Question #1
A client has attempted communication with a known command-and-control server and it has reached the configured threat level threshold.
Which feed will the clients IP address be automatically added to in this situation?
- A . the command-and-control cloud feed
- B . the allowlist and blocklist feed
- C . the custom cloud feed
- D . the infected host cloud feed
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
Infected hosts are internal hosts that have been compromised by malware and are communicating with external C&C servers3. Juniper ATP Cloud provides infected host feeds that list internal IP addresses or subnets of infected hosts along with a threat level3. Once the Juniper ATP Cloud global threshold for an infected host is met, that host is added to the infected host feed and assigned a threat level of 10 by the cloud4. You can also configure your SRX Series device to block traffic from these IP addresses using security policies4.
D
Explanation:
Infected hosts are internal hosts that have been compromised by malware and are communicating with external C&C servers3. Juniper ATP Cloud provides infected host feeds that list internal IP addresses or subnets of infected hosts along with a threat level3. Once the Juniper ATP Cloud global threshold for an infected host is met, that host is added to the infected host feed and assigned a threat level of 10 by the cloud4. You can also configure your SRX Series device to block traffic from these IP addresses using security policies4.
Question #2
Exhibit
When trying to set up a server protection SSL proxy, you receive the error shown.
What are two reasons for this error? (Choose two.)
- A . The SSL proxy certificate ID is part of a blocklist.
- B . The SSL proxy certificate ID does not have the correct renegotiation option set.
- C . The SSL proxy certificate ID is for a forwarding proxy.
- D . The SSL proxy certificate ID does not exist.
Correct Answer: B D
B D
Explanation:
The error message shown in the exhibit regarding the SSL proxy setup indicates an issue with the type of server certificate being used. The error explicitly states, "Unsupported cert type of server certid." Here are two plausible reasons for this error based on the options provided:
Option B. The SSL proxy certificate ID does not have the correct renegotiation option set.
This option points to a configuration issue related to the properties or capabilities of the certificate, such as renegotiation, which if not set correctly according to the expected requirements of the SSL proxy, might lead to the certificate being unsupported. Renegotiation settings are critical in ensuring secure connections, and mismatches in configuration can result in errors.
Option D. The SSL proxy certificate ID does not exist.
If the certificate ID being referred to in the SSL proxy profile does not exist in the device’s certificate store or is incorrectly referenced, the system will be unable to apply the configuration, leading to an error during the commit operation. This situation would typically result in an error indicating that the system can’t find or recognize the specified certificate ID.
B D
Explanation:
The error message shown in the exhibit regarding the SSL proxy setup indicates an issue with the type of server certificate being used. The error explicitly states, "Unsupported cert type of server certid." Here are two plausible reasons for this error based on the options provided:
Option B. The SSL proxy certificate ID does not have the correct renegotiation option set.
This option points to a configuration issue related to the properties or capabilities of the certificate, such as renegotiation, which if not set correctly according to the expected requirements of the SSL proxy, might lead to the certificate being unsupported. Renegotiation settings are critical in ensuring secure connections, and mismatches in configuration can result in errors.
Option D. The SSL proxy certificate ID does not exist.
If the certificate ID being referred to in the SSL proxy profile does not exist in the device’s certificate store or is incorrectly referenced, the system will be unable to apply the configuration, leading to an error during the commit operation. This situation would typically result in an error indicating that the system can’t find or recognize the specified certificate ID.
Question #3
You are asked to reduce the load that the JIMS server places on your
Which action should you take in this situation?
- A . Connect JIMS to the RADIUS server
- B . Connect JIMS to the domain Exchange server
- C . Connect JIMS to the domain SQL server.
- D . Connect JIMS to another SRX Series device.
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
JIMS server is a Juniper Identity Management Service that collects user identity information from different authentication sources for SRX Series devices12. It can connect to SRX Series devices and CSO platform in your network1.
D
Explanation:
JIMS server is a Juniper Identity Management Service that collects user identity information from different authentication sources for SRX Series devices12. It can connect to SRX Series devices and CSO platform in your network1.
Question #4
Exhibit
You are trying to create a security policy on your SRX Series device that permits HTTP traffic from your private 172 25.11.0/24 subnet to the Internet You create a policy named permit-http between the trust and untrust zones that permits HTTP traffic. When you issue a commit command to apply the configuration changes, the commit fails with the error shown in the exhibit.
Which two actions would correct the error? (Choose two.)
- A . Issue the rollback 1 command from the top of the configuration hierarchy and attempt the commit again.
- B . Execute the Junos commit full command to override the error and apply the configuration.
- C . Create a custom application named http at the [edit applications] hierarchy.
- D . Modify the security policy to use the built-in Junos-http applications.
Correct Answer: C D
C D
Explanation:
The error message indicates that the Junos-http application is not defined, so you need to either create a custom application or modify the security policy to use the built-in Junos-http application. Doing either of these will allow you to successfully commit the configuration.
C D
Explanation:
The error message indicates that the Junos-http application is not defined, so you need to either create a custom application or modify the security policy to use the built-in Junos-http application. Doing either of these will allow you to successfully commit the configuration.
Question #5
What are two types of system logs that Junos generates? (Choose two.)
- A . SQL log files
- B . data plane logs
- C . system core dump files
- D . control plane logs
Correct Answer: B D
B D
Explanation:
The two types of system logs that Junos generates are control plane logs and data plane logs. Control plane logs are generated by the Junos operating system and contain system-level events such as system startup and shutdown, configuration changes, and system alarms. Data plane logs are generated by the network protocol processes and contain messages about the status of the network and its components, such as routing, firewall, NAT, and IPS. SQL log files and system core dump files are not types of system logs generated by Junos.
B D
Explanation:
The two types of system logs that Junos generates are control plane logs and data plane logs. Control plane logs are generated by the Junos operating system and contain system-level events such as system startup and shutdown, configuration changes, and system alarms. Data plane logs are generated by the network protocol processes and contain messages about the status of the network and its components, such as routing, firewall, NAT, and IPS. SQL log files and system core dump files are not types of system logs generated by Junos.
Question #6
You are asked to ensure that if the session table on your SRX Series device gets close to exhausting its resources, that you enforce a more aggress.ve age-out of existing flows.
In this scenario, which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)
- A . The early-ageout configuration specifies the timeout value, in seconds, that will be applied once the low-watermark value is met.
- B . The early-ageout configuration specifies the timeout value, in seconds, that will be applied once the high-watermark value is met.
- C . The high-watermark configuration specifies the percentage of how much of the session table is left before disabling a more aggressive age- out timer.
- D . The high-watermark configuration specifies the percentage of how much of the session table can be allocated before applying a more aggressive age-out timer
Correct Answer: B D
B D
Explanation:
The early-ageout configuration specifies the timeout value, in seconds, that will be applied once the high-watermark value is met. The high-watermark configuration specifies the percentage of how much of the session table can be allocated before applying a more aggressive age-out timer. This ensures that the session table does not become full and cause traffic issues, and also ensures that existing flows are aged out quickly when the table begins to get close to being full.
B D
Explanation:
The early-ageout configuration specifies the timeout value, in seconds, that will be applied once the high-watermark value is met. The high-watermark configuration specifies the percentage of how much of the session table can be allocated before applying a more aggressive age-out timer. This ensures that the session table does not become full and cause traffic issues, and also ensures that existing flows are aged out quickly when the table begins to get close to being full.
Question #7
Exhibit
Referring to the exhibit which statement is true?
- A . SSL proxy functions will ignore the session.
- B . SSL proxy leverages post-match results.
- C . SSL proxy must wait for return traffic for the final match to occur.
- D . SSL proxy leverages pre-match result
Correct Answer: C
Question #8
When a security policy is deleted, which statement is correct about the default behavior of active sessions allowed by that policy?
- A . The active sessions allowed by the policy will be dropped.
- B . The active sessions allowed by the policy will be marked as a legacy flow and will continue to be forwarded.
- C . The active sessions allowed by the policy will be reevaluated by the cached
- D . The active sessions allowed by the policy will continue
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
When a security policy is deleted, the existing sessions that were previously allowed by that policy are not immediately dropped; instead, they are typically treated as legacy flows. This means they are allowed to continue until they naturally end or until the session timeout is reached. This behavior ensures that deleting a policy does not abruptly disrupt ongoing traffic flows that were previously authorized by that policy. This approach helps in avoiding unintended service disruptions, especially in production environments where active connections may be critical to operations.
B
Explanation:
When a security policy is deleted, the existing sessions that were previously allowed by that policy are not immediately dropped; instead, they are typically treated as legacy flows. This means they are allowed to continue until they naturally end or until the session timeout is reached. This behavior ensures that deleting a policy does not abruptly disrupt ongoing traffic flows that were previously authorized by that policy. This approach helps in avoiding unintended service disruptions, especially in production environments where active connections may be critical to operations.
Question #9
You want to use IPS signatures to monitor traffic.
Which module in the AppSecure suite will help in this task?
- A . AppTrack
- B . AppQoS
- C . AppFW
- D . APPID
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
The AppFW module in the AppSecure suite provides IPS signatures that can be used to monitor traffic and detect malicious activities. AppFW also provides other security controls such as Web application firewall, URL filtering, and application-level visibility.
C
Explanation:
The AppFW module in the AppSecure suite provides IPS signatures that can be used to monitor traffic and detect malicious activities. AppFW also provides other security controls such as Web application firewall, URL filtering, and application-level visibility.
Question #10
Exhibit
Using the information from the exhibit, which statement is correct?
- A . Redundancy group 1 is in an ineligible state.
- B . Node1 is the active node for the control plane
- C . There are no issues with the cluster.
- D . Redundancy group 0 is in an ineligible state.
Correct Answer: C
Question #11
After JSA receives external events and flows, which two steps occur? (Choose two.)
- A . After formatting the data, the data is stored in an asset database.
- B . Before formatting the data, the data is analyzed for relevant information.
- C . Before the information is filtered, the information is formatted
- D . After the information is filtered, JSA responds with active measures
Correct Answer: A C
A C
Explanation:
When JSA (Juniper Secure Analytics) receives external events and flows, the typical processing steps are:
Option C. Before the information is filtered, the information is formatted.
Data formatting is an initial step in the process where raw data from events and flows is converted into a standard format that can be more easily processed and analyzed by JSA.
Option A. After formatting the data, the data is stored in an asset database.
Once the data is formatted, it is stored in an asset database. This database acts as a repository for all the formatted data, enabling JSA to perform further analysis, correlation, and eventually, to maintain a comprehensive view of the network assets and activities.
These steps are part of JSA’s comprehensive approach to security event management, which involves collecting, normalizing, and analyzing data to identify potential security threats and vulnerabilities efficiently.
A C
Explanation:
When JSA (Juniper Secure Analytics) receives external events and flows, the typical processing steps are:
Option C. Before the information is filtered, the information is formatted.
Data formatting is an initial step in the process where raw data from events and flows is converted into a standard format that can be more easily processed and analyzed by JSA.
Option A. After formatting the data, the data is stored in an asset database.
Once the data is formatted, it is stored in an asset database. This database acts as a repository for all the formatted data, enabling JSA to perform further analysis, correlation, and eventually, to maintain a comprehensive view of the network assets and activities.
These steps are part of JSA’s comprehensive approach to security event management, which involves collecting, normalizing, and analyzing data to identify potential security threats and vulnerabilities efficiently.
Question #12
Your company is using the Juniper ATP Cloud free model. The current inspection profile is set at 10 MB You are asked to configure ATP Cloud so that executable files up to 30 MB can be scanned while at the same time minimizing the change in scan time for other file types.
Which configuration should you use in this scenario?
- A . Use the CLI to create a custom profile and increase the scan limit.
- B . Use the ATP Cloud Ul to change the default profile to increase the scan limit for all files to 30 MB.
- C . Use the CLI to change the default profile to increase the scan limit for all files to 30 MB.
- D . Use the ATP Cloud Ul to update a custom profile and increase the scan limit for executable files to 30 MB.
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
In this scenario, you should use the ATP Cloud Ul to create a custom profile and update the scan limit for executable files to 30 MB. This will ensure that executable files up to 30 MB can be scanned, while at the same time minimizing the change in scan time for other file types. To do this, log in to the ATP Cloud Ul and go to the Profiles tab. Click the Create button to create a new profile, and then adjust the scan limits for executable files to 30 MB. Once you have saved the custom profile, you can apply it to the desired systems and the new scan limit will be in effect.
D
Explanation:
In this scenario, you should use the ATP Cloud Ul to create a custom profile and update the scan limit for executable files to 30 MB. This will ensure that executable files up to 30 MB can be scanned, while at the same time minimizing the change in scan time for other file types. To do this, log in to the ATP Cloud Ul and go to the Profiles tab. Click the Create button to create a new profile, and then adjust the scan limits for executable files to 30 MB. Once you have saved the custom profile, you can apply it to the desired systems and the new scan limit will be in effect.
Question #13
What are two benefits of using a vSRX in a software-defined network? (Choose two.)
- A . scalability
- B . no required software license
- C . granular security
- D . infinite number of interfaces
Correct Answer: A C
A C
Explanation:
– Scalability: vSRX instances can be easily added or removed as the needs of the network change, making it a flexible option for scaling in a software-defined network.
– Granular Security: vSRX allows for granular security policies to be enforced at the virtual interface level, making it an effective solution for securing traffic in a software-defined network.
The two benefits of using a vSRX in a software-defined network are scalability and granular security. Scalability allows you to increase the number of resources available to meet the demands of network traffic, while granular security provides a level of control and flexibility to your network security that is not possible with a traditional firewall. With a vSRX, you can create multiple levels of security policies, rules, and access control lists to ensure that only authorized traffic can enter and exit your network. Additionally, you would not require a software license to use the vSRX, making it an economical solution for those looking for increased security and flexibility.
A C
Explanation:
– Scalability: vSRX instances can be easily added or removed as the needs of the network change, making it a flexible option for scaling in a software-defined network.
– Granular Security: vSRX allows for granular security policies to be enforced at the virtual interface level, making it an effective solution for securing traffic in a software-defined network.
The two benefits of using a vSRX in a software-defined network are scalability and granular security. Scalability allows you to increase the number of resources available to meet the demands of network traffic, while granular security provides a level of control and flexibility to your network security that is not possible with a traditional firewall. With a vSRX, you can create multiple levels of security policies, rules, and access control lists to ensure that only authorized traffic can enter and exit your network. Additionally, you would not require a software license to use the vSRX, making it an economical solution for those looking for increased security and flexibility.
Question #14
You enable chassis clustering on two devices and assign a cluster ID and a node ID to each device.
In this scenario, what is the correct order for rebooting the devices?
- A . Reboot the secondary device, then the primary device.
- B . Reboot only the secondary device since the primary will assign itself the correct cluster and node ID.
- C . Reboot the primary device, then the secondary device.
- D . Reboot only the primary device since the secondary will assign itself the correct cluster and node ID.
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
When chassis clustering is enabled and IDs are assigned, it is typically recommended to first reboot the secondary device. This allows the secondary device to fully integrate and recognize its role and settings within the cluster without affecting the ongoing traffic that the primary device might be handling.
Once the secondary device has successfully rebooted and is operational within the cluster, the primary device can then be rebooted. This ensures that the primary device’s reboot does not cause any network downtime, as the secondary device, now fully operational, can take over the traffic and roles as needed.
A
Explanation:
When chassis clustering is enabled and IDs are assigned, it is typically recommended to first reboot the secondary device. This allows the secondary device to fully integrate and recognize its role and settings within the cluster without affecting the ongoing traffic that the primary device might be handling.
Once the secondary device has successfully rebooted and is operational within the cluster, the primary device can then be rebooted. This ensures that the primary device’s reboot does not cause any network downtime, as the secondary device, now fully operational, can take over the traffic and roles as needed.
Question #15
Exhibit
Referring to the exhibit, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
- A . Nancy logged in to the juniper.net Active Directory domain.
- B . The IP address of Nancy’s client PC is 172.25.11.
- C . The IP address of the authenticating domain controller is 172.25.11.140.
- D . Nancy is a member of the Active Directory sales group.
Correct Answer: A C
Question #16
Which three statements about SRX Series device chassis clusters are true? (Choose three.)
- A . Chassis cluster control links must be configured using RFC 1918 IP addresses.
- B . Chassis cluster member devices synchronize configuration using the control link.
- C . A control link failure causes the secondary cluster node to be disabled.
- D . Recovery from a control link failure requires that the secondary member device be rebooted.
- E . Heartbeat messages verify that the chassis cluster control link is working.
Correct Answer: B C E
B C E
Explanation:
B. Chassis cluster member devices synchronize configuration using the control link: This statement is correct because the control link is used for configuration synchronization among other functions.
C. A control link failure causes the secondary cluster node to be disabled: This statement is correct because a control link failure causes the secondary node to become ineligible for primary role and remain in secondary role until the control link is restored.
E. Heartbeat messages verify that the chassis cluster control link is working: This statement is correct because heartbeat messages are sent periodically over the control link to monitor its status.
B C E
Explanation:
B. Chassis cluster member devices synchronize configuration using the control link: This statement is correct because the control link is used for configuration synchronization among other functions.
C. A control link failure causes the secondary cluster node to be disabled: This statement is correct because a control link failure causes the secondary node to become ineligible for primary role and remain in secondary role until the control link is restored.
E. Heartbeat messages verify that the chassis cluster control link is working: This statement is correct because heartbeat messages are sent periodically over the control link to monitor its status.
Question #17
Which two devices would you use for DDoS protection with Policy Enforcer? (Choose two.)
- A . vQFX
- B . MX
- C . vMX
- D . QFX
Correct Answer: B C
B C
Explanation:
The MX and vMX devices can be used for DDoS protection with Policy Enforcer. Policy Enforcer is a Juniper Networks solution that provides real-time protection from DDoS attacks. It can be used to detect and block malicious traffic, and also provides granular control over user access and policy enforcement. The MX and vMX devices are well-suited for use with Policy Enforcer due to their high-performance hardware and advanced security features.
B C
Explanation:
The MX and vMX devices can be used for DDoS protection with Policy Enforcer. Policy Enforcer is a Juniper Networks solution that provides real-time protection from DDoS attacks. It can be used to detect and block malicious traffic, and also provides granular control over user access and policy enforcement. The MX and vMX devices are well-suited for use with Policy Enforcer due to their high-performance hardware and advanced security features.
Question #18
You have implemented a vSRX in your VMware environment. You want to implement a second vSRX Series device and enable chassis clustering.
Which two statements are correct in this scenario about the control-link settings? (Choose two.)
- A . In the vSwitch security settings, accept promiscuous mode.
- B . In the vSwitch properties settings, set the VLAN ID to None.
- C . In the vSwitch security settings, reject forged transmits.
- D . In the vSwitch security settings, reject MAC address changes.
Correct Answer: A D
Question #19
Which two statements are true about the fab interface in a chassis cluster? (Choose two.)
- A . The fab link does not support fragmentation.
- B . The physical interface for the fab link must be specified in the configuration.
- C . The fab link supports traditional interface features.
- D . The Junos OS supports only one fab link.
Correct Answer: A B
A B
Explanation:
The fabric link, used for data traffic synchronization between cluster nodes, is designed to handle packets at full size. It does not support packet fragmentation, which means that packets should be sized appropriately to avoid issues related to packet size limitations on the fab interface.
For chassis clustering, the specific physical interfaces used as fabric links (fab links) must be explicitly defined in the configuration. This specification is crucial to ensure proper data flow between nodes for state synchronization and other clustering functions.
A B
Explanation:
The fabric link, used for data traffic synchronization between cluster nodes, is designed to handle packets at full size. It does not support packet fragmentation, which means that packets should be sized appropriately to avoid issues related to packet size limitations on the fab interface.
For chassis clustering, the specific physical interfaces used as fabric links (fab links) must be explicitly defined in the configuration. This specification is crucial to ensure proper data flow between nodes for state synchronization and other clustering functions.
Question #20
You want to manually failover the primary Routing Engine in an SRX Series high availability cluster pair.
Which step is necessary to accomplish this task?
- A . Issue the set chassis cluster disable reboot command on the primary node.
- B . Implement the control link recover/ solution before adjusting the priorities.
- C . Manually request the failover and identify the secondary node
- D . Adjust the priority in the configuration on the secondary node.
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
This step involves issuing a command to manually initiate a failover from the primary Routing Engine to the secondary. This can typically be done using a command like request chassis cluster failover redundancy-group <group-number> node <node-id>, where <group-number> is the redundancy group you are failing over, and <node-id> specifies the node to which you want to failover (usually the secondary node). This command forces the designated node to take over as primary for the specified redundancy group.
C
Explanation:
This step involves issuing a command to manually initiate a failover from the primary Routing Engine to the secondary. This can typically be done using a command like request chassis cluster failover redundancy-group <group-number> node <node-id>, where <group-number> is the redundancy group you are failing over, and <node-id> specifies the node to which you want to failover (usually the secondary node). This command forces the designated node to take over as primary for the specified redundancy group.
Question #21
How does the SSL proxy detect if encryption is being used?
- A . It uses application identity services.
- B . It verifies the length of the packet
- C . It queries the client device.
- D . It looks at the destination port number.
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
The SSL proxy can detect if encryption is being used by looking at the destination port number of the packet. If the port number is 443, then the proxy can assume that the packet is being sent over an encrypted connection. If the port number is different, then the proxy can assume that the packet is not encrypted. For more information, please refer to the Juniper Networks JNCIS-SEC Study Guide.
D
Explanation:
The SSL proxy can detect if encryption is being used by looking at the destination port number of the packet. If the port number is 443, then the proxy can assume that the packet is being sent over an encrypted connection. If the port number is different, then the proxy can assume that the packet is not encrypted. For more information, please refer to the Juniper Networks JNCIS-SEC Study Guide.
Question #22
Which two types of SSL proxy are available on SRX Series devices? (Choose two.)
- A . Web proxy
- B . client-protection
- C . server-protection
- D . DNS proxy
Correct Answer: B C
B C
Explanation:
Based on SSL proxy is a feature that allows SRX Series devices to decrypt and inspect SSL/TLS traffic for security purposes.
According to SRX Series devices support two types of SSL proxy:
Client-protection SSL proxy also known as forward proxy ― The SRX Series device resides between the internal client and outside server. It decrypts and inspects traffic from internal users to the web.
Server-protection SSL proxy also known as reverse proxy ― The SRX Series device resides between outside clients and internal servers. It decrypts and inspects traffic from web users to internal servers.
B C
Explanation:
Based on SSL proxy is a feature that allows SRX Series devices to decrypt and inspect SSL/TLS traffic for security purposes.
According to SRX Series devices support two types of SSL proxy:
Client-protection SSL proxy also known as forward proxy ― The SRX Series device resides between the internal client and outside server. It decrypts and inspects traffic from internal users to the web.
Server-protection SSL proxy also known as reverse proxy ― The SRX Series device resides between outside clients and internal servers. It decrypts and inspects traffic from web users to internal servers.
Question #23
What are three capabilities of AppQoS? (Choose three.)
- A . re-write DSCP values
- B . assign a forwarding class
- C . re-write the TTL
- D . rate-limit traffic
- E . reserve bandwidth
Correct Answer: A B D
A B D
Explanation:
AppQoS can modify the DSCP (Differentiated Services Code Point) values in IP packet headers. This is crucial for defining the level of service for each packet, influencing how network devices prioritize traffic.
It can assign traffic to specific forwarding classes. This feature allows network administrators to group different types of traffic (e.g., VoIP, streaming, bulk data) into categories that are treated differently based on predefined network policies, ensuring that critical applications receive the necessary bandwidth and priority.
AppQoS is capable of rate-limiting traffic, which involves setting a maximum bandwidth limit for certain types of traffic. This ensures that no single application or service consumes more bandwidth than allocated, thus preventing network congestion and ensuring fair bandwidth distribution among all applications.
These features are essential for managing network performance and ensuring that critical applications receive the necessary resources to function effectively. AppQoS does not inherently include capabilities to re-write TTL (Time To Live) values or reserve bandwidth as primary functions, but it manages bandwidth usage through rate limiting and priority settings.
A B D
Explanation:
AppQoS can modify the DSCP (Differentiated Services Code Point) values in IP packet headers. This is crucial for defining the level of service for each packet, influencing how network devices prioritize traffic.
It can assign traffic to specific forwarding classes. This feature allows network administrators to group different types of traffic (e.g., VoIP, streaming, bulk data) into categories that are treated differently based on predefined network policies, ensuring that critical applications receive the necessary bandwidth and priority.
AppQoS is capable of rate-limiting traffic, which involves setting a maximum bandwidth limit for certain types of traffic. This ensures that no single application or service consumes more bandwidth than allocated, thus preventing network congestion and ensuring fair bandwidth distribution among all applications.
These features are essential for managing network performance and ensuring that critical applications receive the necessary resources to function effectively. AppQoS does not inherently include capabilities to re-write TTL (Time To Live) values or reserve bandwidth as primary functions, but it manages bandwidth usage through rate limiting and priority settings.
Question #24
You are asked to find systems running applications that increase the risks on your network. You must ensure these systems are processed through IPS and Juniper ATP Cloud for malware and virus protection.
Which Juniper Networks solution will accomplish this task?
- A . JIMS
- B . Encrypted Traffic Insights
- C . UTM
- D . Adaptive Threat Profiling
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
Adaptive Threat Profiling (ATP) is a Juniper Networks solution that enables organizations to detect malicious activity on their networks and process it through IPS and Juniper ATP Cloud for malware and virus protection. ATP is powered by Juniper’s advanced Machine Learning and Artificial Intelligence (AI) capabilities, allowing it to detect and block malicious activity in real-time. ATP is integrated with Juniper’s Unified Threat Management (UTM) and Encrypted Traffic Insights (ETI) solutions, providing an end-to-end network protection solution.
D
Explanation:
Adaptive Threat Profiling (ATP) is a Juniper Networks solution that enables organizations to detect malicious activity on their networks and process it through IPS and Juniper ATP Cloud for malware and virus protection. ATP is powered by Juniper’s advanced Machine Learning and Artificial Intelligence (AI) capabilities, allowing it to detect and block malicious activity in real-time. ATP is integrated with Juniper’s Unified Threat Management (UTM) and Encrypted Traffic Insights (ETI) solutions, providing an end-to-end network protection solution.
Question #25
Which statement about security policy schedulers is correct?
- A . Multiple policies can use the same scheduler.
- B . A policy can have multiple schedulers.
- C . When the scheduler is disabled, the policy will still be available.
- D . A policy without a defined scheduler will not become active
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
Schedulers can be defined and reused by multiple policies, allowing for more efficient management of policy activation and deactivation. This can be particularly useful for policies that need to be activated during specific time periods, such as business hours or maintenance windows.
A
Explanation:
Schedulers can be defined and reused by multiple policies, allowing for more efficient management of policy activation and deactivation. This can be particularly useful for policies that need to be activated during specific time periods, such as business hours or maintenance windows.
Question #26
Exhibit
Referring to the SRX Series flow module diagram shown in the exhibit, where is application security processed?
- A . Forwarding Lookup
- B . Services ALGs
- C . Security Policy
- D . Screens
Correct Answer: B
Question #27
What information does encrypted traffic insights (ETI) use to notify SRX Series devices about known malware sites?
- A . certificates
- B . dynamic address groups
- C . MAC addresses
- D . domain names
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
Encrypted traffic insights (ETI) uses domain names to notify SRX Series devices about known malware sites. ETI is a feature of the SRX Series firewall that can detect and block malware that is hidden in encrypted traffic. It works by analyzing the domain names of the websites that the encrypted traffic is attempting to access. If the domain name matches a known malware site, ETIwill send an alert to the SRX Series device, which can then take appropriate action to block the traffic. ETI is a useful tool for protecting against threats that attempt to evade detection by hiding in encrypted traffic.
D
Explanation:
Encrypted traffic insights (ETI) uses domain names to notify SRX Series devices about known malware sites. ETI is a feature of the SRX Series firewall that can detect and block malware that is hidden in encrypted traffic. It works by analyzing the domain names of the websites that the encrypted traffic is attempting to access. If the domain name matches a known malware site, ETIwill send an alert to the SRX Series device, which can then take appropriate action to block the traffic. ETI is a useful tool for protecting against threats that attempt to evade detection by hiding in encrypted traffic.
Question #28
Your manager asks you to provide firewall and NAT services in a private cloud.
Which two solutions will fulfill the minimum requirements for this deployment? (Choose two.)
- A . a single vSRX
- B . a vSRX for firewall services and a separate vSRX for NAT services
- C . a cSRX for firewall services and a separate cSRX for NAT services
- D . a single cSRX
Correct Answer: A D
A D
Explanation:
A single vSRX instance is capable of handling both firewall and NAT services simultaneously. This solution provides a streamlined and resource-efficient way to secure and manage network traffic within a private cloud environment.
Similar to the vSRX, a single cSRX can also provide both firewall and NAT services. The cSRX, being a containerized version of the SRX, is particularly suited for environments where high density and microservices architectures are used, offering high performance in a compact form factor.
A D
Explanation:
A single vSRX instance is capable of handling both firewall and NAT services simultaneously. This solution provides a streamlined and resource-efficient way to secure and manage network traffic within a private cloud environment.
Similar to the vSRX, a single cSRX can also provide both firewall and NAT services. The cSRX, being a containerized version of the SRX, is particularly suited for environments where high density and microservices architectures are used, offering high performance in a compact form factor.
Question #29
You want to deploy a virtualized SRX in your environment.
In this scenario, why would you use a vSRX instead of a cSRX? (Choose two.)
- A . The vSRX supports Layer 2 and Layer 3 configurations.
- B . Only the vSRX provides clustering.
- C . The vSRX has faster boot times.
- D . Only the vSRX provides NAT, IPS, and UTM services
Correct Answer: A B
A B
Explanation:
vSRX provides flexible networking capabilities which include support for both Layer 2 (data link) and Layer 3 (network) configurations. This allows it to handle a variety of routing and switching tasks within virtual environments.
Clustering capability, which involves grouping multiple vSRX instances to operate as a single entity for redundancy and high availability, is a feature specific to vSRX. This is critical in environments where continuous uptime and resilience are required.
A B
Explanation:
vSRX provides flexible networking capabilities which include support for both Layer 2 (data link) and Layer 3 (network) configurations. This allows it to handle a variety of routing and switching tasks within virtual environments.
Clustering capability, which involves grouping multiple vSRX instances to operate as a single entity for redundancy and high availability, is a feature specific to vSRX. This is critical in environments where continuous uptime and resilience are required.
Question #30
Regarding static attack object groups, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
- A . Matching attack objects are automatically added to a custom group.
- B . Group membership automatically changes when Juniper updates the IPS signature database.
- C . Group membership does not automatically change when Juniper updates the IPS signature database.
- D . You must manually add matching attack objects to a custom group.
Correct Answer: C D
Question #31
Which statement regarding Juniper Identity Management Service (JIMS) domain PC probes is true?
- A . JIMS domain PC probes analyze domain controller security event logs at60-mmute intervals by default.
- B . JIMS domain PC probes are triggered if no username to IP address mapping is found in the domain security event log.
- C . JIMS domain PC probes are triggered to map usernames to group membership information.
- D . JIMS domain PC probes are initiated by an SRX Series device to verify authentication table information.
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
Juniper Identity Management Service (JIMS) domain PC probes are used to map usernames to IP addresses in the domain security event log. This allows for the SRX Series device to verify authentication table information, such as group membership. The probes are triggered whenever a username to IP address mapping is not found in the domain security event log. By default, the probes are executed at 60-minute intervals.
B
Explanation:
Juniper Identity Management Service (JIMS) domain PC probes are used to map usernames to IP addresses in the domain security event log. This allows for the SRX Series device to verify authentication table information, such as group membership. The probes are triggered whenever a username to IP address mapping is not found in the domain security event log. By default, the probes are executed at 60-minute intervals.
Question #32
Exhibit
Which two statements are correct about the configuration shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
- A . The session-class parameter in only used when troubleshooting.
- B . The others 300 parameter means unidentified traffic flows will be dropped in 300 milliseconds.
- C . Every session that enters the SRX Series device will generate an event
- D . Replacing the session-init parameter with session-lose will log unidentified flows.
Correct Answer: C D
C D
Explanation:
The log session-init; command within the policy configuration specifies that an event log entry will be created every time a session is initialized, meaning each new session will generate a log event. This is useful for tracking and analyzing the traffic flows entering the device.
Changing session-init to session-close in the log statement would mean that the device logs sessions when they close instead of when they open. This setting is typically used to log details about the session upon termination, which can help in analyzing the duration, end status, and other parameters of sessions, including those of unidentified flows.
C D
Explanation:
The log session-init; command within the policy configuration specifies that an event log entry will be created every time a session is initialized, meaning each new session will generate a log event. This is useful for tracking and analyzing the traffic flows entering the device.
Changing session-init to session-close in the log statement would mean that the device logs sessions when they close instead of when they open. This setting is typically used to log details about the session upon termination, which can help in analyzing the duration, end status, and other parameters of sessions, including those of unidentified flows.
Question #33
Which two statements are true about the vSRX? (Choose two.)
- A . It does not have VMXNET3 vNIC support.
- B . It has VMXNET3 vNIC support.
- C . UNIX is the base OS.
- D . Linux is the base OS.
Correct Answer: B D
Question #34
Which two statements about SRX Series device chassis clusters are true? (Choose two.)
- A . Redundancy group 0 is only active on the cluster backup node.
- B . Each chassis cluster member requires a unique cluster ID value.
- C . Each chassis cluster member device can host active redundancy groups
- D . Chassis cluster member devices must be the same model.
Correct Answer: C D
C D
Explanation:
In a chassis cluster, both nodes can host active redundancy groups. The active redundancy groups can be distributed between the two nodes, depending on the configuration and failover status, allowing each node to handle traffic for different sets of services or interfaces.
For the chassis clustering to function correctly, both nodes in the cluster must be of the same model. This requirement ensures that the hardware capabilities, such as processing power and interface compatibility, are identical, which is crucial for maintaining consistent performance and behavior between cluster nodes.
C D
Explanation:
In a chassis cluster, both nodes can host active redundancy groups. The active redundancy groups can be distributed between the two nodes, depending on the configuration and failover status, allowing each node to handle traffic for different sets of services or interfaces.
For the chassis clustering to function correctly, both nodes in the cluster must be of the same model. This requirement ensures that the hardware capabilities, such as processing power and interface compatibility, are identical, which is crucial for maintaining consistent performance and behavior between cluster nodes.
Question #35
Which two statements are correct about SSL proxy server protection? (Choose two.)
- A . You do not need to configure the servers to use the SSL proxy the function on the SRX Series device.
- B . You must load the server certificates on the SRX Series device.
- C . The servers must be configured to use the SSL proxy function on the SRX Series device.
- D . You must import the root CA on the servers.
Correct Answer: A B
A B
Explanation:
When using SSL proxy, the servers themselves do not require any special configuration to utilize the SSL proxy function on the SRX device. The SSL proxy operates transparently, intercepting and decrypting SSL/TLS traffic before it reaches the servers.
For the SSL proxy to function effectively, especially in server protection mode where it impersonates the server to the client, it is necessary to load the server’s certificates onto the SRX device. This allows the SRX to establish a trusted connection with the client using the server’s credentials.
A B
Explanation:
When using SSL proxy, the servers themselves do not require any special configuration to utilize the SSL proxy function on the SRX device. The SSL proxy operates transparently, intercepting and decrypting SSL/TLS traffic before it reaches the servers.
For the SSL proxy to function effectively, especially in server protection mode where it impersonates the server to the client, it is necessary to load the server’s certificates onto the SRX device. This allows the SRX to establish a trusted connection with the client using the server’s credentials.