Which of the following is considered a class IA Sodium Channel blocker?
- A . Mexiletine
- B . Aminodarone
- C . Quinidine
- D . Procainamide
Mechanism of resistance of sufentanil is:
- A . Penicillin binding proteins (PBPs)
- B . Decreased drug uptake by bacteria
- C . Transport protein mutations
- D . Tolerance
- E . Mutation of viral DNA polymerase
Side effect of clindamycin is:
- A . Colitis (by Chlostridium difficili)
- B . Malabsorption
- C . Constipation
- D . Hypoglycemia
- E . Hepatotoxicity
Cigarette smoke causes an increase in levels of CYP1A isozymes. Theophylline is primarily metabolized by the CYP1A system.
What would happen to theophylline clearance for an asthmatic patient in hospital who could not smoke?
- A . No change
- B . Increase
- C . Decrease
What would be the preferred route of metabolism of succinyl choline?
- A . Ester hydrolysis
- B . N-oxidation
- C . Glucuronide conjugation
- D . A & B
- E . All of the above
Which of the following is not directly related to a drug toxicity of Nitroglycerin?
- A . Headaches
- B . Tachycardia
- C . Dizziness
- D . Projectile vomiting
Mechanism of action of ampicillin is:
- A . Inhibits cholesterol synthesis
- B . Inhibits transpeptidase
- C . Inhibits viral DNA polymerase
- D . Potentiates glucose-mediated insulin secretion
- E . Inhibits renal epithelial Na channels
Mechanism of action of cefoxitin is:
- A . monoamine reuptake inhibitor
- B . Inhibits cholesterol synthesis
- C . Inhibits activation of GPIIb/IIIa
- D . Inhibits transpeptidase
- E . Inhibits Na-K-2Cl transporter
Which of the following causes the smallest change in solubility?
- A . Hydroxylation
- B . Glucuronidation
- C . Sulfation
- D . Glutathione conjugation
Indication of salmeterol is:
- A . Thyrotoxicosis – preparation for surgery
- B . Chronic renal disease
- C . Scleroderma renal crisis
- D . Asthma
- E . Allergic rhinitis
Indication of clindamycin is:
- A . Benzodiazepine intoxication
- B . Hypercalcemia
- C . Kaposi’s sarcoma
- D . Streptococcus pneumoniae
- E . Angina
Mechanism of action of vincristine is:
- A . Inhibits organification of iodine by thyroid gland
- B . Increases peripheral tissues sensitivity to insulin
- C . Reduces peripheral insulin resistance
- D . Inhibits Na-K-2Cl transporter
- E . Mitotic spindle poison
Class of metformin is:
- A . Lipid lowering drugs
- B . Antimycobacterial
- C . Thyroid agents
- D . Vasodilators
- E . Oral hypoglycemics
Which of the following is not related to a drug toxicity of Prednisone?
- A . Cataracts
- B . Hypotension
- C . Psychosis
- D . Acne
Effect of bisacodyl is:
- A . Decreases total cholesterol by 8-12%
- B . Decreases water absorption
- C . Decreases total cholesterol by 20-50%
- D . Enhances mucociliary clearance
- E . Decreases triglycerides by 10-20%
Class of nystatin is:
- A . Thiazides
- B . Antiprotozoan agents
- C . Autonomic nervous system drugs
- D . Polyenes
- E . Oral hypoglycemics
Site of metabolism of zolpidem is:
- A . Liver
- B . None
- C . Reticuloendothelial system
- D . Leukocytes
- E . Unknown
Mechanism of action of amiloride is:
- A . Inhibits dihydrofolate reductase
- B . Modulation of CD3 receptor from the cell surface
- C . Inhibits renal epithelial Na channels
- D . Aldosterone antagonist
- E . Inhibits DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
Side effect of dipyridamole is:
- A . Diarrhea
- B . Headache
- C . Bleeding
- D . Hypercalcemia
- E . Pseudothrombocytopenia (clumping of platelets)
Mechanism of resistance of Invirase is:
- A . Mutation of viral DNA polymerase
- B . Mutations of viral protease
- C . Mutation of thymidilate synthase decreasing its affinity for the drug’s active metabolite
- D . Tolerance
- E . Mutation of viral reverse transcriptase
Indication of PTU is:
- A . Glaucoma
- B . Migraine prophylaxis
- C . Thyrotoxicosis – preparation for radioactive iodine therapy
- D . Severe recurrent ventricular tachyarrhythmias
- E . Broad spectrum antibacterial agent
Indication of doxycycline is:
- A . Bacteroides (other than Bacteroides fragilis)
- B . Asthma
- C . Meniere’s disease
- D . Water intoxication
- E . Broad spectrum antibacterial agent
Side effect of furosemide is:
- A . Nausea
- B . Mucositis
- C . Constipation
- D . Hearing impairment
- E . Weight gain
For highly polar drugs (e.g. mannitol) what primarily determines elimination rate?
- A . Excretion rate
- B . Metabolism rate
- C . Absorption rate
- D . Distribution rate
- E . All of the above
Which of the following is the antidote for the toxin Benzodiazepines?
- A . Flumazenil
- B . Methylene blue
- C . Deferoxamine
- D . Alkalinize urine
Which of the following is the primary site of activity for the drug Warfarin?
- A . Kidney
- B . Liver
- C . Blood
- D . Heart
For the majority of drugs, which of the following equations correctly defines clearance?
- A . Cl = Elimination rate/Cp
- B . Cl = QxE
- C . Cl = .7VD/t1/2
- D . All are correct
Route of administration of interferon alpha is:
- A . Intramuscular
- B . Inhalation
- C . Topical
- D . Oral
- E . Intra-auricular
Which of the following is not related to a drug toxicity of Atenolol?
- A . CHF
- B . Tachycardia
- C . AV block
- D . Sedative appearance
Which of the following statements refers to bretylium?
- A . May induce mild hypotension and worsen congestive heart failure in some patients. However, most CHF patients can tolerate it.
- B . Duration of action is usually several days.
- C . Has been show to be more effective than six other agents in preventing arrhythmia recurrence and death in patients with ventricular tachyarrhythmias.
- D . Is effective against erythrocytic forms.
- E . Used in emergency setting during attempted resuscitation when lidocaine and cardioversion have failed.
Indication of metoprolol is:
- A . Bacteroides (other than Bacteroides fragilis)
- B . Duodenal ulcer
- C . Stage fright
- D . Ventricular tachyarrythmias provoked by exercise
- E . Cardiac arrest
Class of nelfinavir is:
- A . Glucocorticosteroids
- B . Anti-asthmatic agents
- C . Polyenes
- D . Antivirals
- E . Autonomic nervous system drugs
Which of the following is not directly related to a drug toxicity of Ibuprofen?
- A . Nausea
- B . Renal dysfunction
- C . Anemia
- D . Muscle wasting
Indication of ticarcillin is:
- A . Streptococcus pneumoniae
- B . Varicella zoster virus
- C . Myocardial infarction
- D . Generalized motor seizures
- E . Bone marrow failure states (aplastic anemia, myelodysplasias) (investigational)
Mechanism of action of doxorubicin is:
- A . Inhibits topoisomerase II
- B . alpha antagonist
- C . Inhibits peptidyl transferase
- D . beta antagonist
- E . Allosterically enhances GABAergic inhibition
Indication of Norvir is:
- A . Streptococcus pneumoniae
- B . Cytomegalovirus retinitis
- C . Diarrhea
- D . Influenza A
- E . HIV
Which of the following drugs is associated with the reaction of hepatitis?
- A . Valproic acid
- B . Quinidine
- C . Isoniazid
- D . Ethosuximide
Indication of phenoxybenzamine is:
- A . Pain
- B . Movement disorders
- C . Thyrotoxicosis – preparation for radioactive iodine therapy
- D . Anaphylactic shock
- E . Acute hypertension
Route of administration of methadone is:
- A . Subcutaneous
- B . Inhalation
- C . Intrathecal
- D . Oral
- E . Transdermal
Which of the following drugs is associated with the reaction of Cinchonism?
- A . Valproic acid
- B . Quinidine
- C . Isoniazid
- D . Ethosuximide
A drug ending in the suffix (azole. is considered a ______.
- A . H2 agonist
- B . ACE inhibitor
- C . Antifungal
- D . Beta agonist
A drug ending in the suffix (pril) is considered a ______.
- A . H2 agonist
- B . ACE inhibitor
- C . Antifungal
- D . Beta agonist
Mechanism of action of vancomycin is:
- A . Potentiates glucose-mediated insulin secretion
- B . Inhibits phospholipase C
- C . Mitotic spindle poison
- D . Inhibits transpeptidase
- E . Inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis
Interactions with other drugs of clonazepam is:
- A . Lactose: increases absorption
- B . meperidine
- C . Tricyclic antidepressants: potentiate sedation
- D . cis-platinum – augments nephrotoxicity
- E . Oral contraceptives: inhibit metabolism
Mechanism of action of flunisolide is:
- A . Inhibits DNA gyrase
- B . Inhibits phosphodiesterase
- C . Inhibits phospholipase A2
- D . beta-2 agonist
- E . Competitively inhibits H2 receptors
Class of demeclocycline is:
- A . Analgesics
- B . Inotropic agents
- C . Penicillins
- D . Antithyroid agents
- E . Aquaretics
Lansoprazole is not used in which of the following cases?
- A . Gastritis
- B . Peptic Ulcers
- C . Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
- D . Thalamus hypertrophy
Which of the following drugs is associated with the reaction of extreme photosensitivity?
- A . Digitalis
- B . Niacin
- C . Tetracycline
- D . Fluoroquinolones
Effect of diltiazem is:
- A . May increase heart rate
- B . Decreases triglycerides by 10-20%
- C . May decrease heart rate
- D . Inhibits basal gastric acid secretion
- E . Decreases AV conduction
Which of the following statements refers to phenelzine?
- A . Mechanism of action probably involves NO.
- B . Rapid IV infusion predisposes to neuromuscular paralysis.
- C . May work when other antidepressants fail.
- D . Long half-life.
- E . MOA is inhibited irreversibly. Response occurs when >80% platelet MOA is inhibited.
Mechanism of resistance of dicloxacillin is:
- A . Decreased drug uptake by bacteria
- B . Mutations in M (matrix) protein
- C . Beta-lactamase
- D . Penicillin binding proteins (PBPs)
- E . Antibodies resulting from streptococcal infection
Mechanism of action of enalapril is:
- A . serotonin reuptake inhibitor
- B . Inhibits bone resorption
- C . beta-2 agonist
- D . Inhibits angiotensin converting enzyme
- E . Induces "freezing" of initiation complex
Which of the following are similarities between Cytochrome P450 and MAO?
- A . Both add oxygen from O2 to substrates and also form water
- B . Both carry out direct heteroatom oxidations
- C . Both carry out oxidative deaminations
- D . Both carry out N-dealkylations
- E . All of the above
Which of the following statements refers to etidronate?
- A . Binds to DNA, preferentially to GC pairs. Inhibits RNA, DNA, and protein synthesis.
- B . Human, pig, salmon, and eel calcitonins are available.
- C . Is used for both therapy and prophylaxis of influenza A.
- D . Bioavailability increases with administered dose.
- E . Only approved by FDA for hypertension treatment.
Side effect of nedocromil is:
- A . Growth retardation in children
- B . Thiocyanate poisoning
- C . Neuromuscular paralysis
- D . Nausea
- E . Dysphonia
Potassium sparing diuretics have the primary effect upon the _____ found in the kidney.
- A . Proximal convoluted tubule
- B . Loop of Henle
- C . Collecting duct
- D . Distal convoluted tubule
Which of the following enzymes could directly act on codeine?
- A . Glucuronyl transferase
- B . Sulfotransferase
- C . Glutathione transferase
- D . A & B
- E . All of the above
Which of the following drugs is associated with the reaction of Tendon dyfunction?
- A . Digitalis
- B . Niacin
- C . Tetracycline
- D . Fluoroquinolones
Which Cytochrome P450 isozyme does not participate appreciably in drug metabolism?
- A . CYP1A2
- B . CYP2C9
- C . CYP3A4
- D . CYP51
- E . All are drug metabolizing isoforms
Contraindication of indacrinone is:
- A . Pregnancy
- B . Hyperlipidemia
- C . Diabetes
- D . Diabetes mellitus
- E . Hearing impairment
Half-life of streptomycin is:
- A . 10-50 hours
- B . 8 hours
- C . 1 hour
- D . 16 hours
- E . 3-4 hours
A drug ending in the suffix (tidine. is considered a ______.
- A . Antidepressant
- B . Protease inhibitor
- C . Beta antagonist
- D . H2 antagonist
Mechanism of action of chlorthalidone is:
- A . Mitotic spindle poison
- B . Binds to ergosterol in cell membrane resulting in formation of pores.
- C . Unknown
- D . Induces "freezing" of initiation complex
- E . Inhibits Na-Cl transporter
Class of pyrimethamine is:
- A . Antifolates
- B . Antivirals
- C . Aquaretics
- D . Autonomic nervous system drugs
- E . H2 antagonists
Side effect of fluvastatin is:
- A . Seizures
- B . Skin rash
- C . Nausea
- D . Urinary tract complications
- E . Myalgia
Indication of epinephrine is:
- A . Post myocardial infarction
- B . Asthma
- C . Tremor
- D . Trigeminal neuralgia
- E . Neurosurgical anesthesia
Which of the following is the antidote for the toxin Lead?
- A . Naloxone
- B . Nitrite
- C . CaEDTA
- D . Dialysis
Indication of aspirin is:
- A . Insomnia
- B . Cyanide poisoning
- C . Cardiac arrest
- D . Inflammation
- E . Subarachnoid hemorrhage
Class of buspirone is:
- A . Anticonvulsants
- B . Lipid lowering drugs
- C . Beta blockers
- D . Benzodiazepines
- E . Sedatives
Mechanism of action of neomycin is:
- A . Inhibits dihydropteroate synthetase
- B . Blocks K channels
- C . Blocks Na channels
- D . Binds to 30S subunit of bacterial ribosome
- E . Inhibits mycolic acid synthesis
Interactions with other drugs of tramadol is?
- A . beta-lactam antibiotics – synergism
- B . Rifampin: stimulates metabolism
- C . Phenytoin: stimulates metabolism
- D . MAO inhibitors: increase hyperpyrexia, excitation, delirium, seizures.
- E . Antihistamines: enhance analgesia
Class of cilastin is:
- A . Azoles
- B . ACE inhibitors
- C . Retinoids
- D . Dehydropeptidase I inhibitors
- E . K sparing diuretics
Mechanism of action of isoetharine is:
- A . Inhibits phosphodiesterase
- B . Reduces calcium influx into neurons
- C . Potentiates glucose-mediated insulin secretion
- D . Inhibits phospholipase A2
- E . beta-2 agonist
Class of famciclovir is:
- A . NSAID
- B . Antidepressants
- C . Autonomic nervous system drugs
- D . Antivirals
- E . Oral hypoglycemics
Side effect of actinomycin D is:
- A . Bronchospasm
- B . Hypotension
- C . GI toxicity
- D . Oral and GI ulcers
- E . Dysphonia
Class of reserpine is:
- A . Anticoagulants
- B . Methylxanthines
- C . Inotropic agents
- D . Antiarrhythmic agents
- E . Autonomic nervous system drugs
Which of the following enzymes could metabolize ethanol?
- A . Cytochrome P450
- B . Alcohol Dehydrogenase
- C . Glucuronyl Transferase
- D . Sulfotransferase
- E . All of the above
Mechanism of action of indinavir is:
- A . beta-2 agonist
- B . Inhibits RNA-dependent RNA polymerase
- C . Inhibits reverse transcriptase
- D . Inhibits viral protease
- E . Stimulates lipoprotein lipase
Contraindication of sulfamethoxazole is:
- A . Gout
- B . Diabetes mellitus
- C . Hyperlipidemia
- D . Liver disease
- E . Late pregnancy
dication of ciprofloxacin is:
- A . In Tuberculosis
- B . Migraine prophylaxis
- C . Tricyclic antidepressant poisoning
- D . Broad spectrum antibacterial agent
- E . Asthma
How much of a 10 mg dose of morphine reaches the systemic circulation given F = .24?
- A . 24mg
- B . 0.24 mg
- C . 2.4 mg
- D . 4.1 mg
Half-life of adenosine is:
- A . 70 days
- B . 7-20 hours
- C . 4 hours
- D . 2 hours
- E . 1-2 minutes
Which of the following drugs is associated with the reaction of Stevens-Johnson syndrome?
- A . Valproic acid
- B . Quinidine
- C . Isoniazid
- D . Ethosuximide
Mechanism of action of amyl nitrite is:
- A . dopamine antagonist
- B . Unknown
- C . Holds water in stool
- D . Potassium channel agonist
- E . Stimulates guanylate cyclase
Given F = .24, what is the overall hepatic clearance of morphine if the above patient has portal hypertension such that their hepatic blood flow is reduced by ½? Assume the clearance value given in the previous question is entirely hepatic clearance.
- A . 30 L/hr/70 Kg
- B . 60 L/hr/70 Kg
- C . 120 L/hr/70 Kg
- D . 250 L/hr/70 Kg
Which of the following statements refers to buspirone?
- A . Fatal overdosage rare unless taken with alcohol or other CNS depressants.
- B . Choice between quinidine and disopyramide should be made based on side effects. In patients with AV conduction problems or quinidine-induced GI toxicity, disopyramide ought to be chosen. In patients with MI or anticholinergic side effects, quinidine is the agent of choice.
- C . Less effective than tricyclics or ECT in unipolar depression.
- D . Is metabolized to several substances with long (>24 hours) half lives. These do not contribute to anticonvulsant effect but do contribute to sedative effect.
- E . No difference in effects between elderly and average population
Which of the following is considered a class IA Sodium Channel blocker?
- A . Propafenone
- B . Disopyramide
- C . Aminodarone
- D . Quinidine
Class of nitrogen mustard is:
- A . Aquaretics
- B . Alkylating agents
- C . Lipid lowering drugs
- D . Drugs affecting calcium homeostasis
- E . Antivirals
Effect of cascara is:
- A . Decreases water absorption
- B . Stimulates segmentation
- C . Decreases meal-stimulated gastric acid secretion
- D . May increase triglycerides
- E . Afterload increase
Mechanism of action of FK506 is:
- A . Reduces calcium influx into neurons
- B . Inhibits calcineurin
- C . Inhibits phospholipase C
- D . Inhibits phospholipid synthesis
- E . Induces DNA damage under anaerobic conditions
Subclass of lomafloxacin is:
- A . Fluoroquinolones
- B . IA
- C . Calciferols
- D . Beta-lactamase resistant penicillins
- E . Aldosterone antagonists
Route of administration of ofloxacin is:
- A . Intra-auricular
- B . Sublingual
- C . Oral
- D . IV
- E . Intramuscular
Route of excretion of cinoxacin is:
- A . Unknown
- B . Kidneys
- C . Intestines
- D . Liver
Given that the VD = 230 L/70Kg and Cl = 60 L/hr/70 Kg for morphine, approximately how much of a 10 mg IV dose remains after 8 hr, given to a normal 70 Kg patient?
- A . 5 mg
- B . 2.5 mg
- C . 1.25 mg
- D . 625 mg
A drug ending in the suffix (navir) is considered a ______.
- A . Antidepressant
- B . Protease inhibitor
- C . Beta antagonist
- D . H2 antagonist
Mechanism of action of zalcitabine is:
- A . Inhibits inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase
- B . Inhibits reverse transcriptase
- C . Inhibits DNA gyrase
- D . Inhibits viral protease
- E . Inhibits dihydropteroate synthetase
Which of the following statements refers to HPMPC?
- A . Tricyclic.
- B . Cytosine monophosphate analog
- C . Works by accumulating in and changing pH of lysosomes.
- D . Mild intrinsic sympathomimetic activity – does not decrease heart rate and contractility as much during exercise.
- E . Metabolized in liver by P450.
Bioavailability is related to which of the following parameters, according to the equation F = 1 – E
- A . Excretion
- B . Elimination
- C . Extraction Ratio
- D . Enterohepatic Recycling
In a zero order elimination process, which of the following is true?
- A . The removal of drug is independent of drug concentration
- B . Cl = Elimination rate/Cp
- C . t1/2 = .7VD/Cl
- D . All are true
Which of the following Cytochrome P450 isozymes is responsible for the bulk of phase I metabolism?
- A . CYP1A2
- B . CYP2C9
- C . CYP2D6
- D . CYP3A4
- E . CYP51