Question #1
The voice box is called the:
- A . larynx
- B . pharynx
- C . glottis
- D . trachea
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
The larynx is commonly referred to as the voice box. It is located in the neck and performs several functions, including breathing, producing sound, and protecting the trachea against food aspiration. The larynx houses the vocal cords, which vibrate to produce sound when air is expelled from the lungs.
The other options refer to different parts of the respiratory and digestive systems:
Pharynx: A muscular tube that serves both respiratory and digestive functions by connecting the nasal and oral cavities to the larynx and esophagus.
Glottis: The part of the larynx consisting of the vocal cords and the opening between them. It is not a structure itself but rather a component of the larynx.
Trachea: Also known as the windpipe, it is a tube that connects the larynx to the bronchi of the lungs, allowing the passage of air.
Reference: "Larynx." Encyclopedia Britannica, https://www.britannica.com/science/larynx
A
Explanation:
The larynx is commonly referred to as the voice box. It is located in the neck and performs several functions, including breathing, producing sound, and protecting the trachea against food aspiration. The larynx houses the vocal cords, which vibrate to produce sound when air is expelled from the lungs.
The other options refer to different parts of the respiratory and digestive systems:
Pharynx: A muscular tube that serves both respiratory and digestive functions by connecting the nasal and oral cavities to the larynx and esophagus.
Glottis: The part of the larynx consisting of the vocal cords and the opening between them. It is not a structure itself but rather a component of the larynx.
Trachea: Also known as the windpipe, it is a tube that connects the larynx to the bronchi of the lungs, allowing the passage of air.
Reference: "Larynx." Encyclopedia Britannica, https://www.britannica.com/science/larynx
Question #2
A substance provided by the stomach, necessary for the digestion of food, is called:
- A . glycogen
- B . insulin
- C . hydrochloric acid
- D . glucose
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
Hydrochloric acid (HCl) is a substance produced by the stomach lining. It plays a crucial role in digestion by creating an acidic environment, which helps in the breakdown of food, activates digestive enzymes like pepsin, and kills harmful bacteria ingested with food. The other options are: Glycogen: A stored form of glucose found in the liver and muscles, not directly involved in digestion. Insulin: A hormone produced by the pancreas that regulates blood glucose levels, not involved in digestion in the stomach.
Glucose: A simple sugar that is an end product of carbohydrate digestion, not a substance produced by the stomach.
Reference: "Digestive System: The Stomach." Johns Hopkins Medicine, https://www.hopkinsmedicine.org/health/wellness-and-prevention/the-stomach
C
Explanation:
Hydrochloric acid (HCl) is a substance produced by the stomach lining. It plays a crucial role in digestion by creating an acidic environment, which helps in the breakdown of food, activates digestive enzymes like pepsin, and kills harmful bacteria ingested with food. The other options are: Glycogen: A stored form of glucose found in the liver and muscles, not directly involved in digestion. Insulin: A hormone produced by the pancreas that regulates blood glucose levels, not involved in digestion in the stomach.
Glucose: A simple sugar that is an end product of carbohydrate digestion, not a substance produced by the stomach.
Reference: "Digestive System: The Stomach." Johns Hopkins Medicine, https://www.hopkinsmedicine.org/health/wellness-and-prevention/the-stomach
Question #3
The approximate number of bones in the body is:
- A . 90
- B . 100
- C . 206
- D . 450
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
The human adult body typically has 206 bones. These bones provide structure, protect organs, anchor muscles, and store calcium. Infants are born with approximately 270 bones, some of which fuse together during growth to form the 206 bones in an adult skeleton. The other options are incorrect as they do not represent the total bone count in the adult human body.
Reference: "How many bones are in the human body?" Medical News Today, https://www.medicalnewstoday.com/articles/325003
C
Explanation:
The human adult body typically has 206 bones. These bones provide structure, protect organs, anchor muscles, and store calcium. Infants are born with approximately 270 bones, some of which fuse together during growth to form the 206 bones in an adult skeleton. The other options are incorrect as they do not represent the total bone count in the adult human body.
Reference: "How many bones are in the human body?" Medical News Today, https://www.medicalnewstoday.com/articles/325003
Question #4
A counting chamber utilized in manual microscopic methods is called a
- A . hemacytometer
- B . hyamestometer
- C . ccntraomctcr
- D . hcmacountcr
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
A hemacytometer is a device used in manual microscopic methods to count cells. It consists of a thick glass microscope slide with a grid etched into it. This grid allows for the counting of cells in a defined volume of fluid, making it possible to calculate the concentration of cells in a sample.
The other options are not valid terms:
Hyamestometer: Not a recognized term.
Ccntraomctcr: Typographical error, not a valid term.
Hcmacountcr: Typographical error, not a valid term.
Reference: "Hemacytometer." ScienceDirect, https://www.sciencedirect.com/topics/neuroscience/hemacytometer
A
Explanation:
A hemacytometer is a device used in manual microscopic methods to count cells. It consists of a thick glass microscope slide with a grid etched into it. This grid allows for the counting of cells in a defined volume of fluid, making it possible to calculate the concentration of cells in a sample.
The other options are not valid terms:
Hyamestometer: Not a recognized term.
Ccntraomctcr: Typographical error, not a valid term.
Hcmacountcr: Typographical error, not a valid term.
Reference: "Hemacytometer." ScienceDirect, https://www.sciencedirect.com/topics/neuroscience/hemacytometer
Question #5
Fats are sometimes called:
- A . lipids
- B . lactose
- C . lipoproteins
- D . Jacteals
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
Lipids is the scientific term for fats. They are a broad group of naturally occurring molecules that include fats, waxes, sterols, fat-soluble vitamins, and others. Lipids are essential for storing energy, signaling, and acting as structural components of cell membranes. The other options are related to different substances:
Lactose: A sugar found in milk.
Lipoproteins: Complexes of lipids and proteins that transport lipids through the bloodstream.
Lacteals: Lymphatic vessels in the small intestine that absorb fats.
Reference: "Lipids." National Center for Biotechnology Information, https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK22260/
A
Explanation:
Lipids is the scientific term for fats. They are a broad group of naturally occurring molecules that include fats, waxes, sterols, fat-soluble vitamins, and others. Lipids are essential for storing energy, signaling, and acting as structural components of cell membranes. The other options are related to different substances:
Lactose: A sugar found in milk.
Lipoproteins: Complexes of lipids and proteins that transport lipids through the bloodstream.
Lacteals: Lymphatic vessels in the small intestine that absorb fats.
Reference: "Lipids." National Center for Biotechnology Information, https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK22260/
Question #6
The universal donor is blood type:
- A . B
- B . O
- C . A
- D . D
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
The universal donor blood type is O negative (O-). This means that individuals with this blood type can donate blood to recipients of any other blood type. This is due to the absence of A and B antigens on the red blood cells and the lack of Rh antigen, which prevents the immune system of the recipient from recognizing the donor blood as foreign. The concept of universal donor is fundamental in emergency situations when there’s no time to cross-match blood types.
Reference: American Red Cross. (n.d.). Understanding Blood Types.
Mayo Clinic. (n.d.). Blood Types and Compatibility.
B
Explanation:
The universal donor blood type is O negative (O-). This means that individuals with this blood type can donate blood to recipients of any other blood type. This is due to the absence of A and B antigens on the red blood cells and the lack of Rh antigen, which prevents the immune system of the recipient from recognizing the donor blood as foreign. The concept of universal donor is fundamental in emergency situations when there’s no time to cross-match blood types.
Reference: American Red Cross. (n.d.). Understanding Blood Types.
Mayo Clinic. (n.d.). Blood Types and Compatibility.
Question #7
The most common combining form is:
- A . a
- B . e
- C . u
- D . o
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
The most common combining form in medical terminology is "o". A combining form consists of a root word and a combining vowel, typically "o", which is used to ease pronunciation when adding suffixes or when combining multiple roots.
Reference: Chabner, D.-E. (2016). The Language of Medicine (11th ed.). Elsevier. Cohen, B. J., & DePetris, A. (2013). Medical Terminology: An Illustrated Guide (7th ed.). Lippincott Williams & Wilkins.
D
Explanation:
The most common combining form in medical terminology is "o". A combining form consists of a root word and a combining vowel, typically "o", which is used to ease pronunciation when adding suffixes or when combining multiple roots.
Reference: Chabner, D.-E. (2016). The Language of Medicine (11th ed.). Elsevier. Cohen, B. J., & DePetris, A. (2013). Medical Terminology: An Illustrated Guide (7th ed.). Lippincott Williams & Wilkins.
Question #8
Intercostal refers to
- A . under the cartilage
- B . under the ribs
- C . on the cartilage
- D . between the ribs
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
The term intercostal refers to the anatomical location between the ribs. "Inter-" means between, and "costal" pertains to the ribs. The intercostal muscles, for example, are muscles located between the ribs that play a key role in the respiratory process by aiding in the expansion and contraction of the thoracic cavity.
Reference: Moore, K. L., Dalley,
D
Explanation:
The term intercostal refers to the anatomical location between the ribs. "Inter-" means between, and "costal" pertains to the ribs. The intercostal muscles, for example, are muscles located between the ribs that play a key role in the respiratory process by aiding in the expansion and contraction of the thoracic cavity.
Reference: Moore, K. L., Dalley,
Question #9
Occult means
- A . mysterious
- B . easily found
- C . benign
- D . hidden
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
The term occult means hidden. In medical contexts, this term is often used to describe conditions or symptoms that are not immediately apparent or visible. For example, occult blood in the stool refers to blood that is not visible to the naked eye but can be detected through chemical tests.
Reference: Mosby’s Medical Dictionary (10th ed.). (2017). Elsevier.
Dorland’s Illustrated Medical Dictionary (32nd ed.). (2011). Elsevier.
D
Explanation:
The term occult means hidden. In medical contexts, this term is often used to describe conditions or symptoms that are not immediately apparent or visible. For example, occult blood in the stool refers to blood that is not visible to the naked eye but can be detected through chemical tests.
Reference: Mosby’s Medical Dictionary (10th ed.). (2017). Elsevier.
Dorland’s Illustrated Medical Dictionary (32nd ed.). (2011). Elsevier.
Question #10
The purpose of applying paste or jelly when running an EKG Is to reduce
- A . skin resistance
- B . the chance of shocking the assistant
- C . the chance of shocking the
- D . the chance of shorting the patient machine
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
The purpose of applying paste or jelly when running an EKG (Electrocardiogram) is to reduce skin resistance. This conductive gel ensures better conductivity between the skin and the electrodes, resulting in a clearer and more accurate recording of the heart’s electrical activity. Without the gel, poor contact can lead to high resistance and artifacts in the EKG trace.
Reference: Thaler, M. S. (2018). The Only EKG Book You’ll Ever Need (9th ed.). Wolters Kluwer
A
Explanation:
The purpose of applying paste or jelly when running an EKG (Electrocardiogram) is to reduce skin resistance. This conductive gel ensures better conductivity between the skin and the electrodes, resulting in a clearer and more accurate recording of the heart’s electrical activity. Without the gel, poor contact can lead to high resistance and artifacts in the EKG trace.
Reference: Thaler, M. S. (2018). The Only EKG Book You’ll Ever Need (9th ed.). Wolters Kluwer
Question #11
Glucose tolerance test is a test for:
- A . liver function
- B . sugar metabolism
- C . thyroid function
- D . kidney function
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
A glucose tolerance test (GTT) is used to evaluate how well the body processes glucose, which is crucial for diagnosing conditions related to sugar metabolism, such as diabetes and insulin resistance. During the test, a patient consumes a glucose-rich beverage, and blood samples are taken at intervals to measure blood glucose levels. The primary purpose is to assess the body’s ability to metabolize sugar.
Reference: "Glucose Tolerance Test." Mayo Clinic, https://www.mayoclinic.org/tests-procedures/glucose-tolerance-test/about/pac-20394296
B
Explanation:
A glucose tolerance test (GTT) is used to evaluate how well the body processes glucose, which is crucial for diagnosing conditions related to sugar metabolism, such as diabetes and insulin resistance. During the test, a patient consumes a glucose-rich beverage, and blood samples are taken at intervals to measure blood glucose levels. The primary purpose is to assess the body’s ability to metabolize sugar.
Reference: "Glucose Tolerance Test." Mayo Clinic, https://www.mayoclinic.org/tests-procedures/glucose-tolerance-test/about/pac-20394296
Question #12
Atriomegaly refers to:
- A . injury to the atrium of the heart
- B . underdeveloped atrium of the heart
- C . enlargement of the atrium of the heart
- D . incision into the atrium of the heart
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
Atriomegaly is a medical term that describes the enlargement of the atrium of the heart. The atria are the two upper chambers of the heart, and enlargement can be due to various conditions such as hypertension, valvular heart disease, or cardiomyopathy. This enlargement can affect the heart’s ability to pump blood efficiently.
Reference: "Atriomegaly." Medical Dictionary, https://medical-dictionary.thefreedictionary.com/atriomegaly
C
Explanation:
Atriomegaly is a medical term that describes the enlargement of the atrium of the heart. The atria are the two upper chambers of the heart, and enlargement can be due to various conditions such as hypertension, valvular heart disease, or cardiomyopathy. This enlargement can affect the heart’s ability to pump blood efficiently.
Reference: "Atriomegaly." Medical Dictionary, https://medical-dictionary.thefreedictionary.com/atriomegaly
Question #13
The doctor’s office is most concerned with:
- A . civil and criminal law
- B . civil and military law
- C . civil and international law
- D . civil and probate law
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
A doctor’s office primarily deals with civil and criminal law. Civil law covers issues such as malpractice, patient confidentiality, and contract disputes, while criminal law may involve cases of fraud, illegal prescription practices, or breaches of health regulations. Understanding both areas is crucial for healthcare professionals to comply with legal standards and protect their practice.
Reference: "Legal Aspects of Health Care." American Medical Association, https://www.ama-assn.org/delivering-care/ethics/legal-issues
A
Explanation:
A doctor’s office primarily deals with civil and criminal law. Civil law covers issues such as malpractice, patient confidentiality, and contract disputes, while criminal law may involve cases of fraud, illegal prescription practices, or breaches of health regulations. Understanding both areas is crucial for healthcare professionals to comply with legal standards and protect their practice.
Reference: "Legal Aspects of Health Care." American Medical Association, https://www.ama-assn.org/delivering-care/ethics/legal-issues
Question #14
High blood pressure is referred to as
- A . Iwpertension
- B . hyperemia
- C . hypertrophy
- D . hyperthermia
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
Hypertension is the medical term for high blood pressure. It is a condition where the force of the blood against the artery walls is consistently too high, which can lead to heart disease, stroke, and other health problems. The other terms refer to different conditions: Hyperemia: Increased blood flow to a particular area of the body.
Hypertrophy: Enlargement of an organ or tissue from the increase in the size of its cells.
Hyperthermia: Abnormally high body temperature.
Reference: "Hypertension." American Heart Association, https://www.heart.org/en/health-topics/high-blood-pressure
C
Explanation:
Hypertension is the medical term for high blood pressure. It is a condition where the force of the blood against the artery walls is consistently too high, which can lead to heart disease, stroke, and other health problems. The other terms refer to different conditions: Hyperemia: Increased blood flow to a particular area of the body.
Hypertrophy: Enlargement of an organ or tissue from the increase in the size of its cells.
Hyperthermia: Abnormally high body temperature.
Reference: "Hypertension." American Heart Association, https://www.heart.org/en/health-topics/high-blood-pressure
Question #15
A condition indicating that certain elements are lacking in the blood:
- A . angina
- B . anemia
- C . ischemia
- D . all of the choices
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
Anemia is a condition characterized by a deficiency of red blood cells or hemoglobin in the blood, leading to a lack of oxygen being carried to the body’s tissues. This can result from a deficiency of iron, vitamin B12, or folate, among other causes. The other options refer to different conditions: Angina: Chest pain caused by reduced blood flow to the heart.
Ischemia: Restricted blood supply to tissues, causing a shortage of oxygen needed for cellular metabolism.
Reference: "Anemia." National Heart, Lung, and Blood Institute, https://www.nhlbi.nih.gov/health-topics/anemia
B
Explanation:
Anemia is a condition characterized by a deficiency of red blood cells or hemoglobin in the blood, leading to a lack of oxygen being carried to the body’s tissues. This can result from a deficiency of iron, vitamin B12, or folate, among other causes. The other options refer to different conditions: Angina: Chest pain caused by reduced blood flow to the heart.
Ischemia: Restricted blood supply to tissues, causing a shortage of oxygen needed for cellular metabolism.
Reference: "Anemia." National Heart, Lung, and Blood Institute, https://www.nhlbi.nih.gov/health-topics/anemia
Question #16
When performing a routine phlebotomy, the most common gauge needle is
- A . 25or26
- B . 18
- C . 22
- D . D: 20 or 21
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
In routine phlebotomy, the most commonly used needle gauge is 20 or 21. This size is suitable for venipuncture as it allows for efficient blood flow without causing excessive trauma to the vein. Smaller gauges (like 25 or 26) are typically used for intradermal or subcutaneous injections, while larger gauges (like 18) are used for procedures requiring rapid infusion or blood donation.
Reference: "Phlebotomy Essentials." Wolters Kluwer, https://www.wolterskluwer.com/en/solutions/ovid/phlebotomy-essentials-7985
D
Explanation:
In routine phlebotomy, the most commonly used needle gauge is 20 or 21. This size is suitable for venipuncture as it allows for efficient blood flow without causing excessive trauma to the vein. Smaller gauges (like 25 or 26) are typically used for intradermal or subcutaneous injections, while larger gauges (like 18) are used for procedures requiring rapid infusion or blood donation.
Reference: "Phlebotomy Essentials." Wolters Kluwer, https://www.wolterskluwer.com/en/solutions/ovid/phlebotomy-essentials-7985
Question #17
Incision into the chest wall is referred to as:
- A . thoracotomy
- B . thoracic
- C . thorax
- D . thoracostomy
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
A thoracotomy is a surgical procedure involving an incision into the chest wall to gain access to the thoracic organs, particularly the lungs and heart. This procedure is performed for various diagnostic and therapeutic reasons, including lung biopsy, tumor removal, or treatment of thoracic injuries. The other terms refer to related but different concepts: Thoracic: Pertaining to the chest.
Thorax: The part of the body between the neck and the abdomen, encasing the chest.
Thoracostomy: The creation of an opening into the chest cavity, often for the insertion of a chest tube.
Reference: "Thoracotomy." Mayo Clinic, https://www.mayoclinic.org/tests-procedures/thoracotomy/about/pac-20385034
A
Explanation:
A thoracotomy is a surgical procedure involving an incision into the chest wall to gain access to the thoracic organs, particularly the lungs and heart. This procedure is performed for various diagnostic and therapeutic reasons, including lung biopsy, tumor removal, or treatment of thoracic injuries. The other terms refer to related but different concepts: Thoracic: Pertaining to the chest.
Thorax: The part of the body between the neck and the abdomen, encasing the chest.
Thoracostomy: The creation of an opening into the chest cavity, often for the insertion of a chest tube.
Reference: "Thoracotomy." Mayo Clinic, https://www.mayoclinic.org/tests-procedures/thoracotomy/about/pac-20385034
Question #18
When applying a cast, the plaster
- A . is applied directly over the skin
- B . is applied over a stockinette
- C . may be applied over an open wound
- D . may be applied before the swelling has gone down
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
When applying a cast, plaster is applied over a stockinette and padding to protect the skin and provide comfort. The stockinette is a soft, stretchable fabric sleeve that prevents direct contact between the plaster and the skin. The padding, often made of cotton or synthetic materials, cushions the area and absorbs any moisture. The other options are incorrect and can lead to complications such as skin irritation or pressure sores.
Reference: "Cast Care Instructions." American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, https://orthoinfo.aaos.org/en/recovery/caring-for-casts-and-splints
B
Explanation:
When applying a cast, plaster is applied over a stockinette and padding to protect the skin and provide comfort. The stockinette is a soft, stretchable fabric sleeve that prevents direct contact between the plaster and the skin. The padding, often made of cotton or synthetic materials, cushions the area and absorbs any moisture. The other options are incorrect and can lead to complications such as skin irritation or pressure sores.
Reference: "Cast Care Instructions." American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, https://orthoinfo.aaos.org/en/recovery/caring-for-casts-and-splints
Question #19
The suffix which means plastic repair is:
- A . orrhaphy
- B . ocentesis
- C . Coplasty
- D . opexy
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
The suffix -oplasty refers to the surgical repair or reconstruction of a part of the body. This term is commonly used in procedures such as rhinoplasty (surgical repair of the nose) and angioplasty (surgical repair of blood vessels). The other suffixes have different meanings: -orrhaphy: Refers to surgical suturing.
-ocentesis: Refers to surgical puncture to remove fluid.
-opexy: Refers to surgical fixation or attachment.
Reference: "Medical Terminology." Merck Manual, https://www.merckmanuals.com/home
C
Explanation:
The suffix -oplasty refers to the surgical repair or reconstruction of a part of the body. This term is commonly used in procedures such as rhinoplasty (surgical repair of the nose) and angioplasty (surgical repair of blood vessels). The other suffixes have different meanings: -orrhaphy: Refers to surgical suturing.
-ocentesis: Refers to surgical puncture to remove fluid.
-opexy: Refers to surgical fixation or attachment.
Reference: "Medical Terminology." Merck Manual, https://www.merckmanuals.com/home
Question #20
Gram staining is done to determine
- A . whether a bacteria is gram
- B . cervical cancer positive or gram negative
- C . the species of the organism
- D . all of the above present
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
Gram staining is a laboratory technique used to classify bacteria based on the characteristics of their cell walls. This method differentiates bacteria into gram-positive (which retain the crystal violet stain and appear purple) and gram-negative (which do not retain the violet stain and appear red after counterstaining). This classification helps in guiding the appropriate antibiotic treatment and understanding the bacterial structure. It does not determine the species of the organism directly, nor is it used to diagnose cervical cancer.
A
Explanation:
Gram staining is a laboratory technique used to classify bacteria based on the characteristics of their cell walls. This method differentiates bacteria into gram-positive (which retain the crystal violet stain and appear purple) and gram-negative (which do not retain the violet stain and appear red after counterstaining). This classification helps in guiding the appropriate antibiotic treatment and understanding the bacterial structure. It does not determine the species of the organism directly, nor is it used to diagnose cervical cancer.
Question #21
A congenital anemia occurring primarily among Black or African Americans which an average of one in ten carry the abnormal gene, is called:
- A . ischemia
- B . angina
- C . sickle cell
- D . trisomy 21
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
Sickle cell anemia is a congenital form of anemia that predominantly affects Black or African American individuals. It is an inherited condition caused by a mutation in the HBB gene, which encodes the beta-globin subunit of hemoglobin. This mutation results in the production of abnormal hemoglobin known as hemoglobin S (HbS). Under low oxygen conditions, HbS causes red blood cells to become rigid and sickle-shaped, leading to various complications including pain, infections, and anemia. Approximately one in ten African Americans carry the gene for sickle cell trait, making it one of the most common genetic disorders in this population.
C
Explanation:
Sickle cell anemia is a congenital form of anemia that predominantly affects Black or African American individuals. It is an inherited condition caused by a mutation in the HBB gene, which encodes the beta-globin subunit of hemoglobin. This mutation results in the production of abnormal hemoglobin known as hemoglobin S (HbS). Under low oxygen conditions, HbS causes red blood cells to become rigid and sickle-shaped, leading to various complications including pain, infections, and anemia. Approximately one in ten African Americans carry the gene for sickle cell trait, making it one of the most common genetic disorders in this population.
Question #22
If poor records are kept and a physician fails to report all of his incc or deductions correctly to the IRS.
he is open to a charge of:
- A . negligence
- B . fraud
- C . dishonesty
- D . suspicion
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
If a physician fails to report all of his income or deductions correctly to the IRS and keeps poor records, he can be charged with fraud. Fraud involves deliberately providing false information to deceive or mislead for financial gain. In the context of tax reporting, this means intentionally failing to report income or claiming deductions that are not legitimate, which can lead to significant legal consequences including fines and imprisonment.
Reference: Internal Revenue Service (IRS). (n.d.). Tax Fraud Alerts. U.S. Department of Justice. (n.d.). Criminal Tax Fraud.
B
Explanation:
If a physician fails to report all of his income or deductions correctly to the IRS and keeps poor records, he can be charged with fraud. Fraud involves deliberately providing false information to deceive or mislead for financial gain. In the context of tax reporting, this means intentionally failing to report income or claiming deductions that are not legitimate, which can lead to significant legal consequences including fines and imprisonment.
Reference: Internal Revenue Service (IRS). (n.d.). Tax Fraud Alerts. U.S. Department of Justice. (n.d.). Criminal Tax Fraud.
Question #23
The suffix which means discharge or flow Is:
- A . ostomy
- B . orrhexis
- C . orrhea
- D . olysis
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
The suffix -orrhea means discharge or flow. It is used in medical terminology to describe an abnormal flow or discharge from a body part or organ. Examples include diarrhea (flow of loose or watery stools) and rhinorrhea (nasal discharge).
Reference: Mosby’s Medical Dictionary (10th ed.). (2017). Elsevier.
Stedman’s Medical Dictionary (28th ed.). (2006). Lippincott Williams & Wilkins.
C
Explanation:
The suffix -orrhea means discharge or flow. It is used in medical terminology to describe an abnormal flow or discharge from a body part or organ. Examples include diarrhea (flow of loose or watery stools) and rhinorrhea (nasal discharge).
Reference: Mosby’s Medical Dictionary (10th ed.). (2017). Elsevier.
Stedman’s Medical Dictionary (28th ed.). (2006). Lippincott Williams & Wilkins.
Question #24
A patient’s financial account Is referred to as:
- A . charge slip
- B . Bimonthly statement
- C . income slip
- D . ledger or ledger card
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
A patient’s financial account is referred to as a ledger or ledger card. This document records all financial transactions related to a patient’s care, including charges, payments, and adjustments. It serves as an essential tool for managing and tracking patient billing and ensuring accurate financial records.
Reference: Kinn’s The Administrative Medical Assistant (13th ed.). (2016). Elsevier.
Medical Assisting: Administrative and Clinical Procedures (8th ed.). (2016). McGraw-Hill Education.
D
Explanation:
A patient’s financial account is referred to as a ledger or ledger card. This document records all financial transactions related to a patient’s care, including charges, payments, and adjustments. It serves as an essential tool for managing and tracking patient billing and ensuring accurate financial records.
Reference: Kinn’s The Administrative Medical Assistant (13th ed.). (2016). Elsevier.
Medical Assisting: Administrative and Clinical Procedures (8th ed.). (2016). McGraw-Hill Education.
Question #24
A patient’s financial account Is referred to as:
- A . charge slip
- B . Bimonthly statement
- C . income slip
- D . ledger or ledger card
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
A patient’s financial account is referred to as a ledger or ledger card. This document records all financial transactions related to a patient’s care, including charges, payments, and adjustments. It serves as an essential tool for managing and tracking patient billing and ensuring accurate financial records.
Reference: Kinn’s The Administrative Medical Assistant (13th ed.). (2016). Elsevier.
Medical Assisting: Administrative and Clinical Procedures (8th ed.). (2016). McGraw-Hill Education.
D
Explanation:
A patient’s financial account is referred to as a ledger or ledger card. This document records all financial transactions related to a patient’s care, including charges, payments, and adjustments. It serves as an essential tool for managing and tracking patient billing and ensuring accurate financial records.
Reference: Kinn’s The Administrative Medical Assistant (13th ed.). (2016). Elsevier.
Medical Assisting: Administrative and Clinical Procedures (8th ed.). (2016). McGraw-Hill Education.
Question #24
A patient’s financial account Is referred to as:
- A . charge slip
- B . Bimonthly statement
- C . income slip
- D . ledger or ledger card
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
A patient’s financial account is referred to as a ledger or ledger card. This document records all financial transactions related to a patient’s care, including charges, payments, and adjustments. It serves as an essential tool for managing and tracking patient billing and ensuring accurate financial records.
Reference: Kinn’s The Administrative Medical Assistant (13th ed.). (2016). Elsevier.
Medical Assisting: Administrative and Clinical Procedures (8th ed.). (2016). McGraw-Hill Education.
D
Explanation:
A patient’s financial account is referred to as a ledger or ledger card. This document records all financial transactions related to a patient’s care, including charges, payments, and adjustments. It serves as an essential tool for managing and tracking patient billing and ensuring accurate financial records.
Reference: Kinn’s The Administrative Medical Assistant (13th ed.). (2016). Elsevier.
Medical Assisting: Administrative and Clinical Procedures (8th ed.). (2016). McGraw-Hill Education.
Question #24
A patient’s financial account Is referred to as:
- A . charge slip
- B . Bimonthly statement
- C . income slip
- D . ledger or ledger card
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
A patient’s financial account is referred to as a ledger or ledger card. This document records all financial transactions related to a patient’s care, including charges, payments, and adjustments. It serves as an essential tool for managing and tracking patient billing and ensuring accurate financial records.
Reference: Kinn’s The Administrative Medical Assistant (13th ed.). (2016). Elsevier.
Medical Assisting: Administrative and Clinical Procedures (8th ed.). (2016). McGraw-Hill Education.
D
Explanation:
A patient’s financial account is referred to as a ledger or ledger card. This document records all financial transactions related to a patient’s care, including charges, payments, and adjustments. It serves as an essential tool for managing and tracking patient billing and ensuring accurate financial records.
Reference: Kinn’s The Administrative Medical Assistant (13th ed.). (2016). Elsevier.
Medical Assisting: Administrative and Clinical Procedures (8th ed.). (2016). McGraw-Hill Education.
Question #24
A patient’s financial account Is referred to as:
- A . charge slip
- B . Bimonthly statement
- C . income slip
- D . ledger or ledger card
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
A patient’s financial account is referred to as a ledger or ledger card. This document records all financial transactions related to a patient’s care, including charges, payments, and adjustments. It serves as an essential tool for managing and tracking patient billing and ensuring accurate financial records.
Reference: Kinn’s The Administrative Medical Assistant (13th ed.). (2016). Elsevier.
Medical Assisting: Administrative and Clinical Procedures (8th ed.). (2016). McGraw-Hill Education.
D
Explanation:
A patient’s financial account is referred to as a ledger or ledger card. This document records all financial transactions related to a patient’s care, including charges, payments, and adjustments. It serves as an essential tool for managing and tracking patient billing and ensuring accurate financial records.
Reference: Kinn’s The Administrative Medical Assistant (13th ed.). (2016). Elsevier.
Medical Assisting: Administrative and Clinical Procedures (8th ed.). (2016). McGraw-Hill Education.
Question #29
call the patient one hour before the appointment
- A . 1,2.3
- B . 2.4
- C . 1,3
- D . 4
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
One effective way to prevent patients from forgetting future appointments is to call them the day before their appointment and use appointment cards. These methods help remind patients of their upcoming appointments, reducing the likelihood of no-shows and improving adherence to scheduled visits.
Reference: Appointment Scheduling and Medical Practice Management. (n.d.). American Medical Association. Practice Management for Healthcare Professionals. (n.d.). Medical Group Management Association (MGMA).
C
Explanation:
One effective way to prevent patients from forgetting future appointments is to call them the day before their appointment and use appointment cards. These methods help remind patients of their upcoming appointments, reducing the likelihood of no-shows and improving adherence to scheduled visits.
Reference: Appointment Scheduling and Medical Practice Management. (n.d.). American Medical Association. Practice Management for Healthcare Professionals. (n.d.). Medical Group Management Association (MGMA).
Question #30
A prefix is the of a word.
- A . ending
- B . beginning
- C . meaning
- D . rool
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
A prefix is a group of letters placed at the beginning of a word to modify its meaning. Prefixes can change the word into a different form of the original word, often changing the meaning significantly. For example, the prefix "un-" added to "happy" forms "unhappy," meaning not happy.
B
Explanation:
A prefix is a group of letters placed at the beginning of a word to modify its meaning. Prefixes can change the word into a different form of the original word, often changing the meaning significantly. For example, the prefix "un-" added to "happy" forms "unhappy," meaning not happy.
Question #30
A prefix is the of a word.
- A . ending
- B . beginning
- C . meaning
- D . rool
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
A prefix is a group of letters placed at the beginning of a word to modify its meaning. Prefixes can change the word into a different form of the original word, often changing the meaning significantly. For example, the prefix "un-" added to "happy" forms "unhappy," meaning not happy.
B
Explanation:
A prefix is a group of letters placed at the beginning of a word to modify its meaning. Prefixes can change the word into a different form of the original word, often changing the meaning significantly. For example, the prefix "un-" added to "happy" forms "unhappy," meaning not happy.
Question #30
A prefix is the of a word.
- A . ending
- B . beginning
- C . meaning
- D . rool
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
A prefix is a group of letters placed at the beginning of a word to modify its meaning. Prefixes can change the word into a different form of the original word, often changing the meaning significantly. For example, the prefix "un-" added to "happy" forms "unhappy," meaning not happy.
B
Explanation:
A prefix is a group of letters placed at the beginning of a word to modify its meaning. Prefixes can change the word into a different form of the original word, often changing the meaning significantly. For example, the prefix "un-" added to "happy" forms "unhappy," meaning not happy.
Question #30
A prefix is the of a word.
- A . ending
- B . beginning
- C . meaning
- D . rool
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
A prefix is a group of letters placed at the beginning of a word to modify its meaning. Prefixes can change the word into a different form of the original word, often changing the meaning significantly. For example, the prefix "un-" added to "happy" forms "unhappy," meaning not happy.
B
Explanation:
A prefix is a group of letters placed at the beginning of a word to modify its meaning. Prefixes can change the word into a different form of the original word, often changing the meaning significantly. For example, the prefix "un-" added to "happy" forms "unhappy," meaning not happy.
Question #30
A prefix is the of a word.
- A . ending
- B . beginning
- C . meaning
- D . rool
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
A prefix is a group of letters placed at the beginning of a word to modify its meaning. Prefixes can change the word into a different form of the original word, often changing the meaning significantly. For example, the prefix "un-" added to "happy" forms "unhappy," meaning not happy.
B
Explanation:
A prefix is a group of letters placed at the beginning of a word to modify its meaning. Prefixes can change the word into a different form of the original word, often changing the meaning significantly. For example, the prefix "un-" added to "happy" forms "unhappy," meaning not happy.
Question #35
Metabolism
- A . 1.Z3
- B . 1.4
- C . 2.4
- D . 4
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
The incorrectly spelled words are:
Annorcxla should be Anorexia
Oitltls should be Otitis
Legdcr should be Ledger
Metabolism is correctly spelled.
Reference: "Commonly Misspelled Medical Terms." Medical Terminology Guide, https://www.medicalterminology.guide/misspelled-terms
A
Explanation:
The incorrectly spelled words are:
Annorcxla should be Anorexia
Oitltls should be Otitis
Legdcr should be Ledger
Metabolism is correctly spelled.
Reference: "Commonly Misspelled Medical Terms." Medical Terminology Guide, https://www.medicalterminology.guide/misspelled-terms
Question #36
Drugs used to prevent the clotting of blood are:
- A . analgesics
- B . tranquilizers
- C . anticoagulants
- D . none of the choices
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
Anticoagulants are medications that prevent blood from clotting. They are commonly prescribed for conditions like atrial fibrillation, deep vein thrombosis, and pulmonary embolism to prevent the formation of harmful clots. Examples of anticoagulants include warfarin, heparin, and direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs).
Analgesics: Used to relieve pain.
Tranquilizers: Used to reduce anxiety or induce sleep.
Reference: "Anticoagulants." MedlinePlus, https://medlineplus.gov/anticoagulants.html
C
Explanation:
Anticoagulants are medications that prevent blood from clotting. They are commonly prescribed for conditions like atrial fibrillation, deep vein thrombosis, and pulmonary embolism to prevent the formation of harmful clots. Examples of anticoagulants include warfarin, heparin, and direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs).
Analgesics: Used to relieve pain.
Tranquilizers: Used to reduce anxiety or induce sleep.
Reference: "Anticoagulants." MedlinePlus, https://medlineplus.gov/anticoagulants.html
Question #37
Which of the following groups sponsor TRICARE formerly known as C HAMPUS?
- A . Blue Cross/Blue Shield
- B . Accidental life
- C . Equitable life
- D . U.S. Military
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
TRICARE, formerly known as CHAMPUS (Civilian Health and Medical Program of the Uniformed Services), is a healthcare program for military members, retirees, and their dependents. It is sponsored by the U.S. Military and provides comprehensive healthcare benefits, including medical, dental, and pharmacy services.
Reference: "TRICARE." Official Website of the Military Health System, https://www.tricare.mil/
D
Explanation:
TRICARE, formerly known as CHAMPUS (Civilian Health and Medical Program of the Uniformed Services), is a healthcare program for military members, retirees, and their dependents. It is sponsored by the U.S. Military and provides comprehensive healthcare benefits, including medical, dental, and pharmacy services.
Reference: "TRICARE." Official Website of the Military Health System, https://www.tricare.mil/
Question #38
Of the following, which could not legally act as an agent for another patient?
- A . the parent of a child
- B . a guardian
- C . a minor for their younger sister
- D . all of the choices
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
A minor typically cannot legally act as an agent for another patient, including their younger siblings, because they are not considered legally competent to make medical decisions. A parent or a legal guardian can act as an agent for a child or a ward, as they have the legal authority to make healthcare decisions on their behalf.
Reference: "Legal Competence and Informed Consent." American Medical Association, https://www.ama-assn.org/delivering-care/patient-support-advocacy/legal-competence-and-informed-consent
C
Explanation:
A minor typically cannot legally act as an agent for another patient, including their younger siblings, because they are not considered legally competent to make medical decisions. A parent or a legal guardian can act as an agent for a child or a ward, as they have the legal authority to make healthcare decisions on their behalf.
Reference: "Legal Competence and Informed Consent." American Medical Association, https://www.ama-assn.org/delivering-care/patient-support-advocacy/legal-competence-and-informed-consent
Question #38
Of the following, which could not legally act as an agent for another patient?
- A . the parent of a child
- B . a guardian
- C . a minor for their younger sister
- D . all of the choices
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
A minor typically cannot legally act as an agent for another patient, including their younger siblings, because they are not considered legally competent to make medical decisions. A parent or a legal guardian can act as an agent for a child or a ward, as they have the legal authority to make healthcare decisions on their behalf.
Reference: "Legal Competence and Informed Consent." American Medical Association, https://www.ama-assn.org/delivering-care/patient-support-advocacy/legal-competence-and-informed-consent
C
Explanation:
A minor typically cannot legally act as an agent for another patient, including their younger siblings, because they are not considered legally competent to make medical decisions. A parent or a legal guardian can act as an agent for a child or a ward, as they have the legal authority to make healthcare decisions on their behalf.
Reference: "Legal Competence and Informed Consent." American Medical Association, https://www.ama-assn.org/delivering-care/patient-support-advocacy/legal-competence-and-informed-consent
Question #38
Of the following, which could not legally act as an agent for another patient?
- A . the parent of a child
- B . a guardian
- C . a minor for their younger sister
- D . all of the choices
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
A minor typically cannot legally act as an agent for another patient, including their younger siblings, because they are not considered legally competent to make medical decisions. A parent or a legal guardian can act as an agent for a child or a ward, as they have the legal authority to make healthcare decisions on their behalf.
Reference: "Legal Competence and Informed Consent." American Medical Association, https://www.ama-assn.org/delivering-care/patient-support-advocacy/legal-competence-and-informed-consent
C
Explanation:
A minor typically cannot legally act as an agent for another patient, including their younger siblings, because they are not considered legally competent to make medical decisions. A parent or a legal guardian can act as an agent for a child or a ward, as they have the legal authority to make healthcare decisions on their behalf.
Reference: "Legal Competence and Informed Consent." American Medical Association, https://www.ama-assn.org/delivering-care/patient-support-advocacy/legal-competence-and-informed-consent
Question #38
Of the following, which could not legally act as an agent for another patient?
- A . the parent of a child
- B . a guardian
- C . a minor for their younger sister
- D . all of the choices
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
A minor typically cannot legally act as an agent for another patient, including their younger siblings, because they are not considered legally competent to make medical decisions. A parent or a legal guardian can act as an agent for a child or a ward, as they have the legal authority to make healthcare decisions on their behalf.
Reference: "Legal Competence and Informed Consent." American Medical Association, https://www.ama-assn.org/delivering-care/patient-support-advocacy/legal-competence-and-informed-consent
C
Explanation:
A minor typically cannot legally act as an agent for another patient, including their younger siblings, because they are not considered legally competent to make medical decisions. A parent or a legal guardian can act as an agent for a child or a ward, as they have the legal authority to make healthcare decisions on their behalf.
Reference: "Legal Competence and Informed Consent." American Medical Association, https://www.ama-assn.org/delivering-care/patient-support-advocacy/legal-competence-and-informed-consent
Question #38
Of the following, which could not legally act as an agent for another patient?
- A . the parent of a child
- B . a guardian
- C . a minor for their younger sister
- D . all of the choices
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
A minor typically cannot legally act as an agent for another patient, including their younger siblings, because they are not considered legally competent to make medical decisions. A parent or a legal guardian can act as an agent for a child or a ward, as they have the legal authority to make healthcare decisions on their behalf.
Reference: "Legal Competence and Informed Consent." American Medical Association, https://www.ama-assn.org/delivering-care/patient-support-advocacy/legal-competence-and-informed-consent
C
Explanation:
A minor typically cannot legally act as an agent for another patient, including their younger siblings, because they are not considered legally competent to make medical decisions. A parent or a legal guardian can act as an agent for a child or a ward, as they have the legal authority to make healthcare decisions on their behalf.
Reference: "Legal Competence and Informed Consent." American Medical Association, https://www.ama-assn.org/delivering-care/patient-support-advocacy/legal-competence-and-informed-consent
Question #43
Metabolism
- A . 1.2.3
- B . 1.4
- C . 2.4
- D . :4
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
The words "Annorexia", "Oititis", and "Legder" are incorrectly spelled.
The correct spellings are:
Anorexia – An eating disorder characterized by an abnormally low body weight and an intense fear of gaining weight.
Otitis – Inflammation or infection of the ear.
Ledger – A book or other collection of financial accounts.
Reference: Mosby’s Medical Dictionary (10th ed.). (2017). Elsevier.
Merriam-Webster Medical Dictionary.
A
Explanation:
The words "Annorexia", "Oititis", and "Legder" are incorrectly spelled.
The correct spellings are:
Anorexia – An eating disorder characterized by an abnormally low body weight and an intense fear of gaining weight.
Otitis – Inflammation or infection of the ear.
Ledger – A book or other collection of financial accounts.
Reference: Mosby’s Medical Dictionary (10th ed.). (2017). Elsevier.
Merriam-Webster Medical Dictionary.
Question #44
A tumor that is Don-progressive and not life threatening is considered:
- A . malignant
- B . sarcoma
- C . benign
- D . adenine
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
A tumor that is non-progressive and not life-threatening is considered benign. Benign tumors do not spread to other parts of the body and generally grow slowly. They are not cancerous and are usually not a threat to life, although they can cause problems if they press on vital organs or tissues.
Reference: American Cancer Society. (n.d.).
What
C
Explanation:
A tumor that is non-progressive and not life-threatening is considered benign. Benign tumors do not spread to other parts of the body and generally grow slowly. They are not cancerous and are usually not a threat to life, although they can cause problems if they press on vital organs or tissues.
Reference: American Cancer Society. (n.d.).
What
Question #45
If a carotid pulse is taken, it is taken at the:
- A . neck
- B . wrist
- C . back of the knee
- D . temporal region
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
A carotid pulse is taken at the neck. The carotid arteries are located on either side of the neck and supply blood to the brain. To check the carotid pulse, one gently places their fingers on the side of the neck, next to the windpipe.
Reference: American Heart Association. (n.d.).
How to Check Your Pulse.
Mayo Clinic. (n.d.). Carotid Artery Disease.
A
Explanation:
A carotid pulse is taken at the neck. The carotid arteries are located on either side of the neck and supply blood to the brain. To check the carotid pulse, one gently places their fingers on the side of the neck, next to the windpipe.
Reference: American Heart Association. (n.d.).
How to Check Your Pulse.
Mayo Clinic. (n.d.). Carotid Artery Disease.
Question #46
Ultrasound should not be used for:
- A . muscle strains
- B . tumors
- C . sprains
- D . none of the choices
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
Ultrasound should not be used for tumors. While ultrasound is effective for diagnosing and monitoring many conditions, it is not typically used as a treatment for tumors. Other modalities like surgery, chemotherapy, or radiation therapy are used for tumor treatment.
B
Explanation:
Ultrasound should not be used for tumors. While ultrasound is effective for diagnosing and monitoring many conditions, it is not typically used as a treatment for tumors. Other modalities like surgery, chemotherapy, or radiation therapy are used for tumor treatment.
Question #47
critical illness resulting in the sudden cessation of kidney function is known as:
- A . renal failure
- B . polycystic kidney
- C . pyelonephritis
- D . spastic colon
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
A critical illness resulting in the sudden cessation of kidney function is known as renal failure. Acute renal failure, or acute kidney injury, can occur suddenly and can be life-threatening if not treated promptly. It requires immediate medical intervention to restore kidney function and maintain overall health.
A
Explanation:
A critical illness resulting in the sudden cessation of kidney function is known as renal failure. Acute renal failure, or acute kidney injury, can occur suddenly and can be life-threatening if not treated promptly. It requires immediate medical intervention to restore kidney function and maintain overall health.
Question #48
The word part megalo means:
- A . above
- B . below
- C . large
- D . small
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
The word part megalo- is a prefix that means large or enlarged. It is often used in medical terminology to describe abnormal enlargement of an organ or part, as in megalocardia (enlargement of the heart) or hepatomegaly (enlargement of the liver).
Reference: "Understanding Medical Words: A Tutorial from the National Library of Medicine." National Library of Medicine, https://medlineplus.gov/appendixa.html
C
Explanation:
The word part megalo- is a prefix that means large or enlarged. It is often used in medical terminology to describe abnormal enlargement of an organ or part, as in megalocardia (enlargement of the heart) or hepatomegaly (enlargement of the liver).
Reference: "Understanding Medical Words: A Tutorial from the National Library of Medicine." National Library of Medicine, https://medlineplus.gov/appendixa.html
Question #49
A metabolic bone disorder affecting primarily postmenopausal women and is characterized by the loss of calcium and phosphate from the bone:
- A . scoliosis
- B . kyphosis
- C . osteoporosis
- D . sprain
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
Osteoporosis is a metabolic bone disorder characterized by the loss of bone density and strength due to the depletion of calcium and phosphate. This condition primarily affects postmenopausal women because the decrease in estrogen levels during menopause accelerates bone loss. Osteoporosis makes bones more fragile and susceptible to fractures. Scoliosis: A sideways curvature of the spine.
Kyphosis: An excessive outward curvature of the spine, leading to a hunchback appearance.
C
Explanation:
Osteoporosis is a metabolic bone disorder characterized by the loss of bone density and strength due to the depletion of calcium and phosphate. This condition primarily affects postmenopausal women because the decrease in estrogen levels during menopause accelerates bone loss. Osteoporosis makes bones more fragile and susceptible to fractures. Scoliosis: A sideways curvature of the spine.
Kyphosis: An excessive outward curvature of the spine, leading to a hunchback appearance.
Question #50
The type of physician that would diagnose and treat diseases and malfunctions of the glands of internal secretion is a(n).
- A . Gynecologist
- B . Gastroenterologist
- C . Endocrinologist
- D . Urologist
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
An Endocrinologist is a physician specializing in diagnosing and treating diseases and malfunctions of the endocrine glands, which secrete hormones directly into the bloodstream. These glands include the thyroid, adrenal, pancreas, pituitary, and others. Endocrinologists manage conditions such as diabetes, thyroid disorders, and hormonal imbalances. Gynecologist: Specializes in women’s reproductive health.
Gastroenterologist: Specializes in the digestive system.
Urologist: Specializes in the urinary system and male reproductive organs.
Reference: "What is an Endocrinologist?" Hormone Health Network, https://www.hormone.org/your-health-and-hormones/what-is-an-endocrinologist
C
Explanation:
An Endocrinologist is a physician specializing in diagnosing and treating diseases and malfunctions of the endocrine glands, which secrete hormones directly into the bloodstream. These glands include the thyroid, adrenal, pancreas, pituitary, and others. Endocrinologists manage conditions such as diabetes, thyroid disorders, and hormonal imbalances. Gynecologist: Specializes in women’s reproductive health.
Gastroenterologist: Specializes in the digestive system.
Urologist: Specializes in the urinary system and male reproductive organs.
Reference: "What is an Endocrinologist?" Hormone Health Network, https://www.hormone.org/your-health-and-hormones/what-is-an-endocrinologist
Question #51
The collar bone, a slender bone, one on each side of the body, connecting the breastbone to each shoulder is called the:
- A . scapula
- B . acromion
- C . clavicle
- D . none of the above
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
The clavicle, commonly known as the collar bone, is a slender bone that runs horizontally between the top of the breastbone (sternum) and the shoulder blade (scapula) on each side of the body. It serves as a strut to keep the scapula in place, allowing the arm to hang freely. Scapula: Also known as the shoulder blade, located at the back.
Acromion: The bony process on the scapula.
Reference: "Clavicle Anatomy." MedlinePlus, https://medlineplus.gov/ency/article/002307.htm
C
Explanation:
The clavicle, commonly known as the collar bone, is a slender bone that runs horizontally between the top of the breastbone (sternum) and the shoulder blade (scapula) on each side of the body. It serves as a strut to keep the scapula in place, allowing the arm to hang freely. Scapula: Also known as the shoulder blade, located at the back.
Acromion: The bony process on the scapula.
Reference: "Clavicle Anatomy." MedlinePlus, https://medlineplus.gov/ency/article/002307.htm
Question #52
Which of the following needles has the widest lumen?
- A . 19 gauge
- B . 421 gauge
- C . #22 gauge
- D . #26 gauge
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
The gauge of a needle refers to its diameter, with a lower gauge number indicating a larger diameter. Therefore, a 19 gauge needle has the widest lumen among the options given.
It is commonly used for rapid blood transfusions or for drawing viscous fluids.
21 gauge: Smaller lumen than 19 gauge.
22 gauge: Smaller lumen than 21 gauge.
26 gauge: Smallest lumen of the options listed.
Reference: "Needle Gauge Chart." American Society for Apheresis, https://www.apheresis.org/Needle-Gauge-Chart
A
Explanation:
The gauge of a needle refers to its diameter, with a lower gauge number indicating a larger diameter. Therefore, a 19 gauge needle has the widest lumen among the options given.
It is commonly used for rapid blood transfusions or for drawing viscous fluids.
21 gauge: Smaller lumen than 19 gauge.
22 gauge: Smaller lumen than 21 gauge.
26 gauge: Smallest lumen of the options listed.
Reference: "Needle Gauge Chart." American Society for Apheresis, https://www.apheresis.org/Needle-Gauge-Chart
Question #53
When one encounters a baffling term you should:
- A . try to pronouiKe it
- B . ask a co-worker
- C . consult a dictionary
- D . write it down several times
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
When encountering a baffling term, the best course of action is to consult a dictionary. This ensures that the term is understood correctly, including its pronunciation, meaning, and usage. In a medical setting, accuracy is crucial, and referring to a reliable source like a medical dictionary helps prevent misunderstandings and errors.
C
Explanation:
When encountering a baffling term, the best course of action is to consult a dictionary. This ensures that the term is understood correctly, including its pronunciation, meaning, and usage. In a medical setting, accuracy is crucial, and referring to a reliable source like a medical dictionary helps prevent misunderstandings and errors.
Question #54
Galactose is a product of the digestion of:
- A . milk
- B . meal
- C . breads
- D . vegetables
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
Galactose is a simple sugar that is a product of the digestion of milk. Lactose, the sugar found in milk, is broken down into glucose and galactose by the enzyme lactase. This process occurs in the small intestine, allowing these sugars to be absorbed into the bloodstream.
A
Explanation:
Galactose is a simple sugar that is a product of the digestion of milk. Lactose, the sugar found in milk, is broken down into glucose and galactose by the enzyme lactase. This process occurs in the small intestine, allowing these sugars to be absorbed into the bloodstream.
Question #55
What is the latest date an employer may give the employee the W-2 form?
- A . bi-weekly
- B . by April 15th
- C . by January 31st
- D . none of the choices
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
The latest date an employer may give the employee the W-2 form is by January 31st of the following year. This form reports an employee’s annual wages and the amount of taxes withheld from their paycheck, which is necessary for the employee to complete their annual tax return.
C
Explanation:
The latest date an employer may give the employee the W-2 form is by January 31st of the following year. This form reports an employee’s annual wages and the amount of taxes withheld from their paycheck, which is necessary for the employee to complete their annual tax return.
Question #56
The most common positions for chest x-rays are:
- A . PA and lateral
- B . lateral
- C . lateral and oblique
- D . PA and AP
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
The most common positions for chest x-rays are PA (posteroanterior) and lateral. These positions provide a comprehensive view of the chest, including the lungs, heart, and bones, and help in diagnosing conditions such as pneumonia, heart failure, and fractures.
A
Explanation:
The most common positions for chest x-rays are PA (posteroanterior) and lateral. These positions provide a comprehensive view of the chest, including the lungs, heart, and bones, and help in diagnosing conditions such as pneumonia, heart failure, and fractures.
Question #57
An unacceptable procedure for a fainting victim is:
- A . pour water over the victim’s
- B . loosen tight clothing face
- C . examine the victim for
- D . leave the victim lying down injuries
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
An unacceptable procedure for a fainting victim is to pour water over the victim’s face. This action can cause further distress and does not address the underlying cause of fainting. Instead, appropriate measures include loosening tight clothing, checking for injuries, and keeping the victim lying down until they recover.
Reference: American Heart Association. (n.d.). First Aid Guidelines.
Mayo Clinic. (n.d.). Fainting: First Aid.
A
Explanation:
An unacceptable procedure for a fainting victim is to pour water over the victim’s face. This action can cause further distress and does not address the underlying cause of fainting. Instead, appropriate measures include loosening tight clothing, checking for injuries, and keeping the victim lying down until they recover.
Reference: American Heart Association. (n.d.). First Aid Guidelines.
Mayo Clinic. (n.d.). Fainting: First Aid.
Question #58
When autoclaving instruments, the timing period begins:
- A . when adequate pressure has
- B . when the instruments are built up
- C . placed in the autoclave and the door is sealed when the proper
- D . both a and c temperature has been reached
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
Autoclaving is a sterilization process that uses high-pressure saturated steam, and proper timing ensures the complete elimination of all microorganisms on the instruments.
Reference: Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC). (n.d.). Guidelines for Disinfection and Sterilization in Healthcare Facilities.
Rutala, W. A., & Weber, D. J. (2019). Disinfection, Sterilization, and Antisepsis: Principles, Practices, Current Issues, New Research, and New Technologies. Association for Professionals in Infection Control and Epidemiology (APIC).
D
Explanation:
Autoclaving is a sterilization process that uses high-pressure saturated steam, and proper timing ensures the complete elimination of all microorganisms on the instruments.
Reference: Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC). (n.d.). Guidelines for Disinfection and Sterilization in Healthcare Facilities.
Rutala, W. A., & Weber, D. J. (2019). Disinfection, Sterilization, and Antisepsis: Principles, Practices, Current Issues, New Research, and New Technologies. Association for Professionals in Infection Control and Epidemiology (APIC).
Question #59
Insulin is secreted directly into the bloodstream by what organ?
- A . gallbladder
- B . colon
- C . pancreas
- D . liver
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
The pancreas is the organ responsible for secreting insulin directly into the bloodstream. Insulin is a hormone that regulates blood glucose levels by facilitating the uptake of glucose into cells for energy production or storage as glycogen. The pancreas contains clusters of cells known as the islets of Langerhans, which include beta cells that produce insulin. Gallbladder: Stores bile produced by the liver.
Colon: Part of the large intestine, involved in water absorption and feces formation.
Liver: Produces bile, detoxifies substances, and stores glycogen, but does not produce insulin.
Reference: "Insulin and Glucagon." National Institute of Diabetes and Digestive and Kidney Diseases, https://www.niddk.nih.gov/health-information/diabetes/overview/insulin-glucagon
C
Explanation:
The pancreas is the organ responsible for secreting insulin directly into the bloodstream. Insulin is a hormone that regulates blood glucose levels by facilitating the uptake of glucose into cells for energy production or storage as glycogen. The pancreas contains clusters of cells known as the islets of Langerhans, which include beta cells that produce insulin. Gallbladder: Stores bile produced by the liver.
Colon: Part of the large intestine, involved in water absorption and feces formation.
Liver: Produces bile, detoxifies substances, and stores glycogen, but does not produce insulin.
Reference: "Insulin and Glucagon." National Institute of Diabetes and Digestive and Kidney Diseases, https://www.niddk.nih.gov/health-information/diabetes/overview/insulin-glucagon
Question #60
An agent which affects blood pressure by increasing the flow of urine and thus reducing the volume of fluid In the body Is called:
- A . emetic
- B . diuretic
- C . depressant
- D . cathartic
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
A diuretic is an agent that increases the flow of urine, thereby reducing the volume of fluid in the body and affecting blood pressure. Diuretics are commonly used to treat hypertension, heart failure, and edema. By promoting the excretion of sodium and water, they help decrease blood volume and lower blood pressure.
Emetic: An agent that induces vomiting.
Depressant: A substance that slows down the central nervous system.
Cathartic: A substance that accelerates defecation.
Reference: "Diuretics." American Heart Association, https://www.heart.org/en/health-topics/high-blood-pressure/high-blood-pressure-medications/diuretics
B
Explanation:
A diuretic is an agent that increases the flow of urine, thereby reducing the volume of fluid in the body and affecting blood pressure. Diuretics are commonly used to treat hypertension, heart failure, and edema. By promoting the excretion of sodium and water, they help decrease blood volume and lower blood pressure.
Emetic: An agent that induces vomiting.
Depressant: A substance that slows down the central nervous system.
Cathartic: A substance that accelerates defecation.
Reference: "Diuretics." American Heart Association, https://www.heart.org/en/health-topics/high-blood-pressure/high-blood-pressure-medications/diuretics
Question #61
Pathology is the:
- A . study of paths
- B . study of disease
- C . process of disease
- D . remission of disease
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
Pathology is the study of disease, including its causes, processes, development, and consequences. Pathologists examine tissues, organs, bodily fluids, and autopsies to understand disease mechanisms and assist in diagnosis and treatment. The field encompasses several branches, such as clinical pathology, anatomical pathology, and forensic pathology. Study of paths: Not relevant in medical terminology.
Process of disease: Part of pathology but not a complete definition.
Remission of disease: Refers to the reduction or disappearance of symptoms, not the study.
Reference: "What is Pathology?" College of American Pathologists, https://www.cap.org/member-resources/articles/what-is-pathology
B
Explanation:
Pathology is the study of disease, including its causes, processes, development, and consequences. Pathologists examine tissues, organs, bodily fluids, and autopsies to understand disease mechanisms and assist in diagnosis and treatment. The field encompasses several branches, such as clinical pathology, anatomical pathology, and forensic pathology. Study of paths: Not relevant in medical terminology.
Process of disease: Part of pathology but not a complete definition.
Remission of disease: Refers to the reduction or disappearance of symptoms, not the study.
Reference: "What is Pathology?" College of American Pathologists, https://www.cap.org/member-resources/articles/what-is-pathology
Question #62
A patient calls the office and states they have received a blunt injury to the eye.
You should advise them to:
- A . do nothing unless the eye is very swollen
- B . come in as soon as possible to have the eye checked
- C . apply heat
- D . rub the eye to be sure there is nothing in it
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
If a patient calls the office stating they have received a blunt injury to the eye, it is essential to advise them to come in as soon as possible to have the eye checked. Eye injuries can lead to serious complications, including vision loss, if not promptly evaluated and treated by a healthcare professional. Delaying treatment or improper self-care, such as applying heat or rubbing the eye, can exacerbate the injury.
Do nothing unless the eye is very swollen: Incorrect, as internal damage may occur without visible swelling.
Apply heat: Incorrect, as it may worsen inflammation.
Rub the eye to be sure there is nothing in it: Incorrect, as it can cause further injury.
Reference: "Eye Injuries." American Academy of Ophthalmology, https://www.aao.org/eye-health/tips-prevention/injuries
B
Explanation:
If a patient calls the office stating they have received a blunt injury to the eye, it is essential to advise them to come in as soon as possible to have the eye checked. Eye injuries can lead to serious complications, including vision loss, if not promptly evaluated and treated by a healthcare professional. Delaying treatment or improper self-care, such as applying heat or rubbing the eye, can exacerbate the injury.
Do nothing unless the eye is very swollen: Incorrect, as internal damage may occur without visible swelling.
Apply heat: Incorrect, as it may worsen inflammation.
Rub the eye to be sure there is nothing in it: Incorrect, as it can cause further injury.
Reference: "Eye Injuries." American Academy of Ophthalmology, https://www.aao.org/eye-health/tips-prevention/injuries
Question #63
A seizure disorder affecting 1 to 2 percent of the population and is associated with electrical impulses from the neurons of the brain is: 66.
When collecting specimens for a white blood count you would use a tube that contained
- A . encephalitis
- B . bell’s palsy
- C . epilepsy
- D . meningitis
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
Epilepsy is a seizure disorder affecting 1 to 2 percent of the population and is associated with abnormal electrical impulses from the neurons in the brain. These abnormal impulses cause recurrent, unprovoked seizures. The severity and type of seizures can vary widely among individuals, ranging from brief lapses in attention or muscle jerks to severe and prolonged convulsions. Diagnosis typically involves an electroencephalogram (EEG) to detect abnormal brain activity, along with imaging tests like MRI or CT scans.
Reference: National Institute of Neurological Disorders and Stroke (NINDS). (n.d.). Epilepsy Information Page. Epilepsy Foundation. (n.d.). About Epilepsy: The Basics.
C
Explanation:
Epilepsy is a seizure disorder affecting 1 to 2 percent of the population and is associated with abnormal electrical impulses from the neurons in the brain. These abnormal impulses cause recurrent, unprovoked seizures. The severity and type of seizures can vary widely among individuals, ranging from brief lapses in attention or muscle jerks to severe and prolonged convulsions. Diagnosis typically involves an electroencephalogram (EEG) to detect abnormal brain activity, along with imaging tests like MRI or CT scans.
Reference: National Institute of Neurological Disorders and Stroke (NINDS). (n.d.). Epilepsy Information Page. Epilepsy Foundation. (n.d.). About Epilepsy: The Basics.
Question #64
A lipid profile includes testing for:
- A . serum
- B . a substance to enhance coagulation
- C . EDI A asan anticoagulant
- D . sterile water
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
When collecting specimens for a white blood count (WBC), you would use a tube that contains EDTA (ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid) as an anticoagulant. EDTA prevents blood from clotting by binding calcium ions, which is crucial for maintaining the integrity of the blood sample for accurate WBC analysis.
C
Explanation:
When collecting specimens for a white blood count (WBC), you would use a tube that contains EDTA (ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid) as an anticoagulant. EDTA prevents blood from clotting by binding calcium ions, which is crucial for maintaining the integrity of the blood sample for accurate WBC analysis.
Question #65
The word part which means joint is
- A . Azcarpo
- B . costo
- C . Gar thro
- D . join to
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
The word part which means joint is arthro. This prefix is used in medical terminology to refer to joints, as seen in words like arthritis (inflammation of the joints) and arthroscopy (a procedure to look inside a joint).
Reference: Mosby’s Medical Dictionary (10th ed.). (2017). Elsevier.
Stedman’s Medical Dictionary (28th ed.). (2006). Lippincott Williams & Wilkins.
C
Explanation:
The word part which means joint is arthro. This prefix is used in medical terminology to refer to joints, as seen in words like arthritis (inflammation of the joints) and arthroscopy (a procedure to look inside a joint).
Reference: Mosby’s Medical Dictionary (10th ed.). (2017). Elsevier.
Stedman’s Medical Dictionary (28th ed.). (2006). Lippincott Williams & Wilkins.
Question #66
A simples sugar to which all forms of carbohydrates arc ultimately converted is:
- A . sucrose
- B . glucose
- C . galactose
- D . maltose
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
A simple sugar to which all forms of carbohydrates are ultimately converted is glucose. Glucose is the primary source of energy for the body’s cells and is transported in the blood to be used immediately or stored for later use. Carbohydrates from foods are broken down into glucose during digestion.
Reference: National Institute of Diabetes and Digestive and Kidney Diseases (NIDDK). (n.d.). Carbohydrates and Blood Sugar.
Lehninger,
B
Explanation:
A simple sugar to which all forms of carbohydrates are ultimately converted is glucose. Glucose is the primary source of energy for the body’s cells and is transported in the blood to be used immediately or stored for later use. Carbohydrates from foods are broken down into glucose during digestion.
Reference: National Institute of Diabetes and Digestive and Kidney Diseases (NIDDK). (n.d.). Carbohydrates and Blood Sugar.
Lehninger,
Question #67
The term self refers to:
- A . iatro
- B . auto
- C . ana
- D . endo
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
The term self refers to auto. This prefix is used in medical terminology to denote self or same, as seen in words like autoimmune (where the immune system attacks the body’s own cells) and autopsy (self-examination of a body after death).
Reference: Mosby’s Medical Dictionary (10th ed.). (2017). Elsevier.
Stedman’s Medical Dictionary (28th ed.). (2006). Lippincott Williams & Wilkins.
B
Explanation:
The term self refers to auto. This prefix is used in medical terminology to denote self or same, as seen in words like autoimmune (where the immune system attacks the body’s own cells) and autopsy (self-examination of a body after death).
Reference: Mosby’s Medical Dictionary (10th ed.). (2017). Elsevier.
Stedman’s Medical Dictionary (28th ed.). (2006). Lippincott Williams & Wilkins.
Question #68
The medical term for nose bleed is:
- A . exudate
- B . epistaxis
- C . hemoptysis
- D . hematemesis
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
The medical term for a nosebleed is epistaxis. It refers to bleeding from the nose, which can result from a variety of causes including trauma, dry air, high blood pressure, or underlying medical conditions.
Reference: Mayo Clinic. (n.d.). Nosebleeds (Epistaxis).
B
Explanation:
The medical term for a nosebleed is epistaxis. It refers to bleeding from the nose, which can result from a variety of causes including trauma, dry air, high blood pressure, or underlying medical conditions.
Reference: Mayo Clinic. (n.d.). Nosebleeds (Epistaxis).
Question #69
A patient in the supine position is
- A . lying face down
- B . Belying on the left side with the right leg flexed
- C . dying on the right side with the left leg flexed
- D . lying flat on their back with palms and face up
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
A patient in the supine position is lying flat on their back with their palms and face up. This position is commonly used during surgeries and medical examinations as it provides easy access to the patient’s anterior body, including the chest and abdomen. Lying face down: This is known as the prone position.
Lying on the left side with the right leg flexed: This is often referred to as the left lateral or left Sims’ position.
Lying on the right side with the left leg flexed: This is the right lateral or right Sims’ position.
Reference: "Patient Positioning." MedlinePlus, https://medlineplus.gov/ency/patientinstructions/000436.htm
D
Explanation:
A patient in the supine position is lying flat on their back with their palms and face up. This position is commonly used during surgeries and medical examinations as it provides easy access to the patient’s anterior body, including the chest and abdomen. Lying face down: This is known as the prone position.
Lying on the left side with the right leg flexed: This is often referred to as the left lateral or left Sims’ position.
Lying on the right side with the left leg flexed: This is the right lateral or right Sims’ position.
Reference: "Patient Positioning." MedlinePlus, https://medlineplus.gov/ency/patientinstructions/000436.htm
Question #70
A papanlcolaou smear is used to:
- A . detect abnormal menses
- B . detect cervical cancer
- C . determine fertility
- D . determine pregnancy
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
A Papanicolaou smear, commonly known as a Pap smear, is a test used to detect cervical cancer. It involves collecting cells from the cervix to look for precancerous or cancerous changes. This test can also detect other cervical abnormalities, such as infections or inflammation, but its primary purpose is early detection of cervical cancer.
Detect abnormal menses: Not related to Pap smears.
Determine fertility: Not related to Pap smears.
Determine pregnancy: Not related to Pap smears.
Reference: "Pap Smear." Mayo Clinic, https://www.mayoclinic.org/tests-procedures/pap-smear/about/pac-20394841
B
Explanation:
A Papanicolaou smear, commonly known as a Pap smear, is a test used to detect cervical cancer. It involves collecting cells from the cervix to look for precancerous or cancerous changes. This test can also detect other cervical abnormalities, such as infections or inflammation, but its primary purpose is early detection of cervical cancer.
Detect abnormal menses: Not related to Pap smears.
Determine fertility: Not related to Pap smears.
Determine pregnancy: Not related to Pap smears.
Reference: "Pap Smear." Mayo Clinic, https://www.mayoclinic.org/tests-procedures/pap-smear/about/pac-20394841
Question #71
A governmental agency having the legal responsibility for enforcing proper drug manufacture and clinical use is called:
- A . National Formulary
- B . Food and Drug Administration
- C . The Department of 1 lealth
- D . National Drug Abuse Administration
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is the U.S. governmental agency responsible for enforcing laws and regulations related to the manufacture, marketing, and clinical use of drugs, medical devices, and food products. The FDA ensures that these products are safe, effective, and properly labeled.
National Formulary: A publication that lists medications and their standards.
The Department of Health: General reference to various health departments, not specifically responsible for drug enforcement.
National Drug Abuse Administration: Not a correct agency name; it might refer to the Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration (SAMHSA) or the Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA).
Reference: "About the FDA." U.S. Food and Drug Administration, https://www.fda.gov/about-fda
B
Explanation:
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is the U.S. governmental agency responsible for enforcing laws and regulations related to the manufacture, marketing, and clinical use of drugs, medical devices, and food products. The FDA ensures that these products are safe, effective, and properly labeled.
National Formulary: A publication that lists medications and their standards.
The Department of Health: General reference to various health departments, not specifically responsible for drug enforcement.
National Drug Abuse Administration: Not a correct agency name; it might refer to the Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration (SAMHSA) or the Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA).
Reference: "About the FDA." U.S. Food and Drug Administration, https://www.fda.gov/about-fda
Question #72
The suffix which means pain is:
- A . olgia
- B . ectomy
- C . algia
- D . ilgia
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
The suffix -algia means pain. It is used in medical terminology to describe pain in a specific part of the body, such as in "neuralgia" (nerve pain) or "myalgia" (muscle pain).
-ectomy: Refers to the surgical removal of a part of the body, as in "appendectomy."
algia: Correct suffix meaning pain.
olgía and ilgia: Incorrect and not used in medical terminology.
Reference: "Medical Terminology." Merck Manual,
https://www.merckmanuals.com/professional/appendixes/medical-terminology-suffixes
C
Explanation:
The suffix -algia means pain. It is used in medical terminology to describe pain in a specific part of the body, such as in "neuralgia" (nerve pain) or "myalgia" (muscle pain).
-ectomy: Refers to the surgical removal of a part of the body, as in "appendectomy."
algia: Correct suffix meaning pain.
olgía and ilgia: Incorrect and not used in medical terminology.
Reference: "Medical Terminology." Merck Manual,
https://www.merckmanuals.com/professional/appendixes/medical-terminology-suffixes
Question #73
The word indicating the date medical insurance coverage begins is:
- A . exclusionary
- B . lapse
- C . effective
- D . carrier
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
The effective date in medical insurance terminology refers to the date when insurance coverage begins. This is the starting point from which the policyholder is eligible to receive benefits under their insurance plan.
Exclusionary: Refers to conditions or treatments not covered by the insurance.
Lapse: Refers to the termination of a policy due to non-payment or other reasons.
Carrier: Refers to the insurance company providing the coverage.
Reference: "Understanding Health Insurance." Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services, https://www.cms.gov/CCIIO/Resources/Files/Downloads/uniform-glossary-
C
Explanation:
The effective date in medical insurance terminology refers to the date when insurance coverage begins. This is the starting point from which the policyholder is eligible to receive benefits under their insurance plan.
Exclusionary: Refers to conditions or treatments not covered by the insurance.
Lapse: Refers to the termination of a policy due to non-payment or other reasons.
Carrier: Refers to the insurance company providing the coverage.
Reference: "Understanding Health Insurance." Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services, https://www.cms.gov/CCIIO/Resources/Files/Downloads/uniform-glossary-
Question #74
In order to inflate the blood pressure cuff the valve is turned:
- A . counter-clockwise
- B . not turned
- C . active immunity deficiency sickness
- D . none of the choices
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
In order to inflate the blood pressure cuff, the valve is not turned initially, meaning it should be closed to build up pressure. Once the cuff is inflated to the desired level, the valve is then gradually opened (usually turned counter-clockwise) to slowly release the air and measure the blood pressure.
Reference: American Heart Association. (n.d.).
How to Measure Blood Pressure Using a Manual Monitor.
Mayo Clinic. (n.d.). Blood Pressure Test.
B
Explanation:
In order to inflate the blood pressure cuff, the valve is not turned initially, meaning it should be closed to build up pressure. Once the cuff is inflated to the desired level, the valve is then gradually opened (usually turned counter-clockwise) to slowly release the air and measure the blood pressure.
Reference: American Heart Association. (n.d.).
How to Measure Blood Pressure Using a Manual Monitor.
Mayo Clinic. (n.d.). Blood Pressure Test.
Question #75
AIDS, are the initials for:
- A . acquired immune deficiency syndrome
- B . arthritic immune deficiency syndrome
- C . clockwise
- D . none of the above
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
AIDS stands for acquired immune deficiency syndrome. It is a chronic, potentially life-threatening condition caused by the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). By damaging the immune system, HIV interferes with the body’s ability to fight infections and disease.
Reference: Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC). (n.d.). About HIV/AIDS.
World Health Organization (WHO). (n.d.). HIV/AIDS.
A
Explanation:
AIDS stands for acquired immune deficiency syndrome. It is a chronic, potentially life-threatening condition caused by the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). By damaging the immune system, HIV interferes with the body’s ability to fight infections and disease.
Reference: Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC). (n.d.). About HIV/AIDS.
World Health Organization (WHO). (n.d.). HIV/AIDS.
Question #76
The abbreviation for immediately is
- A . Rx
- B . IMM
- C . IMI
- D . SIAI
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
The abbreviation for immediately is STAT. This term is used in medical contexts to indicate that an action is to be taken immediately, derived from the Latin word "statim."
Reference: Mosby’s Medical Dictionary (10th ed.). (2017). Elsevier.
Stedman’s Medical Abbreviations, Acronyms & Symbols (5th ed.). (2013). Lippincott Williams & Wilkins.
D
Explanation:
The abbreviation for immediately is STAT. This term is used in medical contexts to indicate that an action is to be taken immediately, derived from the Latin word "statim."
Reference: Mosby’s Medical Dictionary (10th ed.). (2017). Elsevier.
Stedman’s Medical Abbreviations, Acronyms & Symbols (5th ed.). (2013). Lippincott Williams & Wilkins.
Question #77
Osteo means:
- A . bone
- B . cartilage
- C . joint
- D . knee
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
The prefix osteo- means bone. This prefix is used in medical terminology to refer to conditions and structures related to bones, such as osteoarthritis (a type of arthritis that affects bones and joints) and osteoporosis (a condition where bones become weak and brittle).
Reference: Mosby’s Medical Dictionary (10th ed.). (2017). Elsevier.
Stedman’s Medical Dictionary (28th ed.). (2006). Lippincott Williams & Wilkins.
A
Explanation:
The prefix osteo- means bone. This prefix is used in medical terminology to refer to conditions and structures related to bones, such as osteoarthritis (a type of arthritis that affects bones and joints) and osteoporosis (a condition where bones become weak and brittle).
Reference: Mosby’s Medical Dictionary (10th ed.). (2017). Elsevier.
Stedman’s Medical Dictionary (28th ed.). (2006). Lippincott Williams & Wilkins.
Question #78
When using a microscope with a 10X ocular and the 40X objective in place, the total magnification is
- A . 50X
- B . 40X
- C . 30X
- D . 400X
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
When using a microscope with a 10X ocular lens and a 40X objective lens in place, the total magnification is 400X. This is calculated by multiplying the magnification of the ocular lens by the magnification of the objective lens (10X * 40X = 400X).
D
Explanation:
When using a microscope with a 10X ocular lens and a 40X objective lens in place, the total magnification is 400X. This is calculated by multiplying the magnification of the ocular lens by the magnification of the objective lens (10X * 40X = 400X).
Question #79
The abbreviation for immediately is
- A . Rx
- B . IMM
- C . IMI
- D . SIAI
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
The abbreviation for "immediately" in medical terminology is "SIAI", which stands for "Statim" or "stat," a term used to indicate urgency. The use of "stat" comes from the Latin word "statim," meaning "immediately." This is a common term used in medical settings to convey the need for immediate action or treatment. The other options (Rx, IMM, IMI) do not represent the abbreviation for immediately.
Reference: Nationally Registered Certified Medical Assistant study materials and medical terminology references.
D
Explanation:
The abbreviation for "immediately" in medical terminology is "SIAI", which stands for "Statim" or "stat," a term used to indicate urgency. The use of "stat" comes from the Latin word "statim," meaning "immediately." This is a common term used in medical settings to convey the need for immediate action or treatment. The other options (Rx, IMM, IMI) do not represent the abbreviation for immediately.
Reference: Nationally Registered Certified Medical Assistant study materials and medical terminology references.
Question #80
Osteo means:
- A . bone
- B . cartilage
- C . joint
- D . knee
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
The prefix "osteo-" comes from the Greek word "osteon," meaning bone. It is commonly used in medical terminology to refer to bones or bone-related conditions. For example, osteoporosis (a condition characterized by weakened bones) and osteoarthritis (a type of arthritis that affects the bones and joints).
Reference: Nationally Registered Certified Medical Assistant study materials and standard medical dictionaries.
A
Explanation:
The prefix "osteo-" comes from the Greek word "osteon," meaning bone. It is commonly used in medical terminology to refer to bones or bone-related conditions. For example, osteoporosis (a condition characterized by weakened bones) and osteoarthritis (a type of arthritis that affects the bones and joints).
Reference: Nationally Registered Certified Medical Assistant study materials and standard medical dictionaries.
Question #81
When using a microscope with a 10X ocular and the 40X objective in place, the total magnification is
- A . 50X
- B . 40X
- C . 30X
- D . 400X
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
When using a microscope, the total magnification is calculated by multiplying the magnification power of the ocular lens (eyepiece) by the magnification power of the objective lens. In this case, a 10X ocular lens combined with a 40X objective lens results in a total magnification of 400X (10X * 40X = 400X).
Reference: Nationally Registered Certified Medical Assistant study materials on microscopy.
D
Explanation:
When using a microscope, the total magnification is calculated by multiplying the magnification power of the ocular lens (eyepiece) by the magnification power of the objective lens. In this case, a 10X ocular lens combined with a 40X objective lens results in a total magnification of 400X (10X * 40X = 400X).
Reference: Nationally Registered Certified Medical Assistant study materials on microscopy.
Question #82
On a normal EKG tracing, the first wave to show a downward deflection is a:
- A . P wave
- B . Rwave
- C . Swave
- D . Qwave
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
On a normal EKG (electrocardiogram) tracing, the first wave to show a downward deflection is the Q wave. The EKG tracing consists of several waves: the P wave (representing atrial depolarization), the QRS complex (representing ventricular depolarization), and the T wave (representing ventricular repolarization). The Q wave is the initial negative deflection after the P wave and before the R wave in the QRS complex.
Reference: Nationally Registered Certified Medical Assistant study materials and standard cardiology references.
D
Explanation:
On a normal EKG (electrocardiogram) tracing, the first wave to show a downward deflection is the Q wave. The EKG tracing consists of several waves: the P wave (representing atrial depolarization), the QRS complex (representing ventricular depolarization), and the T wave (representing ventricular repolarization). The Q wave is the initial negative deflection after the P wave and before the R wave in the QRS complex.
Reference: Nationally Registered Certified Medical Assistant study materials and standard cardiology references.