.
Question #5
The authorization to issue permits is granted by the
- A . state legislature.
- B . authority having jurisdiction.
- C . Fire Inspection Handbook.
- D . NFPA 101, Life Safety Code.
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
The authority having jurisdiction (AHJ) is the entity responsible for enforcing codes, standards, and regulations, including the authorization to issue permits.
The AHJ is defined as the organization, office, or individual responsible for approving plans, issuing permits, and ensuring compliance.
While state legislatures (A) may create laws, the actual enforcement and issuance of permits are delegated to the AHJ.
Fire Inspection Handbooks (C) and NFPA 101 (D) are reference tools but do not directly grant authority.
Reference: NFPA 1, Fire Code, Section 3.2.2: Defines the AHJ’s role and responsibilities.
NFPA 101: Acknowledges the AHJ as the enforcement body.
B
Explanation:
The authority having jurisdiction (AHJ) is the entity responsible for enforcing codes, standards, and regulations, including the authorization to issue permits.
The AHJ is defined as the organization, office, or individual responsible for approving plans, issuing permits, and ensuring compliance.
While state legislatures (A) may create laws, the actual enforcement and issuance of permits are delegated to the AHJ.
Fire Inspection Handbooks (C) and NFPA 101 (D) are reference tools but do not directly grant authority.
Reference: NFPA 1, Fire Code, Section 3.2.2: Defines the AHJ’s role and responsibilities.
NFPA 101: Acknowledges the AHJ as the enforcement body.
Question #6
A permit shall be required to store more than how many tires outside?
- A . 200
- B . 300
- C . 400
- D . 500
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
The outdoor storage of tires is regulated because tires pose significant fire hazards due to their combustibility and difficulty in extinguishment. According to NFPA 1, Fire Code, Section 19.2.2:
Storage of more than 400 tires outdoors requires a permit.
This threshold ensures that large quantities of tires are managed under specific fire safety requirements, such as spacing, clearance, and firefighting access.
Tires can generate intense heat, dense smoke, and toxic gases when burning, requiring careful oversight.
Storage quantities below 400 tires may not require a permit but still must adhere to basic safety practices.
Reference: NFPA 1, Fire Code, Section 19.2.2: Tire storage and fire safety permit thresholds.
C
Explanation:
The outdoor storage of tires is regulated because tires pose significant fire hazards due to their combustibility and difficulty in extinguishment. According to NFPA 1, Fire Code, Section 19.2.2:
Storage of more than 400 tires outdoors requires a permit.
This threshold ensures that large quantities of tires are managed under specific fire safety requirements, such as spacing, clearance, and firefighting access.
Tires can generate intense heat, dense smoke, and toxic gases when burning, requiring careful oversight.
Storage quantities below 400 tires may not require a permit but still must adhere to basic safety practices.
Reference: NFPA 1, Fire Code, Section 19.2.2: Tire storage and fire safety permit thresholds.
Question #7
What is the maximum travel distance to a fire extinguisher with a 20-B rating for an ordinary (moderate) type hazard?
- A . 30 ft (9.14 m)
- B . 50 ft (15.25 m)
- C . 75 ft (22.86 m)
- D . 100 ft (30.48 m)
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
The travel distance to fire extinguishers for different hazard classifications is governed by NFPA 10, Standard for Portable Fire Extinguishers.
For ordinary (moderate) hazards, such as those involving moderate quantities of flammable liquids or
combustibles, the maximum travel distance to a fire extinguisher with a 20-B rating is 50 feet (15.25 meters).
The B rating refers to extinguishers effective against Class B fires, which involve flammable liquids (e.g., oils, gasoline, solvents).
The 50-foot requirement ensures that fire extinguishers are accessible within a reasonable distance to promptly respond to a fire.
30 feet (A) applies to higher hazard levels like kitchens or specific severe risks.
75 feet (C) is more typical for Class A hazards.
100 feet (D) would not meet NFPA 10 standards for moderate hazards involving flammable liquids.
Reference: NFPA 10, Section 6.2.1.1: Travel distance requirements based on hazard classification.
B
Explanation:
The travel distance to fire extinguishers for different hazard classifications is governed by NFPA 10, Standard for Portable Fire Extinguishers.
For ordinary (moderate) hazards, such as those involving moderate quantities of flammable liquids or
combustibles, the maximum travel distance to a fire extinguisher with a 20-B rating is 50 feet (15.25 meters).
The B rating refers to extinguishers effective against Class B fires, which involve flammable liquids (e.g., oils, gasoline, solvents).
The 50-foot requirement ensures that fire extinguishers are accessible within a reasonable distance to promptly respond to a fire.
30 feet (A) applies to higher hazard levels like kitchens or specific severe risks.
75 feet (C) is more typical for Class A hazards.
100 feet (D) would not meet NFPA 10 standards for moderate hazards involving flammable liquids.
Reference: NFPA 10, Section 6.2.1.1: Travel distance requirements based on hazard classification.
Question #8
Which of the following methods are acceptable for serving a notice of violation on a responsible party of a non-abandoned property?
I. By email
II. By mail
III. Personal Service
IV. Posting on premise
- A . I and II
- B . II and III
- C . II, III, and IV
- D . I, II, III, and IV
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
The methods for serving notices of violation on a responsible party are defined by NFPA 1, Fire Code and local fire codes:
By mail (II): Official notices are often sent via certified mail to ensure delivery confirmation.
Personal service (III): Delivering the notice in person to the responsible party ensures direct communication.
Posting on premise (IV): If personal service fails or the property is occupied but the party is unavailable, notices may be posted conspicuously.
Email (I) is not universally accepted because it does not always provide legal proof of delivery unless specified by local jurisdictions.
Reference: NFPA 1, Section 1.12.4: Methods for serving notices of violation.
C
Explanation:
The methods for serving notices of violation on a responsible party are defined by NFPA 1, Fire Code and local fire codes:
By mail (II): Official notices are often sent via certified mail to ensure delivery confirmation.
Personal service (III): Delivering the notice in person to the responsible party ensures direct communication.
Posting on premise (IV): If personal service fails or the property is occupied but the party is unavailable, notices may be posted conspicuously.
Email (I) is not universally accepted because it does not always provide legal proof of delivery unless specified by local jurisdictions.
Reference: NFPA 1, Section 1.12.4: Methods for serving notices of violation.
Question #9
The acceptance of a permit as defined in the fire code gives the authority having jurisdiction the right to enter the premises to inspect
- A . with the permission of the owner.
- B . on a quarterly cycle.
- C . at reasonable times.
- D . at any time.
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
The right of entry for inspections is governed by NFPA 1, Fire Code:
The Authority Having Jurisdiction (AHJ) is granted the right to enter and inspect premises at reasonable times to ensure compliance with the conditions of the permit and fire safety regulations.
The term “reasonable times” ensures that inspections are conducted without causing unnecessary disruption to occupants or operations.
“With the permission of the owner” (A) is not required under the fire code since permits inherently authorize inspection.
Quarterly cycle (B) is not defined in the fire code and depends on the nature of the permit. At any time (D) would be unreasonable unless immediate danger is suspected.
Reference: NFPA 1, Section 1.7.7: Right of entry for fire inspections.
C
Explanation:
The right of entry for inspections is governed by NFPA 1, Fire Code:
The Authority Having Jurisdiction (AHJ) is granted the right to enter and inspect premises at reasonable times to ensure compliance with the conditions of the permit and fire safety regulations.
The term “reasonable times” ensures that inspections are conducted without causing unnecessary disruption to occupants or operations.
“With the permission of the owner” (A) is not required under the fire code since permits inherently authorize inspection.
Quarterly cycle (B) is not defined in the fire code and depends on the nature of the permit. At any time (D) would be unreasonable unless immediate danger is suspected.
Reference: NFPA 1, Section 1.7.7: Right of entry for fire inspections.
Question #10
Spray undercoating or spray body lining of vehicles shall be conducted a minimum of what distance from open flames or spark-producing equipment?
- A . 3 ft (914 mm)
- B . 5 ft (1,524 mm)
- C . 10 ft (3,048 mm)
- D . 20 ft (6,100 mm)
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
The minimum distance required for spray undercoating or spray body lining of vehicles from open flames or spark-producing equipment is specified in NFPA 33, Standard for Spray Application Using Flammable or Combustible Materials.
Spraying operations involving combustible coatings pose a significant fire risk due to flammable vapors, which can ignite from open flames or sparks.
To ensure safety, these operations must be conducted at least 20 feet (6,100 mm) away from ignition sources, as vapors can travel and accumulate in the surrounding air.
3 ft (914 mm) (A) and 5 ft (1,524 mm) (B) are insufficient to prevent ignition.
10 ft (3,048 mm) (C) may be acceptable for certain low-risk operations but does not meet the requirements for vehicle spray applications.
Reference: NFPA 33, Section 9.3: Minimum distance from open flames and spark-producing equipment.
D
Explanation:
The minimum distance required for spray undercoating or spray body lining of vehicles from open flames or spark-producing equipment is specified in NFPA 33, Standard for Spray Application Using Flammable or Combustible Materials.
Spraying operations involving combustible coatings pose a significant fire risk due to flammable vapors, which can ignite from open flames or sparks.
To ensure safety, these operations must be conducted at least 20 feet (6,100 mm) away from ignition sources, as vapors can travel and accumulate in the surrounding air.
3 ft (914 mm) (A) and 5 ft (1,524 mm) (B) are insufficient to prevent ignition.
10 ft (3,048 mm) (C) may be acceptable for certain low-risk operations but does not meet the requirements for vehicle spray applications.
Reference: NFPA 33, Section 9.3: Minimum distance from open flames and spark-producing equipment.
Question #11
Records regarding fire prevention inspections must include all of the following EXCEPT
- A . a summary of violations found during the inspection
- B . the date of the inspection
- C . dates of the service of notices
- D . photographs of code violations
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
Fire prevention inspection records must include essential details to ensure a proper record of the inspection process and enforcement of fire codes. According to NFPA 1, Fire Code, and standard fire inspection procedures:
Summary of violations found (A): This provides a clear record of noncompliance issues identified during the inspection.
Date of the inspection (B): The inspection date is mandatory for tracking inspection schedules and enforcement timelines.
Dates of the service of notices (C): These dates are necessary to document when violations were communicated to the responsible party.
Photographs of code violations (D): While photographs can be useful for documentation, they are not a mandatory requirement under NFPA standards for inspection records.
Reference: NFPA 1, Fire Code, Chapter 1: Documentation requirements for fire inspection records.
D
Explanation:
Fire prevention inspection records must include essential details to ensure a proper record of the inspection process and enforcement of fire codes. According to NFPA 1, Fire Code, and standard fire inspection procedures:
Summary of violations found (A): This provides a clear record of noncompliance issues identified during the inspection.
Date of the inspection (B): The inspection date is mandatory for tracking inspection schedules and enforcement timelines.
Dates of the service of notices (C): These dates are necessary to document when violations were communicated to the responsible party.
Photographs of code violations (D): While photographs can be useful for documentation, they are not a mandatory requirement under NFPA standards for inspection records.
Reference: NFPA 1, Fire Code, Chapter 1: Documentation requirements for fire inspection records.
Question #12
In a low hazard occupancy, what is the maximum allowable travel distance to a Class A portable fire extinguisher?
- A . 30 ft (9.1 m)
- B . 50 ft (15.2 m)
- C . 75 ft (22.8 m)
- D . 100 ft (30.5 m)
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
The maximum allowable travel distance to a Class A portable fire extinguisher in a low hazard occupancy is governed by NFPA 10, Standard for Portable Fire Extinguishers.
Class A hazards involve ordinary combustibles such as paper, wood, cloth, and certain plastics.
In low hazard occupancies (e.g., office buildings, schools), where the fire risk is minimal, the maximum travel distance to a Class A extinguisher is 75 feet (22.8 meters).
The 75-foot distance ensures that fire extinguishers are readily accessible in the event of a fire while maintaining practicality for building layouts.
30 ft (A) applies to more hazardous areas with specific requirements. 50 ft (B) is applicable for Class B extinguishers in moderate hazards. 100 ft (D) exceeds NFPA 10 limits for Class A hazards.
Reference: NFPA 10, Section 6.2.1.2: Travel distance requirements for Class A fire extinguishers.
C
Explanation:
The maximum allowable travel distance to a Class A portable fire extinguisher in a low hazard occupancy is governed by NFPA 10, Standard for Portable Fire Extinguishers.
Class A hazards involve ordinary combustibles such as paper, wood, cloth, and certain plastics.
In low hazard occupancies (e.g., office buildings, schools), where the fire risk is minimal, the maximum travel distance to a Class A extinguisher is 75 feet (22.8 meters).
The 75-foot distance ensures that fire extinguishers are readily accessible in the event of a fire while maintaining practicality for building layouts.
30 ft (A) applies to more hazardous areas with specific requirements. 50 ft (B) is applicable for Class B extinguishers in moderate hazards. 100 ft (D) exceeds NFPA 10 limits for Class A hazards.
Reference: NFPA 10, Section 6.2.1.2: Travel distance requirements for Class A fire extinguishers.
Question #13
What is the rating for an interior finish material with a flame spread index of 100?
- A . Class A
- B . Class B
- C . Class C
- D . Class D
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
Interior finish materials are rated based on their flame spread index (FSI), which measures how quickly flames spread across the material’s surface. This classification is outlined in NFPA 101®, Life Safety Code®, Table A.10.2.3.2.
Class A: Flame spread index of 0-25 (lowest flame spread, highest resistance).
Class B: Flame spread index of 26-75 (moderate flame spread).
Class C: Flame spread index of 76-200 (higher flame spread).
Class D: Not defined in NFPA standards (typically exceeds Class C values).
For a flame spread index of 100, the material falls within the Class C range. However, since 100 exceeds the threshold for Class B (75), it is appropriately classified as Class C.
Reference: NFPA 101, Table A.10.2.3.2: Flame spread classifications for interior finishes.
B
Explanation:
Interior finish materials are rated based on their flame spread index (FSI), which measures how quickly flames spread across the material’s surface. This classification is outlined in NFPA 101®, Life Safety Code®, Table A.10.2.3.2.
Class A: Flame spread index of 0-25 (lowest flame spread, highest resistance).
Class B: Flame spread index of 26-75 (moderate flame spread).
Class C: Flame spread index of 76-200 (higher flame spread).
Class D: Not defined in NFPA standards (typically exceeds Class C values).
For a flame spread index of 100, the material falls within the Class C range. However, since 100 exceeds the threshold for Class B (75), it is appropriately classified as Class C.
Reference: NFPA 101, Table A.10.2.3.2: Flame spread classifications for interior finishes.
Question #14
Which of the following conditions must be considered when determining the spacing and location of smoke detectors?
I. Ceiling height
II. Detector sensitivity
III. Ambient environment
IV. Ventilation or airflow
- A . I and IV
- B . II and III
- C . I, III, and IV
- D . I, II, III, and IV
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
The proper spacing and placement of smoke detectors are critical to their effectiveness. These factors are addressed in NFPA 72®, National Fire Alarm and Signaling Code®.
Ceiling height (I): Ceiling height affects smoke behavior. Higher ceilings allow smoke to cool and stratify, delaying detection. Adjustments must be made for ceilings greater than 10 feet.
Detector sensitivity (II): Smoke detector sensitivity determines how quickly it responds to smoke.
Placement must account for conditions that may impact its performance.
Ambient environment (III): Environmental conditions such as temperature, humidity, and dust can affect smoke detector operation. Locations like kitchens or dusty areas may require specialized detectors.
Ventilation or airflow (IV): Airflow patterns created by HVAC systems, vents, or fans can direct smoke away from detectors, delaying activation. Proper placement ensures smoke reaches the detector efficiently.
Reference: NFPA 72, Chapter 17: Detector spacing, location, and environmental considerations.
D
Explanation:
The proper spacing and placement of smoke detectors are critical to their effectiveness. These factors are addressed in NFPA 72®, National Fire Alarm and Signaling Code®.
Ceiling height (I): Ceiling height affects smoke behavior. Higher ceilings allow smoke to cool and stratify, delaying detection. Adjustments must be made for ceilings greater than 10 feet.
Detector sensitivity (II): Smoke detector sensitivity determines how quickly it responds to smoke.
Placement must account for conditions that may impact its performance.
Ambient environment (III): Environmental conditions such as temperature, humidity, and dust can affect smoke detector operation. Locations like kitchens or dusty areas may require specialized detectors.
Ventilation or airflow (IV): Airflow patterns created by HVAC systems, vents, or fans can direct smoke away from detectors, delaying activation. Proper placement ensures smoke reaches the detector efficiently.
Reference: NFPA 72, Chapter 17: Detector spacing, location, and environmental considerations.
Question #15
During an inspection, it is determined that the installation of a new suppression system is significantly different from the one approved during plans review.
What action should be taken by the inspector?
- A . Issue a violation notice to the owner
- B . Evaluate the installation for compliance
- C . Require a submittal of a set of corrected plans
- D . Indicate the modifications on the approved plan
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
When a significant deviation from the approved plans is discovered during an inspection, the appropriate action is to require a submittal of a set of corrected plans. This is necessary to ensure the system is reviewed and approved in compliance with the applicable codes and standards.
Issue a violation notice (A): While this may be a secondary step if the system does not meet code, it is not the first step when encountering unapproved changes.
Evaluate the installation for compliance (B): Inspectors cannot simply evaluate the installation without updated plans, as the plans serve as the approved baseline for design compliance.
Require corrected plans (C): This step ensures that the new design is documented, reviewed, and approved before proceeding. It maintains compliance with NFPA standards.
Indicate modifications on the approved plan (D): Altering plans without proper review is not acceptable and does not ensure the system meets the original intent.
Reference: NFPA 1 and NFPA 13: Systems must comply with approved designs and significant changes require resubmittal for review.
C
Explanation:
When a significant deviation from the approved plans is discovered during an inspection, the appropriate action is to require a submittal of a set of corrected plans. This is necessary to ensure the system is reviewed and approved in compliance with the applicable codes and standards.
Issue a violation notice (A): While this may be a secondary step if the system does not meet code, it is not the first step when encountering unapproved changes.
Evaluate the installation for compliance (B): Inspectors cannot simply evaluate the installation without updated plans, as the plans serve as the approved baseline for design compliance.
Require corrected plans (C): This step ensures that the new design is documented, reviewed, and approved before proceeding. It maintains compliance with NFPA standards.
Indicate modifications on the approved plan (D): Altering plans without proper review is not acceptable and does not ensure the system meets the original intent.
Reference: NFPA 1 and NFPA 13: Systems must comply with approved designs and significant changes require resubmittal for review.
Question #16
What is the minimum fire protection rating for a fire door in a 2-hour fire resistance-rated assembly that protects a refuse chute?
- A . ½ hour
- B . 1 hour
- C . 1½ hours
- D . 2 hours
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
Fire doors in fire resistance-rated assemblies must have a fire protection rating proportionate to the rating of the assembly they protect. According to NFPA 80, Standard for Fire Doors and Other Opening Protectives, and NFPA 101®, Life Safety Code®:
For a 2-hour fire resistance-rated assembly, the fire door protecting an opening (like a refuse chute) must have a minimum fire protection rating of 1½ hours (90 minutes).
The reduced rating for the door (relative to the wall) is allowed because doors are tested to prevent fire spread through openings for their specified rating period.
½ hour (A) and 1 hour (B) are insufficient for a 2-hour assembly.
2 hours (D) exceeds the requirement but is unnecessary unless specified for high-risk openings.
Reference: NFPA 80, Table 4.2.1.1: Fire door ratings based on fire resistance-rated assemblies.
NFPA 101, Section 8.3.4.2: Fire door requirements for vertical openings like refuse chutes
C
Explanation:
Fire doors in fire resistance-rated assemblies must have a fire protection rating proportionate to the rating of the assembly they protect. According to NFPA 80, Standard for Fire Doors and Other Opening Protectives, and NFPA 101®, Life Safety Code®:
For a 2-hour fire resistance-rated assembly, the fire door protecting an opening (like a refuse chute) must have a minimum fire protection rating of 1½ hours (90 minutes).
The reduced rating for the door (relative to the wall) is allowed because doors are tested to prevent fire spread through openings for their specified rating period.
½ hour (A) and 1 hour (B) are insufficient for a 2-hour assembly.
2 hours (D) exceeds the requirement but is unnecessary unless specified for high-risk openings.
Reference: NFPA 80, Table 4.2.1.1: Fire door ratings based on fire resistance-rated assemblies.
NFPA 101, Section 8.3.4.2: Fire door requirements for vertical openings like refuse chutes
Question #17
For the purpose of sprinkler design, a warehouse with moderately combustible contents stored to heights of 12 ft (3.6 m) is classified as an
- A . Ordinary hazard (Group 1).
- B . Ordinary hazard (Group 2).
- C . Extra hazard (Group 1).
- D . Extra hazard (Group 2).
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
The classification of occupancies for sprinkler system design is outlined in NFPA 13, Standard for the Installation of Sprinkler Systems. Occupancy hazard classification is based on the combustibility of the contents and the storage height.
Ordinary Hazard (Group 2): Includes occupancies with moderately combustible contents, such as warehouses with storage heights of up to 12 feet (3.6 meters). This group accounts for the potential for fire spread due to the storage arrangement and material types.
Ordinary Hazard (Group 1): Covers light combustible loads, typically not stored as high or in large quantities.
Extra Hazard (Groups 1 and 2): Reserved for high-risk areas with substantial fire hazards, including highly flammable or explosive materials and extensive fire loads.
Thus, a warehouse with moderately combustible contents stored to heights of 12 ft falls under Ordinary Hazard (Group 2).
Reference: NFPA 13, Chapter 4.3.3: Hazard classifications for sprinkler system design.
B
Explanation:
The classification of occupancies for sprinkler system design is outlined in NFPA 13, Standard for the Installation of Sprinkler Systems. Occupancy hazard classification is based on the combustibility of the contents and the storage height.
Ordinary Hazard (Group 2): Includes occupancies with moderately combustible contents, such as warehouses with storage heights of up to 12 feet (3.6 meters). This group accounts for the potential for fire spread due to the storage arrangement and material types.
Ordinary Hazard (Group 1): Covers light combustible loads, typically not stored as high or in large quantities.
Extra Hazard (Groups 1 and 2): Reserved for high-risk areas with substantial fire hazards, including highly flammable or explosive materials and extensive fire loads.
Thus, a warehouse with moderately combustible contents stored to heights of 12 ft falls under Ordinary Hazard (Group 2).
Reference: NFPA 13, Chapter 4.3.3: Hazard classifications for sprinkler system design.
Question #18
What is the minimum acceptable flow at the base of the riser for a pipe-schedule sprinkler system in an ordinary hazard (Group 1) occupancy?
- A . 250 gpm (946 L/min)
- B . 500 gpm (1,893 L/min)
- C . 700 gpm (2,649 L/min)
- D . 850 gpm (3,218 L/min)
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
For a pipe-schedule sprinkler system, the minimum water flow at the base of the riser depends on the occupancy hazard classification, as defined in NFPA 13.
For Ordinary Hazard (Group 1) occupancies, the minimum required flow at the base of the riser is 500 gpm (1,893 L/min).
The 500 gpm flow ensures sufficient water supply to the sprinkler system to suppress fires involving moderate combustibles.
Higher flows (e.g., 700 gpm and 850 gpm) are required for more severe hazards (e.g., Extra Hazard occupancies).
Reference: NFPA 13, Table 11.2.3.1.1: Minimum flow requirements for pipe-schedule systems.
B
Explanation:
For a pipe-schedule sprinkler system, the minimum water flow at the base of the riser depends on the occupancy hazard classification, as defined in NFPA 13.
For Ordinary Hazard (Group 1) occupancies, the minimum required flow at the base of the riser is 500 gpm (1,893 L/min).
The 500 gpm flow ensures sufficient water supply to the sprinkler system to suppress fires involving moderate combustibles.
Higher flows (e.g., 700 gpm and 850 gpm) are required for more severe hazards (e.g., Extra Hazard occupancies).
Reference: NFPA 13, Table 11.2.3.1.1: Minimum flow requirements for pipe-schedule systems.
Question #19
What is the color of the glass bulb in a 155°F (66°C) temperature-rated sprinkler head?
- A . Orange or red
- B . Yellow or green
- C . Blue
- D . Purple
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
The color of the glass bulb in sprinkler heads indicates the temperature rating at which the bulb will activate. These colors are standardized under NFPA 13:
155°F (66°C) temperature-rated sprinklers are classified as Ordinary temperature range, and the glass bulb is typically orange or red.
The colors correspond to the following:
Orange/Red: 135°FC155°F (57°CC68°C)
Yellow/Green: 175°FC225°F (79°CC107°C)
Blue: 250°FC300°F (121°CC149°C)
Purple: 325°FC375°F (163°CC191°C)
Reference: NFPA 13, Table 7.2.2.1: Sprinkler temperature ratings and corresponding bulb colors.
A
Explanation:
The color of the glass bulb in sprinkler heads indicates the temperature rating at which the bulb will activate. These colors are standardized under NFPA 13:
155°F (66°C) temperature-rated sprinklers are classified as Ordinary temperature range, and the glass bulb is typically orange or red.
The colors correspond to the following:
Orange/Red: 135°FC155°F (57°CC68°C)
Yellow/Green: 175°FC225°F (79°CC107°C)
Blue: 250°FC300°F (121°CC149°C)
Purple: 325°FC375°F (163°CC191°C)
Reference: NFPA 13, Table 7.2.2.1: Sprinkler temperature ratings and corresponding bulb colors.
Question #20
What is the maximum slope for a ramp in an existing business occupancy?
- A . 1 in 8
- B . 1 in 10
- C . 1 in 12
- D . 1 in 14
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
The maximum allowable slope for ramps in existing buildings, including business occupancies, is specified in NFPA 101®, Life Safety Code®.
1 in 12 (C) corresponds to a slope of 8.3% (1 unit of vertical rise for every 12 units of horizontal distance). This is the maximum allowable slope for ramps to ensure accessibility and safety for all occupants, including individuals with disabilities.
Steeper slopes, such as 1 in 8 or 1 in 10, exceed the limits and pose accessibility and usability issues.
1 in 14 (D) would be a gentler slope, but it is not required for existing occupancies.
Reference: NFPA 101, Section 7.2.5.4: Ramp slope limitations for new and existing buildings.
ADA Guidelines: Also enforce a 1:12 slope for accessibility compliance.
C
Explanation:
The maximum allowable slope for ramps in existing buildings, including business occupancies, is specified in NFPA 101®, Life Safety Code®.
1 in 12 (C) corresponds to a slope of 8.3% (1 unit of vertical rise for every 12 units of horizontal distance). This is the maximum allowable slope for ramps to ensure accessibility and safety for all occupants, including individuals with disabilities.
Steeper slopes, such as 1 in 8 or 1 in 10, exceed the limits and pose accessibility and usability issues.
1 in 14 (D) would be a gentler slope, but it is not required for existing occupancies.
Reference: NFPA 101, Section 7.2.5.4: Ramp slope limitations for new and existing buildings.
ADA Guidelines: Also enforce a 1:12 slope for accessibility compliance.
Question #21
At what minimum pressure would automatic sprinkler piping be hydrostatically tested if the maximum system pressure is 175 psi (12 bar)?
- A . 175 psi (12 bar)
- B . 200 psi (13.8 bar)
- C . 225 psi (15.5 bar)
- D . 250 psi (17 bar)
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
According to NFPA 13, Standard for the Installation of Sprinkler Systems, all sprinkler piping must undergo a hydrostatic test to verify its strength and leak resistance.
Hydrostatic testing must be conducted at a pressure of 200 psi (13.8 bar) or 50 psi (3.4 bar) greater than the system’s maximum working pressure, whichever is higher.
Since the maximum system pressure is 175 psi, the test pressure must be at least 200 psI. 175 psi (A) is the system pressure, not the test pressure. 225 psi (C) and 250 psi (D) exceed the required test pressure.
Reference: NFPA 13, Section 25.2.1.1: Hydrostatic test requirements for sprinkler piping.
B
Explanation:
According to NFPA 13, Standard for the Installation of Sprinkler Systems, all sprinkler piping must undergo a hydrostatic test to verify its strength and leak resistance.
Hydrostatic testing must be conducted at a pressure of 200 psi (13.8 bar) or 50 psi (3.4 bar) greater than the system’s maximum working pressure, whichever is higher.
Since the maximum system pressure is 175 psi, the test pressure must be at least 200 psI. 175 psi (A) is the system pressure, not the test pressure. 225 psi (C) and 250 psi (D) exceed the required test pressure.
Reference: NFPA 13, Section 25.2.1.1: Hydrostatic test requirements for sprinkler piping.
Question #22
To transfer Class I flammable liquids by pressurizing the tank, which of the following conditions must be met?
I. Inert gas is used to pressurize the tank.
II. Air is used to pressurize the tank.
III. A pressure relief device shall be provided.
IV. An interlock shall be installed on the container.
- A . I and III
- B . I and IV
- C . II and III
- D . II and IV
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
Transferring Class I flammable liquids involves strict safety conditions to prevent fire or explosion risks. According to NFPA 30, Flammable and Combustible Liquids Code:
Inert gas (I): Pressurizing the tank with inert gas (e.g., nitrogen) is required to prevent the creation of a flammable atmosphere. Air (II) is not acceptable because it introduces oxygen, which can result in combustion.
Pressure relief device (III): A pressure relief device is mandatory to prevent over-pressurization, which could cause a tank failure or explosion.
Interlock (IV): While useful for operational safety, it is not specifically required for pressurizing tanks.
Reference: NFPA 30, Chapter 18: Requirements for transferring flammable liquids under pressure.
A
Explanation:
Transferring Class I flammable liquids involves strict safety conditions to prevent fire or explosion risks. According to NFPA 30, Flammable and Combustible Liquids Code:
Inert gas (I): Pressurizing the tank with inert gas (e.g., nitrogen) is required to prevent the creation of a flammable atmosphere. Air (II) is not acceptable because it introduces oxygen, which can result in combustion.
Pressure relief device (III): A pressure relief device is mandatory to prevent over-pressurization, which could cause a tank failure or explosion.
Interlock (IV): While useful for operational safety, it is not specifically required for pressurizing tanks.
Reference: NFPA 30, Chapter 18: Requirements for transferring flammable liquids under pressure.
Question #23
Which system piping contains air or nitrogen under pressure at all times?
- A . Standard dry-pipe system
- B . Wet-piping system
- C . Preaction system
- D . Deluge system
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
The various sprinkler systems are differentiated by the type of fluid or gas in the piping and how they operate:
Standard dry-pipe system (A): Contains air or nitrogen under pressure in the piping at all times. When a sprinkler activates, the pressure is released, allowing water to flow into the pipes and out of the sprinkler heads.
Wet-piping system (B): Contains water in the piping at all times.
Preaction system (C): Contains air or nitrogen under pressure, but water is introduced only when specific detection systems activate.
Deluge system (D): Piping is normally dry, and all sprinklers open simultaneously when a detection system triggers water flow.
Reference: NFPA 13, Chapter 7: Types and operation of sprinkler systems.
A
Explanation:
The various sprinkler systems are differentiated by the type of fluid or gas in the piping and how they operate:
Standard dry-pipe system (A): Contains air or nitrogen under pressure in the piping at all times. When a sprinkler activates, the pressure is released, allowing water to flow into the pipes and out of the sprinkler heads.
Wet-piping system (B): Contains water in the piping at all times.
Preaction system (C): Contains air or nitrogen under pressure, but water is introduced only when specific detection systems activate.
Deluge system (D): Piping is normally dry, and all sprinklers open simultaneously when a detection system triggers water flow.
Reference: NFPA 13, Chapter 7: Types and operation of sprinkler systems.
Question #24
What is the maximum length of dead-end corridors in new mercantile occupancies protected by a supervised automatic sprinkler system?
- A . 20 ft (6 m)
- B . 50 ft (15 m)
- C . 75 ft (23 m)
- D . 100 ft (30 m)
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
Dead-end corridors are portions of a hallway that do not lead to an exit, posing challenges for occupant evacuation during a fire. According to NFPA 101®, Life Safety Code®, Section 36.2.5.2 (New Mercantile Occupancies):
In buildings equipped with a supervised automatic sprinkler system, the maximum allowable length of a dead-end corridor is 75 feet (23 meters).
Without a sprinkler system, the limit is typically much shorter, such as 20 feet (6 meters) or 50 feet (15 meters) depending on occupancy type.
20 ft (A) and 50 ft (B): These limits apply to unsprinklered or higher-risk occupancies. 100 ft (D): This exceeds the allowable limit, even with sprinklers.
Reference: NFPA 101, Section 36.2.5.2: Dead-end corridor limits for mercantile occupancies
C
Explanation:
Dead-end corridors are portions of a hallway that do not lead to an exit, posing challenges for occupant evacuation during a fire. According to NFPA 101®, Life Safety Code®, Section 36.2.5.2 (New Mercantile Occupancies):
In buildings equipped with a supervised automatic sprinkler system, the maximum allowable length of a dead-end corridor is 75 feet (23 meters).
Without a sprinkler system, the limit is typically much shorter, such as 20 feet (6 meters) or 50 feet (15 meters) depending on occupancy type.
20 ft (A) and 50 ft (B): These limits apply to unsprinklered or higher-risk occupancies. 100 ft (D): This exceeds the allowable limit, even with sprinklers.
Reference: NFPA 101, Section 36.2.5.2: Dead-end corridor limits for mercantile occupancies
Question #25
A fire inspector is inspecting a fast-food restaurant that has an indoor playground structure exceeding 10 ft (3.1 m) in height and 160 ft³ (14.9 m²) in area.
Which of the following statements is true regarding combustible materials used in the playground structure’s construction?
- A . Combustible materials are not permitted
- B . Class II interior floor finish is permitted
- C . Wood components may be treated or non-treated
- D . Foam plastics with a heat-release rate less than 100 kW are permitted
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
Indoor playground structures are subject to material restrictions to prevent excessive fire risk.
According to NFPA 101®, Life Safety Code®, Section 12.4.8.6, and related codes:
Combustible materials (A): Not all combustibles are prohibited; specific limits and fire-retardant materials are allowed.
Class II floor finish (B): This applies to interior finishes but does not directly address playground structure construction.
Wood components (C): Untreated wood is not acceptable in this case; treated materials might be allowed but are not sufficient alone.
Foam plastics (D): Foam plastics are permitted if the heat-release rate is less than 100 kW when tested per NFPA 289. This ensures they do not contribute significantly to fire growth.
Reference: NFPA 101, Section 12.4.8.6: Material requirements for indoor playground structures.
NFPA 289: Standard test method for fire testing of foam plastics.
D
Explanation:
Indoor playground structures are subject to material restrictions to prevent excessive fire risk.
According to NFPA 101®, Life Safety Code®, Section 12.4.8.6, and related codes:
Combustible materials (A): Not all combustibles are prohibited; specific limits and fire-retardant materials are allowed.
Class II floor finish (B): This applies to interior finishes but does not directly address playground structure construction.
Wood components (C): Untreated wood is not acceptable in this case; treated materials might be allowed but are not sufficient alone.
Foam plastics (D): Foam plastics are permitted if the heat-release rate is less than 100 kW when tested per NFPA 289. This ensures they do not contribute significantly to fire growth.
Reference: NFPA 101, Section 12.4.8.6: Material requirements for indoor playground structures.
NFPA 289: Standard test method for fire testing of foam plastics.
Question #26
What is the classification for a building that does not qualify as a one- or two-family dwelling and provides sleeping accommodations for a total of 16 or fewer people on a transient or permanent basis, without personal care services, with or without meals, and without separate cooking facilities for individual occupants?
- A . Dormitory
- B . Hotel
- C . Boarding facility
- D . Lodging or rooming house
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
The classification of buildings for sleeping accommodations is outlined in NFPA 101®, Life Safety Code®.
Lodging or rooming house (D): This classification applies to buildings providing sleeping accommodations for 16 or fewer people on a transient or permanent basis, without personal care services or separate cooking facilities.
Dormitory (A): A dormitory typically provides sleeping accommodations for more than 16 people in group living settings.
Hotel (B): A hotel provides transient accommodations for larger numbers of occupants, often with amenities like separate cooking facilities.
Boarding facility (C): Boarding facilities include personal care or longer-term services, which are not specified here.
Reference: NFPA 101, Section 6.1.2.4: Definitions of lodging or rooming houses.
D
Explanation:
The classification of buildings for sleeping accommodations is outlined in NFPA 101®, Life Safety Code®.
Lodging or rooming house (D): This classification applies to buildings providing sleeping accommodations for 16 or fewer people on a transient or permanent basis, without personal care services or separate cooking facilities.
Dormitory (A): A dormitory typically provides sleeping accommodations for more than 16 people in group living settings.
Hotel (B): A hotel provides transient accommodations for larger numbers of occupants, often with amenities like separate cooking facilities.
Boarding facility (C): Boarding facilities include personal care or longer-term services, which are not specified here.
Reference: NFPA 101, Section 6.1.2.4: Definitions of lodging or rooming houses.
Question #27
After conducting the annual test of a dry barrel hydrant, what is the maximum length of time permitted for full drainage to take place?
- A . 10 minutes
- B . 15 minutes
- C . 30 minutes
- D . 60 minutes
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
Dry barrel hydrants must be tested annually to ensure proper drainage and operation. According to NFPA 25, Standard for the Inspection, Testing, and Maintenance of Water-Based Fire Protection Systems:
After testing, full drainage of the hydrant must occur within 15 minutes. This ensures no residual water remains in the hydrant barrel, which could freeze in cold climates and damage the hydrant.
If the hydrant fails to drain within 15 minutes, it indicates an obstruction or malfunction in the drainage system that must be corrected.
10 minutes (A): Not enough time for standard drainage.
30 minutes (C) and 60 minutes (D): Exceed the acceptable limit defined by NFPA 25.
Reference: NFPA 25, Section 7.3.2: Annual testing and drainage requirements for dry barrel hydrants.
B
Explanation:
Dry barrel hydrants must be tested annually to ensure proper drainage and operation. According to NFPA 25, Standard for the Inspection, Testing, and Maintenance of Water-Based Fire Protection Systems:
After testing, full drainage of the hydrant must occur within 15 minutes. This ensures no residual water remains in the hydrant barrel, which could freeze in cold climates and damage the hydrant.
If the hydrant fails to drain within 15 minutes, it indicates an obstruction or malfunction in the drainage system that must be corrected.
10 minutes (A): Not enough time for standard drainage.
30 minutes (C) and 60 minutes (D): Exceed the acceptable limit defined by NFPA 25.
Reference: NFPA 25, Section 7.3.2: Annual testing and drainage requirements for dry barrel hydrants.
Question #28
A document issued by the authority having jurisdiction for the purpose of authorizing performance of a specific activity would best be described as which of the following?
- A . Permission
- B . Approval
- C . Acceptance
- D . Permit
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
The Authority Having Jurisdiction (AHJ) is responsible for authorizing specific activities to ensure compliance with fire and safety codes. This authorization is formalized in the form of a permit:
Permit (D): A permit is a legal document issued to authorize the performance of specific activities, such as construction, hazardous material storage, or system installation.
Permission (A): While related, "permission" is a general term and not an official document.
Approval (B): "Approval" indicates the AHJ has reviewed and accepted a plan or system but does not authorize ongoing activity.
Acceptance (C): "Acceptance" refers to confirmation that something (e.g., a system installation) complies with standards after inspection.
Reference: NFPA 1, Fire Code, Chapter 1.12: Permit issuance and AHJ responsibilities
D
Explanation:
The Authority Having Jurisdiction (AHJ) is responsible for authorizing specific activities to ensure compliance with fire and safety codes. This authorization is formalized in the form of a permit:
Permit (D): A permit is a legal document issued to authorize the performance of specific activities, such as construction, hazardous material storage, or system installation.
Permission (A): While related, "permission" is a general term and not an official document.
Approval (B): "Approval" indicates the AHJ has reviewed and accepted a plan or system but does not authorize ongoing activity.
Acceptance (C): "Acceptance" refers to confirmation that something (e.g., a system installation) complies with standards after inspection.
Reference: NFPA 1, Fire Code, Chapter 1.12: Permit issuance and AHJ responsibilities
Question #29
When may acoustical and decorative materials such as cotton, hay, paper, straw, moss, split bamboo, and wood chips be used as decorations within an assembly occupancy?
- A . Materials not permitted
- B . When small quantities are used
- C . When they meet independent third-party certification
- D . When flame-retardant treated to the satisfaction of the AHJ
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
Acoustical and decorative materials pose a significant fire hazard due to their combustibility.
According to NFPA 101®, Life Safety Code®, Section 10.3.1, and related standards:
Such materials may only be used if they are flame-retardant treated or inherently noncombustible.
The treatment must be to the satisfaction of the Authority Having Jurisdiction (AHJ), ensuring compliance with testing requirements (e.g., NFPA 701).
Small quantities (B): Even small quantities can pose risks, so this is insufficient justification. Third-party certification (C): While helpful, AHJ approval is still required.
Reference: NFPA 101, Section 10.3.1: Requirements for interior finishes, decorations, and trim.
NFPA 701: Testing standards for flame retardancy of textiles and materials.
D
Explanation:
Acoustical and decorative materials pose a significant fire hazard due to their combustibility.
According to NFPA 101®, Life Safety Code®, Section 10.3.1, and related standards:
Such materials may only be used if they are flame-retardant treated or inherently noncombustible.
The treatment must be to the satisfaction of the Authority Having Jurisdiction (AHJ), ensuring compliance with testing requirements (e.g., NFPA 701).
Small quantities (B): Even small quantities can pose risks, so this is insufficient justification. Third-party certification (C): While helpful, AHJ approval is still required.
Reference: NFPA 101, Section 10.3.1: Requirements for interior finishes, decorations, and trim.
NFPA 701: Testing standards for flame retardancy of textiles and materials.
Question #30
Which of the following conditions gives an inspector the right to enter a private dwelling to conduct a fire inspection?
I. The consent of the occupant
II. Possession of a warrant authorizing entry
III. A written complaint from a citizen regarding the property in question
IV. When emergency exists
- A . I and II
- B . I, II, and IV
- C . II, III, and IV
- D . I, II, III, and IV
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
An inspector’s right to enter a private dwelling is governed by legal and fire code principles:
Consent of the occupant (I): The occupant may grant permission for the inspection voluntarily.
Warrant authorizing entry (II): If consent is not provided, a legal warrant may be obtained for inspection purposes.
Written complaint (III): A credible written complaint may justify inspection to investigate a fire code violation.
Emergency exists (IV): In emergencies (e.g., imminent danger to life or property), an inspector may enter without consent or a warrant.
All four conditions are valid, making the correct answer D.
Reference: NFPA 1, Section 1.7.7: Right of entry for fire inspections.
Legal standards for administrative searches and emergencies.
D
Explanation:
An inspector’s right to enter a private dwelling is governed by legal and fire code principles:
Consent of the occupant (I): The occupant may grant permission for the inspection voluntarily.
Warrant authorizing entry (II): If consent is not provided, a legal warrant may be obtained for inspection purposes.
Written complaint (III): A credible written complaint may justify inspection to investigate a fire code violation.
Emergency exists (IV): In emergencies (e.g., imminent danger to life or property), an inspector may enter without consent or a warrant.
All four conditions are valid, making the correct answer D.
Reference: NFPA 1, Section 1.7.7: Right of entry for fire inspections.
Legal standards for administrative searches and emergencies.
Question #31
What is the minimum static pressure drop required when flow testing fire hydrants?
- A . 5 percent
- B . 10 percent
- C . 15 percent
- D . 20 percent
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
When performing a fire hydrant flow test, a minimum static pressure drop is required to ensure that the test provides accurate and meaningful results. According to NFPA 291, Recommended Practice for Fire Flow Testing and Marking of Hydrants:
A 10 percent pressure drop is the minimum acceptable difference between the static pressure (no flow) and residual pressure (while flowing).
This drop ensures that water flow is sufficient for an accurate test and reflects the system’s capacity under actual fire conditions.
5 percent (A): Too low to provide reliable results.
15 percent (C) and 20 percent (D): Higher drops are acceptable but not the minimum requirement.
Reference: NFPA 291, Section 4.9: Static pressure drop requirements during flow testing.
B
Explanation:
When performing a fire hydrant flow test, a minimum static pressure drop is required to ensure that the test provides accurate and meaningful results. According to NFPA 291, Recommended Practice for Fire Flow Testing and Marking of Hydrants:
A 10 percent pressure drop is the minimum acceptable difference between the static pressure (no flow) and residual pressure (while flowing).
This drop ensures that water flow is sufficient for an accurate test and reflects the system’s capacity under actual fire conditions.
5 percent (A): Too low to provide reliable results.
15 percent (C) and 20 percent (D): Higher drops are acceptable but not the minimum requirement.
Reference: NFPA 291, Section 4.9: Static pressure drop requirements during flow testing.
Question #32
The appropriateness of the safeguards required by the Life Safety Code to individual buildings and structures bears due regard to all EXCEPT which of the following?
- A . Age of the building
- B . The fire load of the occupancy
- C . Number of persons exposed
- D . Capabilities of the occupants
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
The Life Safety Code (NFPA 101®) ensures that fire and life safety safeguards are appropriate to the risks posed by a building or occupancy.
Key considerations include:
Fire load of the occupancy (B): The quantity and combustibility of materials influence fire severity and spread.
Number of persons exposed (C): Occupant load determines evacuation requirements and system capacities.
Capabilities of the occupants (D): Includes factors like mobility, age, and ability to respond to emergencies.
The age of the building (A) is not a primary factor under the Life Safety Code. Safeguards apply regardless of a building’s age, as older buildings may still require updates to meet current safety standards.
Reference: NFPA 101, Section 4.6.6: Considerations for applying safeguards in buildings and structures
A
Explanation:
The Life Safety Code (NFPA 101®) ensures that fire and life safety safeguards are appropriate to the risks posed by a building or occupancy.
Key considerations include:
Fire load of the occupancy (B): The quantity and combustibility of materials influence fire severity and spread.
Number of persons exposed (C): Occupant load determines evacuation requirements and system capacities.
Capabilities of the occupants (D): Includes factors like mobility, age, and ability to respond to emergencies.
The age of the building (A) is not a primary factor under the Life Safety Code. Safeguards apply regardless of a building’s age, as older buildings may still require updates to meet current safety standards.
Reference: NFPA 101, Section 4.6.6: Considerations for applying safeguards in buildings and structures
Question #33
Where shall fire department connections on wet-pipe automatic sprinkler systems be located?
- A . On the system side of the water supply check valve
- B . On the suction side of booster pumps
- C . On the supply side of the check valve in a single-riser system
- D . Above the dry-pipe valve on a single-riser dry-pipe system
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
The placement of the fire department connection (FDC) for a wet-pipe automatic sprinkler system is governed by NFPA 13, Standard for the Installation of Sprinkler Systems.
The FDC must be located on the system side of the water supply check valve (A). This ensures that the fire department can pump water into the system effectively and directly supply the sprinkler system during an emergency.
Suction side of booster pumps (B): This placement would not supply water correctly to the system during firefighting operations.
Supply side of the check valve (C): This would prevent water from entering the sprinkler system since the check valve blocks backflow from the FDC.
Above the dry-pipe valve (D): This applies to dry-pipe systems, not wet-pipe systems.
Reference: NFPA 13, Section 8.17.2.4: Location requirements for fire department connections.
A
Explanation:
The placement of the fire department connection (FDC) for a wet-pipe automatic sprinkler system is governed by NFPA 13, Standard for the Installation of Sprinkler Systems.
The FDC must be located on the system side of the water supply check valve (A). This ensures that the fire department can pump water into the system effectively and directly supply the sprinkler system during an emergency.
Suction side of booster pumps (B): This placement would not supply water correctly to the system during firefighting operations.
Supply side of the check valve (C): This would prevent water from entering the sprinkler system since the check valve blocks backflow from the FDC.
Above the dry-pipe valve (D): This applies to dry-pipe systems, not wet-pipe systems.
Reference: NFPA 13, Section 8.17.2.4: Location requirements for fire department connections.
Question #34
In new health care occupancies, unattended soiled linen receptacles that exceed the permitted capacity must be located in which one of the following locations?
- A . Corridor
- B . Nurses station
- C . Hazardous area
- D . Patient room
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
In health care occupancies, soiled linen receptacles pose a fire and contamination risk if they exceed allowable capacity. According to NFPA 101®, Life Safety Code®, Section 18.7.5.7:
Soiled linen receptacles exceeding 32 gallons (121 liters) in capacity must be stored in a hazardous area (C).
A hazardous area is a space specifically designed with fire-rated enclosures and safety measures to contain risks associated with combustible materials.
Corridor (A): Storing large soiled linen containers in corridors is prohibited to ensure clear egress pathways.
Nurses station (B) and Patient room (D): These are not designated hazardous areas and are inappropriate for storing excessive amounts of soiled linens.
Reference: NFPA 101, Section 18.7.5.7: Storage and location requirements for soiled linen and trash receptacles.
C
Explanation:
In health care occupancies, soiled linen receptacles pose a fire and contamination risk if they exceed allowable capacity. According to NFPA 101®, Life Safety Code®, Section 18.7.5.7:
Soiled linen receptacles exceeding 32 gallons (121 liters) in capacity must be stored in a hazardous area (C).
A hazardous area is a space specifically designed with fire-rated enclosures and safety measures to contain risks associated with combustible materials.
Corridor (A): Storing large soiled linen containers in corridors is prohibited to ensure clear egress pathways.
Nurses station (B) and Patient room (D): These are not designated hazardous areas and are inappropriate for storing excessive amounts of soiled linens.
Reference: NFPA 101, Section 18.7.5.7: Storage and location requirements for soiled linen and trash receptacles.
Question #35
In occupancies where a Class A or Class B interior finish is required, which of the following is the allowable amount of Class C materials?
- A . 5 percent
- B . 10 percent
- C . 15 percent
- D . 20 percent
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
The use of interior finish materials is regulated by NFPA 101®, Life Safety Code®, Section 10.2.3. In occupancies where Class A or Class B interior finishes are required:
A limited percentage of Class C materials may be allowed as incidental decoration or finish, provided it does not pose significant fire risk.
The allowable amount of Class C materials is limited to 10 percent of the total wall and ceiling area within the space.
This restriction ensures that the overall fire performance of the interior finish remains within acceptable safety limits.
5 percent (A): Too restrictive compared to NFPA allowances.
15 percent (C) and 20 percent (D): Exceed the permissible amount under Class A or B requirements.
Reference: NFPA 101, Section 10.2.3: Interior finish requirements and allowable material classifications
B
Explanation:
The use of interior finish materials is regulated by NFPA 101®, Life Safety Code®, Section 10.2.3. In occupancies where Class A or Class B interior finishes are required:
A limited percentage of Class C materials may be allowed as incidental decoration or finish, provided it does not pose significant fire risk.
The allowable amount of Class C materials is limited to 10 percent of the total wall and ceiling area within the space.
This restriction ensures that the overall fire performance of the interior finish remains within acceptable safety limits.
5 percent (A): Too restrictive compared to NFPA allowances.
15 percent (C) and 20 percent (D): Exceed the permissible amount under Class A or B requirements.
Reference: NFPA 101, Section 10.2.3: Interior finish requirements and allowable material classifications