Topic 1, Scenario 1 "Medical Domain"
You are working as a test manager in the medical domain leading a team of system testers. You are currently working on a major release of the product which gives customers many new features and resolves a number of problem reports from previous releases.
Explain how the above mentioned report may differ from a report that you produce for the project manager, who is a test specialist Select TWO items from the following options that can be used to report to the project manager and would not be included in a report to senior management. 1 credit
- A . Show details on effort spent
- B . List of all outstanding defects with their priority and severity
- C . Give product risk status
- D . Show trend analysis
- E . State recommendations for release
Considerable attention will be given in this project to defining exit criteria and on reporting back on their status .
Which combination of TWO exit criteria from the list would be best to use? 1 credit
I. Total number of defects found
II. Percentage of test cases executed
III. Total test effort planned versus total actual test effort spent
IV. Defect trend (number of defects found per test run over time
- A . (i) and (ii)
- B . (i) and (iv)
- C . (ii) and (iii)
- D . (ii) and (iv)
Since the system is in the medical domain and therefore in the safety critical area, testing needs to be rigorous and evidence is required that the system has been adequately tested. Identify THREE measures that would typically be part of the test approach in this domain and which are not always applicable in other domains! 1 credit
- A . High level of documentation
- B . Failure Mode and Effect Analysis (FMEA) sessions
- C . Traceability to requirements
- D . Non-functional testing
- E . Master test planning
- F . Test design techniques
- G . Reviews
Consider the typical objectives of testing .
Which of the following metrics can be used to measure the effectiveness of the testing process in achieving one of those objectives? 1 credit
- A . Average number of days between defect discovery and resolution
- B . Percentage of requirements covered
- C . Lines of code written per developer per day
- D . Percentage of test effort spent on regression testing
A test log is one of the documents that need to be produced in this domain in order to provide evidence of testing. However, the level of detail of test logs can vary .
Which of the following is NOT an influencing factor for the level of detail of the test logs being produced? 1 credit
- A . Level of test execution automation
- B . Test level
- C . Regulatory requirements
- D . Experience level of testers
You have been given responsibility for the non-functional testing of a safety-critical monitoring & diagnostics package in the medical area .
Which of the following would you least expect to see addressed in the test plan? 1 credit
- A . Availability
- B . Safety
- C . Portability
- D . Reliability
You are about to release a test progress report to a senior manager, who is not a test specialist .
Which of the following topics should NOT be included in the test progress report? 1 credit
- A . Product risks which have been mitigated and those which are outstanding.
- B . Recommendations for taking controlling actions
- C . Status compared against the started exit criteria
- D . Detailed overview of the risk-based test approach being used to ensure the exit criteria to be achieved
Topic 2, Scenario 2 "Reviews"
A software development organization wants to introduce some specific improvements to its test process. Currently, most of their testing resources are focussedon system testing. They are developing embedded software, and do not have a simulation environment to enable them to execute software modules on the development host. They have been
advised that introducing inspections and reviews could be the most appropriate step forward.
Identify the THREE types of formal peer reviews that can be recognized. 1 credit
- A . Inspection
- B . Management review
- C . Walkthrough
- D . Audit
- E . Technical review
- F . Informal review
- G . Assessment
Which of the following is an example of testing as part of the requirements specification phase? 1 credit
- A . A requirements review meeting
- B . A business analyst eliciting requirements
- C . Performing acceptance tests against requirements
- D . A test report showing requirements coverage
IEEE 1028 also defines “management review” as a type of review .
What is the main purpose of a management review? 1 credit
- A . Align technical concepts during the design phase
- B . Establish a common understanding of requirements
- C . Provide independent evaluation of compliance to processes, regulations, standards etc.
- D . To monitor progress, assess the status of a project, and make decisions about future actions
What is the main reason why reviews are especially beneficial in the above-mentioned scenario? 2 credits
- A . They ensure a common understanding of the product.
- B . They find defects early.
- C . They enhance project communication.
- D . They can be performed without exercising the code.
The introduction of reviews and inspections has often failed as a process improvement action. Identify the THREE most important measures that should be taken to reduce the risk that this test process improvement will fail. 2 Credits (for 2 out of 3 correct 1 credit)
- A . Process ownership and experienced moderators who drive the inspection process.
- B . Management support
- C . Training of those involved
- D . The availability of stands and processes
- E . Usage of a more traditional software development lifecycle
- F . Alignment with software process improvement
- G . Using a reference model, e.g. TMMi
As part of the improvement program, the organization is also looking at tool support .
Which type of tool could be used to ensure higher quality of the code to be reviewed? 1 credit
- A . Review tool
- B . Test execution tool
- C . Static analysis tool
- D . Test design tool
Topic 3, Scenario 3 "Tool Selection and Implementation"
Your company is considering whether or not to purchase a test tool suite from a respectable vendor. Your manager has searched the internet for comparable products but none of them meets his specific requirements. A tool demonstration has been arranged for next week and your team has been invited to attend. The tool suite consists of a test management tool, test execution tool and a requirements management tool. There is the possibility of adding a performance testing tool at a later stage. You have decided to attend the demo but raise some issues beforehand regarding expectations.
Which of the following would you least expect to form part of the analysis of initial tool costs? 1 credit
- A . Integration with other tools
- B . Learning time required to use the new tool
- C . Tool portability
- D . Evaluation of suitable tools
Select THREE issues from the options provided that should at least be raised. 1 credit
- A . Has there been sufficient comparison of tools?
- B . What are the problems we are trying to address?
- C . Do we have a set of tool requirements to validate the tool against?
- D . How will the implementation be organized?
- E . Which project will be selected to perform the tool pilot?
- F . Is customized training available?
- G . How will the change process be managed?
Topic 4, Scenario 4, V1 "Test Management Tool"
A software development company that sells an established capture-replay tool has decided to complement it with a test management tool. The capture-replay tool was developed over a number of years and is used by a large number of clients.
The test management tool will be developed by the same team that developed the capture-replay tool, using the same technology. The company test strategy mandates that structural testing is focussed at the component test level and dynamic non-functional testing is focussed at the acceptance test level.
In response to growing customer demand, it is proposed to develop the test management tool in an incremental manner. Each increment will be developed using the V life cycle model. The target platform is a PC in a local area network. The PC uses a proprietary relational database and communicates with a single PC which acts as a server.
The test management tool must interface with the company s capture replay tool. Over the first 12 months of the development period the following functionality will be developed for the tool (in two increments): basic requirements management, support for test case creation; support for test procedures, test scripts and test suites. The functionality to be included in later increments will be driven by customer demand: however they expect to provide an incident management system, a web front-end, and interfaces to other proprietary tools and database management systems.
Which of the following would you expect to see in the master test plan? 1 credit
- A . A description of how the test cases are cross-referenced to requirements in the test management tool.
- B . A detailed identification of the resources that will carry out structural testing in the first iteration.
- C . The test approach that will be applied at system integration testing.
- D . A list of the names of the testers who will carry out the performance testing for the final iteration.
Which of the following is a characteristic of good testing in any life cycle model? 1 credit
- A . Analysis and design of tests begins as soon as development is completed.
- B . Some, but not all, development activities have corresponding test activities.
- C . Each test level has test objectives specific to that level.
- D . All document reviews involve the development team.
Which of the following are valid reasons for adopting a different life cycle (from the V model), for increments after the first year? 2 credits
i. We do not have a clear understanding of the requirements from a customer perspective.
ii. We see the risk of delivering requested functionality late as being higher than the risk of delivering a lower quality product.
iii. We do not have a budget for additional regression testing which is needed to ensure that existing functionality is not compromised by future iterations.
iv. The company test strategy does not fit well within the V life cycle model.
- A . (i) and (ii)
- B . (i) and (iv)
- C . (ii) and (iii)
- D . (ii) and (iv)
Which of the following would be the most significant input to estimating the time to carry out the specified testing tasks? 3 credits
- A . The skills and experience of developers to correct the failures.
- B . The standards used for the requirements specification.
- C . The metrics recorded from testing the capture-replay tool.
- D . The number of testers in the company and their grade.
Which of the following would be the TWO most appropriate examples of entry criteria documented in the system integration test plan? 2 credits
- A . The percentage of decision coverage achieved during unit testing.
- B . The availability of the latest version of the capture-replay tool (for testing the interface with the newly developed test management tool).
- C . The sign-off of a performance test software release note (test item transmittal report) by both development and testing showing that system performance meets the specified acceptance criteria.
- D . The percentage of acceptance test procedures scheduled for execution.
- E . The percentage of requirements coverage achieved during system integration test.
Topic 5, Scenario 4, V2 "Test Management Tool"
The project situation after 11 months is:
– The first increment was released one week late but contained sufficient functionality to be declared fit for purpose’. However, there were 20 outstanding incidents deferred to increment two.
– The amount of voluntary overtime worked PV the test team has reduced the second Increment slippage to just 3 weeks.
– There is talk of reducing the scope of requirements. The purpose of this is to first deliver the application with support for manual testing and then to provide a delivery * weeks later to resolve any remaining points and provide support for automated testing (i.e. the link to the capture-replay tool).
– Concerns have been expressed by a section of the user community, that in some places the usability is very poor.
Which test management control option is most appropriate to adopt under these circumstances? 2 credits
- A . Introduce mandatory evening and weekend working to retrieve the 3 week slippage.
- B . Reconsider the exit criteria and review the test plan in the context of the current situation.
- C . Advise the user community regarding the reduced scope of requirements and the additional incremental delivery.
- D . Arrange a meeting with the user community representatives to discuss the user interface.
Which of the following is a project risk mitigation step you might take as test manager? 1 credit
- A . Testing for performance problems
- B . Hiring a contractor after a test analyst leaves the company
- C . Arranging a back-up test environment in case the existing one fails during testing
- D . Performing a project retrospective meeting using the test results after each increment
Which of the following is least likely to be used as a technique to identify project and product risks? 1 credit
- A . Brainstorming
- B . Inspections
- C . Expert interviews
- D . Independent assessments
Risks should be constantly reviewed. Given the current situation, which one of the following factors is most likely to lead to a revised view of product risk? 3 credits
- A . The concerns over the user interface may lead to changes to the interface which cannot be implemented by development in time for the second test iteration.
- B . The concerns over the user interface raises the likelihood of a risk in that area and increases the amount of test effort needed for the user interface, thereby limiting the test effort available for other parts of the test management tool.
- C . The delivery of the application without the interface changes may upset the user community.
- D . The method used for test estimation is not accurate enough and hence the money spent on testing exceeded its budget.
Topic 6, Scenario 5, V1"Human Resource System"
You have recently been employed as a test manager for a software house producing Human Resource (HR) systems, namely Payroll, Personnel and Recruitment systems. The company is relatively new and wants to make a major impact in the market by producing a worldwide enterprise HR product.
You have been asked to write a testing strategy for the company .
Which statement best explains how risk can be addressed within the testing strategy? 1 credit
- A . A test strategy should address identified generic product risks and present a process for mitigating those risks in line with the testing policy.
- B . A test strategy identifies the specific product for a project risk and defines the approach for the test project.
- C . A test strategy is derived from the test policy and describes the way risk assessments are performed in projects.
- D . A test strategy is the result of a project risk analysis and defines the approach and resources for testing.
Part of the testing strategy indicates that you are going to be using systematic test design techniques. Your manager has asked that you present the main advantages of using these techniques at the next board meeting. Identify THREE main benefits of using systematic test design techniques within this company. 2 credits (for 2 out of 3 correct 1 credit)
- A . Easier to quickly adapt testing to changing requirements compared to experienced-based testing
- B . Targets certain types of faults
- C . Will guide experienced testers to find defects
- D . Provides a way to differentiate depth of testing based on product risks by using different techniques
- E . More enhanced documentation and therefore higher repeatability and reproducibility
- F . Will make non-systematic testing redundant
- G . Will reduce the need for early reviews
In addition to risk, identify TWO other components of a testing strategy. 1 credit
- A . The entry and exit criteria for each test phase
- B . Test training needs for the project resources
- C . The test design techniques to be used
- D . Test performance indicators
- E . The test schedule
Topic 7, Scenario 5, V2 "Human Resource System"
For the first increment of the new enterprise HR product you have performed a product risk analysis using the FMEA method. Five risk items have been identified and the likelihood and impact have been scored using scoring tables.
This has resulted in the following scores:
What is the Risk Priority Number for risk item number 2? 2 credits
- A . 16
- B . 2
- C . 1
- D . 63
What would be a test approach regarding the test design techniques to be applied that would fit an item with the highest risk? 2 credits
- A . Component testing: decision testing; System testing: exploratory testing
- B . Component testing: decision testing; System testing: decision table testing
- C . Component testing: statement testing; System testing: equivalence partitioning
- D . Component testing: statement testing; System testing: decision table partitioning
What would be a test approach regarding the test design techniques to be applied that would fit an item with the highest risk? 2 credits
- A . Component testing: decision testing; System testing: exploratory testing
- B . Component testing: decision testing; System testing: decision table testing
- C . Component testing: statement testing; System testing: equivalence partitioning
- D . Component testing: statement testing; System testing: decision table partitioning
Which of the following is a valid drawback of independent testing? 1 credit
- A . Developer and independent testing will overlap and waste resources.
- B . Developers loose the sense of responsibility and independent testers may become a bottleneck.
- C . Independent testers need extra education and always cost more.
- D . Independent testers will become a bottleneck and introduce problems in incident management.
Which of the following is a benefit of independent testing? 1 credit
- A . Code cannot be released into production until independent testing is complete.
- B . Testing is isolated from development.
- C . Independent testers find different defects and are unbiased.
- D . Developers do not have to take as much responsibility for quality.
A number of options have been suggested for the level of independence to be employed for the testing on the next project, and are shown below.
i. External test specialists perform non-functional testing.
ii. Testing is outsourced.
iii. Testing is carried out by the developer.
iv. A separate test team carries out the testing.
v. Testing is performed by the business.
vi. Testing is performed by a different developer.
Which of the following orders the above in a correct order of independence? 1 credit
- A . i, ii, iv, vi
- B . ii, i, v, vi
- C . ii, v, i, iii
- D . i, iv, v, vi
Based on the information given in the scenario, identify how the team could be improved
most effectively? 2 credits
- A . By providing training in the payroll domain
- B . By providing a workshop on test design techniques
- C . By providing specific training on the systems being tested
- D . By providing training on reviewing requirements
Topic 9, Scenario 6, V2 "Independent Test Team"
The project has been running for a few months and the team seems not to be progressing in their test approach. The team also lacks drive and enthusiasm and is sometimes seen to be performing their tasks too slowly. You have been asked to recruit an extra person into the team.
In addition to introducing the new team member, you have decided to raise motivation .
Which of the measures listed below would be the best measure to take in order to increase the motivation of the team? 2 credits
- A . Provide more time for testing in the schedule
- B . Allow people to take some time off
- C . Introduce entry criteria to the testing phase
- D . Organize a meeting with senior management in which they address the importance of good testing for this project
Which of the following team roles would be most appropriate to enhance the team and why? 2 credits
- A . A person with the ability to complete tasks
- B . A quality assurance officer
- C . A person with in-depth technical skills
- D . A person who brings new ideas to the team
You are considering involving users during test execution. In general, what is the main reason for involving users during test execution? 1 credit
- A . They are a cheap resource
- B . They have good testing skills
- C . This can serve as a way to build their confidence in the system
- D . They have the ability to also focus on invalid test cases
Topic 10, Scenario 6, V3 "Independent Test Team"
Three exit criteria have been defined for the project:
– A: Test cases passed more than 70%
– B: Number of outstanding defects lest than 5
– C: Number of defects per test case less than 0.5
The first week of the testing has shown the following results:
Evaluate the status of the project against the defined exit criteria .
Which of the following options shows the correct status? 2 credits
- A . Criteria A = OK, criteria B = OK, criteria C = OK
- B . Criteria A = NOT OK, criteria B = NOT OK, criteria C = OK
- C . Criteria A = OK, criteria B = NOT OK, criteria C = NOT OK
- D . Criteria A = NOT OK, criteria B = NOT OK, criteria C = NOT OK
Topic 11, Scenario 6, V4 "Independent Test Team"
You have for a while been trying to hire a second test automation specialist for your test team However, you did not have any luck in finding a suitable candidate. So now, you have been asked by IT management of XYZ to forward a proposal with alternative solutions for building an automated regression test suite at system test level over a period of 2 years including needed training and eventual handover to the test team.
You have investigated different possibilities and selected four of them to present to IT management .
Which of the proposals will you most likely give your highest recommendations? 3 credits
- A . Insourcing of test automation based on an offer from a local company ABC that has people who are specialists in system level capture-replay automation tools and they also do regular training courses in test automation methods and tools. They can then work closely with Vicki.
- B . Outsourcing of test automation based on an offer from an Asian company, AsiaAutoTest, which has people who are specialists in system level capture-replay automation tools. They also offer training and besides they offer to run and maintain the regression tests in the future.
- C . Internal offer from the development department of XYZ to create the regression package using CppUnit as test automation tool. One of the development groups have very good experiences in automating unit tests, and they are willing to do training as well.
- D . Solution from a tool vendor offering to educate two test team members in the use of their easy-to-use test automation capture replay tool over the first 3 month and based on that build the regression test suite. In addition to Vicki, Steve is the only one that has time available to be educated.
Instead of having an independent test team within the company, the company is considering to outsource testing .
What are THREE key challenges that are typical for outsourcing? 1 credit
- A . Test environment more complex
- B . Define expectation for tasks and deliverables
- C . Clear channels of communications
- D . Possibly different cultures
- E . Testing of non-functional requirements
- F . Audit trail from requirements to test cases
- G . Applying test automation
Topic 12, Scenario 7 "Test Estimation"
You have been contracted to manage the acceptance testing of a new computer-based reservation system for a travel agency. You have provided an approximate budget estimate for the testing project based on previous experience with similar sized projects. However, the management of the parent company of the travel agency will not commit to the budget until detailed cost estimates are provided.
The reservation system is being developed by a third party However, detailed specifications of the software are available, as well as an estimate of the total effort that will be spent in developing the software. The software is to be delivered in four increments, and the functionality to be delivered in each increment has already been agreed on.
In general, why is it NOT a good idea to estimate the testing effort based only on a percentage of development effort? Identify THREE valid reasons. 1 credit
- A . The quality of the development estimate may be poor.
- B . In general bottom-up estimation is always better than top-down estimation.
- C . The percentage based technique only applies to the V life cycle model.
- D . Using the same percentage every time does not address the level of risk of the application to be tested.
- E . The maturity of the organization, e.g. the quality of the test basis, quality of development testing, configuration management, availability of test tools, also influence the effort needed for testing.
- F . It builds on large set of historical data
- G . The result is almost always a too low estimate for the required test effort
In general which part of the testing activity is most difficult to estimate? 1 credit
- A . Test planning
- B . Test execution
- C . Test management
- D . Test design
Which aspect in the test estimate is the main risk in this project? 1 credit
- A . Quality of the specification
- B . Availability of end-users
- C . The costs of hardware and tools
- D . Unknown input quality due to third party development
Identify THREE items that would be part of the work-breakdown structure showing the key testing activities for the acceptance test project. 2 credits (for 2 out of 3 correct 1 credit)
- A . Test planning, test case preparation and test execution for each of the four iterations
- B . Work should be explicitly allocated to test completion, test management, installation and to training on using the system
- C . Activities to deploy the system in the user environment
- D . Regression testing in the second, third and fourth iterations
- E . Development activities for unit and integration testing
- F . Reviews on requirements documentation
- G . Defining test environment requirements for system testing
Topic 13, Scenario 8, V1 "Test Process Improvement"
You have been asked to investigate various test process Improvement models to be introduced for the next project. You have been asked to provide a comparison between the TMMi and TPI models and provide a recommendation.
Model characteristics:
Which THREE of the below mentioned characteristics relate to TMMi? 1 credit
- A . 5 maturity levels
- B . Focussed on higher level testing
- C . 20 key areas
- D . Highly related to CMMI
- E . Continuous model
- F . Staged model
- G . Focussed on component and integration testing
- H . Is build around 12 critical testing processes
The test improvement project will take place in an organization developing a safety-critical avionics application .
Which one of the following standards do you believe would be most appropriate to take into account for compliance during your assignment? 1 credit
- A . ISO 9126
- B . IEEE 829
- C . BS 7925/2
- D . DO-178B
A test assessment has been carried out using the selected model as a reference framework. A number of recommendations have been identified and you are asked to prioritize them. Based on your knowledge of the project, you are expecting severe resistance to change .
Which of the following would be the most important selection criterion for defining the priority of the recommendations? 2 credits
- A . Synchronized with the overall long-term organizational strategy
- B . Defined according to the maturity model used
- C . Most visible to stakeholders
- D . Low costs actions first
Comparing TMMi and TPI, which is not a valid reason for choosing either TPI or TMMi? 2 credits
- A . If the scope of test performance improvement covers all test levels, TMMi is preferred since TPI focusses mainly on black-box testing.
- B . If the organization is already applying CMMI, TMMi may be preferred since it has the same structure and uses the same terminology. TMMi addresses management commitment very strongly and is therefore more suitable to support a top-down improvement process.
- C . TPI is much more a bottom-up model that is suitable for addressing test topics for a specific (test) project.
- D . TMMi can only be used with the traditional V model,whereas TPI can be used with all types of software life cycles.
Topic 14, Scenario 8, V2 "Test Proems Improvement’
You have raised the issue that improving the testing process is also dependent on the status of the software development process.
During test process improvement it is recommended to use standards where possible. Standards originate from various sources and they cover different subjects in relation to testing Pick TWO sources of software standards, useful to software testing from the ones mentioned below. 1 credit
- A . ISO 9126-1 ‘Software engineering- Product quality Part 1:
Quality model’ is an international standard, that provides a basis on which to define quality assurance solutions. - B . ISA 4126-1 ‘Software engineering- Product quality Part 1:
Quality model’ is an international standard, that provides a basis on which to define quality assurance solutions. - C . BS-7925-2 ‘Software testing. Software component testing is a national standard used internationally. It covers a number of testing techniques that may be useful both on component testing level and on system testing level.
- D . SY-395-01 ‘Standard for East Coast Hospital software’ is a regional standard adapted from a national one. Besides hospital software, this standard ought to be used also by other types of software system in the region.
- E . IEEE 829 ‘standard for software test documentation’ is an international standard to be following mandatory by all testing origination regardless of lifecycle models.
Which of the following phases in the fundamental test process is considered to deliver a document which can be used as a major input for test process improvement? 1 credit
- A . Test planning and control
- B . Test implementation & execution
- C . Evaluating exit criteria and reporting
- D . Test project closure
Topic 15, Scenario 9 "Test Management Documentation"
A software house is concerned about the number of defects found in software released to its customers. They are starting to plan a new software product. In the past, releases have often been stopped due to poor planning and too many defects found during high level testing. You have been recruited to the newly created position of test manager and asked to develop a test strategy, manage the testing of the project and organize the resources needed to carry out the testing.
As part of the test strategy, entry and exit criteria will be defined for each test level .
Which is NOT a valid reason for using entry and exit criteria? 1 credit
- A . The expectation is that development testing is not adequate.
- B . Exit criteria are used to decide on when to stop testing.
- C . Entry and exit criteria are a principal way for getting adequate resources.
- D . Using entry and exit criteria will prevent software that is not or poorly tested from going to the next test level.
Which THREE activities would be valid steps during the development of the test strategy?2 credits (2 out of 3 correct 1 credit)
- A . Identify test staff members that will be involved in the system test
- B . Define test career paths
- C . Understand the software development life cycle used by the software house
- D . Assess the testing that needs to be done to minimize the risks
- E . Issue the test strategy document for review
- F . Define a master test plan template
- G . Perform a project risk analysis
Within the projects, a master test plan and phase test plan will be used.
Following is a list of characteristics applicable for test plans:
a. Any deviation from the procedures described in the test
b. strategy document
c. The overall estimated costs, timescales and resource
d. requirements
e. A detailed schedule of testing activities
f. The development deliverables to be tested
g . Which test staff members (names) will be involved and when
h. Level of requirements coverage achieved
Which TWO of the above mentioned characteristics relate to the phase test plan? 1 credit
- A . a
- B . b
- C . c
- D . d
- E . e
- F . f
Within the projects, a master test plan and phase test plan will be used.
Following is a list of characteristics applicable for test plans:
a. Any deviation from the procedures described in the test strategy document
b. The overall estimated costs, timescales and resource requirements
c. A detailed schedule of testing activities
d. The development deliverables to be tested
e . Which test staff members (names) will be involved and when
f. Level of requirements coverage achieved
Which THREE of the above mentioned characteristics relate to the master test plan? 1 credit
- A . a
- B . b
- C . c
- D . d
- E . e
- F . f
Topic 16, Scenario 10, V1 "Online Application"
There is a formal requirement from the business to develop an additional on-line application to the company website which will allow existing policyholders to extend their cover for short-term foreign use of their vehicle overseas. The current manual process will be retained. The application must be implemented in months time in line with the marketing department’s green initiative, which is anticipated to generate a significant increase in demand.
The development manager has insufficient resources to meet this request and has issued an invitation to potential bidders so that the development work can be outsourced.
The application must initially cover Western Europe, and later Eastern Europe, Russia, the Middle East, the Far East and Africa. A decision has yet to be made with respect to Australia, New Zealand, North and South America.
You have been asked to ensure the quality and suitability of the document sent to potential bidders and also that the application delivered by the successful bidder is ‘Tit for purpose’.
The development manager is managing the review of the responses received from bidders, and has asked the in-house test manager to provide a review checklist for the test management aspects of the responses .
Which of the following checkpoints would be appropriate? 2 credits
- A . The bidder’s test policy should enforce that incident management fully conforms to IEEE 1044.
- B . The bidder’s project strategy shows that the data content of all the test environments conforms to EU standards.
- C . The bidder’s test plan shows that the application will be delivered for acceptance in six months time.
- D . The bidder’s project test plan depicts a phased implementation with later delivery dates to be confirmed and states that test deliverables will be developed using IEEE 829 as a
guide.
Which of the following product risks would be most effectively addressed just by static testing? 3 credits
- A . In the delivered application, one of the countries, as specified in the requirements, has not been correctly implemented.
- B . The application takes too long to process a request for additional cover.
- C . The test cases do not cover the key requirements.
- D . The successful bidder may not deliver all the required functionality on time.
Topic 17, Scenario 10, V2 "Online Application"
While waiting for the responses, the test manager has been asked to prepare test plans to validate the software application delivered by the successful bidder.
Which one of the following estimation approaches is appropriate at this stage of the project? 2 credits
- A . Create an estimate based on the function point analysis technique and test point analysis
- B . Create an estimate based on the complexity of the code
- C . Create an estimate based on the credentials of the successful bidder
- D . Create an estimate based on a percentage of the development effort
Topic 18, Scenario 10, V3 "Online Application"
The cancellation of a current major development project has released resources. The development manager has decided to respond to his own request to tender and has
proposed an in-house development with the use of a Rapid Application Development (RAO) approach.
Why might a RAD approach be a better option for the test manager rather than a sequential development? 2 credits
- A . It will extend the development team’s abilities and enhance future delivery capabilities.
- B . It will allow the marketing, clerical and testing staff to validate and verify the early screen prototypes.
- C . Time-box constraints will guarantee code releases are delivered on schedule.
- D . More time can be spent on test execution as less formal documentation is required.
Which of the following is NOT a typical key challenge for testing in a RAD based development approach? 1 credit
- A . Re-usable test scripts for (automated) regression testing
- B . Project management and control
- C . No complete requirements specification
- D . Time-boxing
The business has asked for a weekly progress report .
Which of the following would be appropriate as a measure of test coverage? 2 credits
- A . Percentage of business requirements exercised
- B . Percentage of planned hours worked this week
- C . Percentage of countries that have test scenarios
- D . Percentage of test iterations completed
As a result of the RAD based development approach, the test manager has decided to change the risk mitigation approach .
Which test technique might be most appropriate to use? 2 credits
- A . Decision Table Testing
- B . Boundary Value Analysis
- C . Error Guessing
- D . Exploratory Testing
As a result of the RAD based development approach, the test manager has decided to change the risk mitigation approach .
Which test technique might be most appropriate to use? 2 credits
- A . Decision Table Testing
- B . Boundary Value Analysis
- C . Error Guessing
- D . Exploratory Testing
Regarding the process described above, what is the most important recommendation you would make using IEEE 1044 as a guide? 2 credits
- A . No priority or severity assigned
- B . Incident numbering is manual rather than automated
- C . No mentioning of reproduceability
- D . No classification on type of incident
Topic 20, Scenario 12 “Automatic Teller Machine (ATM)”
You are a test manager in charge of integration, system and acceptance testing for a bank. You are working on a project to upgrade an existing ATM to allow customers to obtain cash advances from supported credit cards. The system should allow cash advances from 20 to 500, inclusively, for all supported credit cards. The supported credit cards are American Express, VISA, Eurocard and Mastercard.
In the master test plan the following items are listed in the section named “items and/or features to be tested”:
I All supported credit cards
II Language localization
II Valid and invalid advances IV Usability
V Response time
Given is the following defect removal chart reported at the end of system testing – showing total defects detected and closed defects (fixed and successfully retested). A number of open defects are classified as critical. All tests have been executed.
Based on the chart above, what is the most appropriate next test phase? 1 credit
- A . Acceptance testing to verify the business process
- B . Acceptance testing to verify operational requirements
- C . Requirements testing as part of testing regulatory compliance
- D . Another system test cycle to verify defect resolution
Relying only on the information provided in the scenario, select the TWO items and/or features for which sufficient information is available to proceed with test design. 2 credits
- A . All supported credit cards
- B . Language localization
- C . Valid and invalid advances
- D . Usability
- E . Response time
Given the following figures for the testing on a project, and assuming the failure rate for initial tests remains constant and that all retests pass, what number of tests remain to be run? 3 credits
- A . 700
- B . 720
- C . 784
- D . 570
Continuing with the Scenario described in the previous question, which of the following topics would you need to address in detail in the master test plan? 3 credits
- A . An approach to regression testing
- B . A list of boundary values for “advance amount”
- C . A description of dependencies between test cases
- D . A logical collection of test cases
Topic 21, Mix Questions Set A
When assembling a test team to work on an enhancement to an existing system, which of the following has the highest level of test independence?
- A . A business analyst who wrote the original requirements for the system.
- B . A permanent programmer who reviewed some of the new code, but has not written any of it.
- C . A permanent tester who found most defects in the original system.
- D . A contract tester who has never worked for the organization before.
D
Explanation:
In this scenario, the contract tester who has never worked for the organization before has the highest level of test independence. The three others are less independent as they are likely to make assumptions based on their previous knowledge of the requirements, code and general functionality of the original system.
Note that independence does not necessarily equate to most useful. In practice most test or project managers would recruit a permanent tester who has worked on the original system in preference to a contract tester with no knowledge of the system. However, when assembling a team it would be useful to have staff with varying levels of test independence and system knowledge.
Consider the following pseudo code:
1 Begin
2 Read Time
3 If Time < 12 Then
4 Print(Time, "am")
5 Endif
6 If Time > 12 Then
7 Print(Time 12, "pm")
8 Endif
9 If Time = 12 Then
10 Print (Time, "noon")
11 Endif
12 End
How many test cases are needed to achieve 100 per cent decision coverage?
- A . 1
- B . 2
- C . 3
- D . 4
C
Explanation:
The three decisions are in sequence and the conditions are all mutually exclusive (if any one is true the others must be false). Hence a test case that makes the first decision true will make the second and third decisions false and so on.
So test case 1 (say Time = 6) would exercise the path True, False, False, test case 2 (say Time = 15) would exercise the path False, True, False. Test case 3 would have to be Time = 12. This combination achieves 100 per cent decision coverage because each decision has been exercised through its true and its false outcomes.
Acceptance test cases are based on what?
- A . Requirements
- B . Design
- C . Code
- D . Decision table
What should be the MAIN objective during development testing?
- A . To cause as many failures as possible so that defects in the software are identified and can be fixed
- B . To confirm that the system works as expected and that requirements have been met
- C . To assess the quality of the software with no intention of fixing defects
- D . To give information to stakeholders of the risk of releasing the system at a given time
Which statement correctly describes the public and profession aspects of the code of ethics?
- A . Public: Certified software testers shall act in the best interests of their client and employer (being consistent with the wider public interest). Profession: Certified software testers shall advance the integrity and reputation of their industry consistent with the public interest.
- B . Public: Certified software testers shall advance the integrity and reputation of the profession consistent with the public interest. Profession: Certified software testers shall consider the wider public interest in their actions.
- C . Public: Certified software testers shall consider the wider public interest in their actions. Profession: Certified software testers shall participate in lifelong learning regarding the practice of their profession and shall promote an ethical approach to the practice of their profession.
- D . Public: Certified software testers shall consider the wider public interest in their actions.
Profession: Certified software testers shall advance the integrity and reputation of their industry consistent with the public interest.
D
Explanation:
All other answers contain an activity identified as analysis and design that is part of implementation and test execution.
Which of the following terms is used to describe the management of software components comprising an integrated system?
- A . Configuration management
- B . Incident management
- C . Test monitoring
- D . Risk management
A
Explanation:
Incident management is the collection and processing of incidents raised when errors and defects are discovered. Test monitoring identifies the status of the testing activity on a continuous basis. Risk management identifies, analyses and mitigates risks to the project and the product. Configuration management is concerned with the management of changes to software components and their associated documentation and test ware.
Which of the following pairs of test tools are likely to be most useful during the test analysis and design stage of the fundamental test process?
(i) Test execution tool
(ii) Test data preparation tool
(iii) Test management tool
(iv) Requirements management tool
- A . (i) and (ii)
- B . (i) and (iv)
- C . (ii) and (iii)
- D . (iii) and (iv)
Which of the following is usually the test basis for integration testing?
- A . Program specification
- B . Functional specification
- C . Technical specification
- D . Requirement specification
C
Explanation:
Option (A) is used for unit testing.
Option (B) is used for system testing and
Option (D) is used for acceptance testing.
Which of the following are the most important factors to be taken into account when selecting test techniques?
(i) Tools available.
(ii) Regulatory standards.
(iii) Experience of the development team.
(iv) Knowledge of the test team.
The need to maintain levels of capability in each technique.
- A . (i) and (ii)
- B . (ii) and (iv)
- C . (iii) and (iv)
- D . (i) and (v)
B
Explanation:
Answer (i) looks temptingly right, and the availability of tools might make the use of a technique more or less attractive, but it would not be decisive in the way that regulatory standards and tester knowledge are.
Answer (iii) is irrelevant because testing should be independent of development anyway, but it could tempt someone who is unsure about the relationship between development and testing.
Answer (v) is a factor in managing the test team, and experience would need to be maintained, but this should not influence the selection of techniques for a live project.
Which of the following is correct?
Debugging is:
- A . Testing/checking whether the software performs correctly.
- B . Checking that a previously reported defect has been corrected.
- C . Identifying the cause of a defect, repairing the code and checking the fix is correct.
- D . Checking that no unintended consequences have occurred as a result of a fix.
C
Explanation:
A top-down development strategy affects which level of testing most?
- A . Component testing
- B . Integration testing
- C . System testing
- D . User acceptance testing
B
Explanation:
The development strategy will affect the component testing (option (A)), in so far as it cannot be tested unless it has been built. Options (C) and (D) require the system to have been delivered; at these points the development strategy followed is not important to the tester. Option (B) needs knowledge of the development strategy in order to determine the order in which components will be integrated and tested.
Which of the following is the main purpose of the component build and integration strategy?
- A . to ensure that all of the small components are tested
- B . to ensure that the system interfaces to other systems and networks
- C . to ensure that the integration testing can be performed by a small team
- D . to specify how the software should be divided into components
- E . to specify which components to combine when, and how many at once
What is the concept of introducing a small change to the program and having the effects of that change show up in some test..?
- A . Introducing mutations
- B . Performance testing
- C . A mutation error
- D . Debugging a program
Which is not the testing objective?
- A . Finding defects
- B . Gaining confidence about the level of quality and providing information
- C . Preventing defects.
- D . Debugging defects
The difference between re-testing and regression testing is:
- A . Re-testing is running a test again; regression testing looks for unexpected side effects
- B . Re-testing looks for unexpected side effects; regression testing is repeating those tests
- C . Re-testing is done after faults are fixed; regression testing is done earlier
- D . Re-testing uses different environments, regression testing uses the same environment
- E . Re-testing is done by developers, regression testing is done by independent testers
What is the purpose of exit criteria?
- A . To identify how many tests to design.
- B . To identify when to start testing.
- C . To identify when to stop testing.
- D . To identify who will carry out the test execution.
What is important to do when working with software development models?
- A . To adapt the models to the context of project and product characteristics.
- B . To choose the waterfall model because it is the first and best proven model.
- C . To start with the V-model and then move to either iterative or incremental models.
- D . To only change the organization to fit the model and not vice versa.
Security falls under..?
- A . compliance testing
- B . disaster testing
- C . verifying compliance to rules
- D . functional testing
- E . ease of operations
What do static analysis tools analyze?
- A . Design
- B . Test cases
- C . Requirements
- D . Program code
What benefits do static analysis tools have over test execution tools?
- A . Static analysis tools find defects earlier in the life cycle.
- B . Static analysis tools can be used before code is written.
- C . Static analysis tools test that the delivered code meets business requirements.
- D . Static analysis tools are particularly effective for regression testing.
Which of the following is not a part of the Test Implementation and Execution Phase?
- A . Creating test suites from the test cases
- B . Executing test cases either manually or by using test execution tools
- C . Comparing actual results
- D . Designing the Tests
Designing the test environment set-up and identifying any required infrastructure and tools are a part of which phase:
- A . Test Implementation and execution
- B . Test Analysis and Design
- C . Evaluating the Exit Criteria and reporting
- D . Test Closure Activities
“How much testing is enough?”
- A . This question is impossible to answer
- B . This question is easy to answer
- C . The answer depends on the risk for your industry, contract and special requirements
- D . This answer depends on the maturity of your developers
A deviation from the specified or expected behavior that is visible to end-users is called:
- A . an error
- B . a fault
- C . a failure
- D . a defect
A system is designed to accept values of examination marks as follows:
Fail: 0C39 inclusive
Pass: 40C59 inclusive
Merit: 60C79 inclusive
Distinction: 80C100 inclusive
In which of the following sets of values are all values in different equivalence partitions?
- A . 25, 40, 60, 75
- B . 0, 45, 79, 87
- C . 35, 40, 59, 69
- D . 25, 39, 60, 81
Which one of the following roles is typically used in a review?
- A . Champion.
- B . Author.
- C . Project sponsor.
- D . Custodian.
B
Explanation:
The Author is the only role that is typically used in a review.
A Champion might sponsor the review process but is not a defined role within an actual review; a Project Sponsor, if technically competent, might be asked to play a defined role within the review process, but whilst using that role they will not be a Project Sponsor; finally, a Custodian might ensure the results are stored safely but would not be involved in the actual review itself.
What can a risk-based approach to testing provide?
- A . The types of test techniques to be employed.
- B . The total tests needed to provide 100 per cent coverage.
- C . An estimation of the total cost of testing.
- D . Only that test execution is effective at reducing risk.
Which of the following defines the expected result of a test?
- A . Test case
- B . Test procedure
- C . Test execution schedule
- D . Test condition
A software component has the code shown below:
Program BiggestA,
Biggest: Integer
Begin
Read A
Biggest = 10
While A > 0
Do
If A > Biggest
Then Biggest = A
Endif
Read A
Enddo
End
The component has exit criteria for component testing that include 100% statement coverage .
Which of the following test cases will satisfy this criterion?
- A . 0
- B . 10, 0
- C . 10, 5, 0
- D . 10, 11, 0
Which of the following is most likely to cause failure in the implementation of a test tool?
- A . Underestimating the demand for a tool.
- B . The purchase price of the tool.
- C . No agreed requirements for the tool.
- D . The cost of resources to implement and maintain the tool.
Important consequences of the impossibility of complete testing are:
- A . We can never be certain that the program is bug free.
- B . We have no definite stopping point for testing, which makes it easier for some managers to argue for very little testing.
- C . We have no easy answer for what testing tasks should always be required, because every task takes time that could be spent on other high importance tasks.
- D . All of the above
Which of the following has the typical formal review activities in the correct sequence?
- A . Kick-off, review meeting, planning, follow-up.
- B . Kick-off, planning, review meeting, re-work.
- C . Planning, kick-off, individual preparation, review meeting.
- D . Planning, individual preparation, follow-up, re-work.
C
Explanation:
The correct sequence is: planning, kick-off, individual preparation, review meeting, re-work, follow-up. All of the other options have either the activities in the wrong order or activities missing from the strict flow.
What if the project isn’t big enough to justify extensive testing..?
- A . Use risk based analysis to find out which areas need to be tested
- B . Use automation tool for testing
- C . Both a and b
- D . None of the above
What do you mean by “Having to say NO”..?
- A . No, the problem is not with testers
- B . No, the software is not ready for production
- C . Both a & b
- D . None of the above
What test roles (or parts in the testing process) is a developer most likely to perform?
(i) Executing component integration tests.
(ii) Static analysis.
(iii) Setting up the test environment.
(iv) Deciding how much testing should be automated.
- A . (i) and (ii)
- B . (i) and (iv)
- C . (ii) and (iii)
- D . (iii) and (iv)
A
Explanation:
(i) Executing component integration tests is usually done by developers. Developers are usually responsible for unit and component integration testing. Independent testing usually follows at system and acceptance test levels.
(ii) Static analysis is usually done by developers because: it requires an understanding of the code and therefore the person doing this needs skills in the programming language; and it can be done as soon as the code is written. Therefore it is quick and effective for the developer to do it. The risk of a lack of test independence can be mitigated by performing independent system and acceptance testing.
(iii) Setting up the test environment is an activity typically performed by a tester. It may require support from developers and staff from other departments and on some occasions environments could be set up by developers. However, it is a task that could be done by a tester rather than a developer.
(iv) Deciding how much testing should be automated is typically a decision made by the test leader, who will consult other staff in the decision-making process. Developers may be involved and their skills may be required to automate some tests. However, the decision on how much to automate should not be made by developers.