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HP HPE6-A85 Aruba Certified Campus Access Associate Exam Online Training

Question #1

What is the correct command to add a static route to a class-c-network 10.2.10.0 via a gateway of 172.16.1.1?

  • A . ip-route 10.2.10.0/24 172.16.1.1
  • B . ip route 10.2.10.0.255.255.255.0 172.16.1.1 description aruba
  • C . ip route 10.2.10.0/24.172.16.11
  • D . ip route-static 10.2 10.0.255.255.255.0 172.16.1.1

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Correct Answer: A
A

Explanation:

The correct command to add a static route to a class-c-network 10.2.10.0 via a gateway of 172.16.1.1 is ip-route 10.2.10.0/24 172.16.1.1. This command specifies the destination network address (10.2.10.0) and prefix length (/24) and the next-hop address (172.16.1 .1) for reaching that network from the switch. The other commands are either incorrect syntax or incorrect parameters for adding a static route.

References: https://www.arubanetworks.com/techdocs/AOS-CX_10_04/NOSCG/Content/cx-noscg/ip-routing/sta

Question #2

When would you bond multiple 20MHz wide 802.11 channels?

  • A . To decrease the Signal to Noise Ratio (SNR)
  • B . To increase throughput between the client and AP
  • C . To provision highly available AP groups
  • D . To utilize high gain omni-directional antennas

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Correct Answer: B
B

Explanation:

Bonding multiple 20MHz wide 802.11 channels is a technique to create a wider bandwidth channel that supports higher data rate transmissions. It can increase the throughput between the client and AP by using more spectrum resources and reducing interference.

References: https://ieeexplore.ieee.org/document/9288995

Question #3

What is indicated by a solid amber radio status LED on an Aruba AP?

  • A . Not enough PoE is provided from the switch to power both radios of the AP
  • B . The radio is working in mesh mode
  • C . The radio is working the 5 GHz band only.
  • D . The radio is enabled in monitor or spectrum analysis mode

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Correct Answer: A
A

Explanation:

On an Aruba AP, a solid amber radio status LED indicates: A. Not enough PoE is provided from the switch to power both radios of the AP

When the radio status LED on an Aruba AP shows a solid amber color, it typically signifies that the PoE (Power over Ethernet) supplied by the switch is insufficient to power both radios of the AP (usually the 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz bands). This may require checking the PoE budget of the switch or using a higher-powered PoE source.

Other options, such as the radio working in mesh mode, operating only in the 5 GHz band, or being enabled in monitor or spectrum analysis mode, typically do not result in the LED showing a solid amber color.

Question #4

What does WPA3-Personal use as the source to generate a different Pairwise Master Key (PMK) each time a station connects to the wireless network?

  • A . Session-specific information (MACs and nonces)
  • B . Opportunistic Wireless Encryption (OWE)
  • C . Simultaneous Authentication of Equals (SAE)
  • D . Key Encryption Key (KEK)

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Correct Answer: C
Question #5

Which flew in a Layer 3 IPv4 packet header is used to mitigate Layer 3 route loops?

  • A . Checksum
  • B . Time To Live
  • C . Protocol
  • D . Destination IP

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Correct Answer: B
B

Explanation:

The field in a Layer 3 IPv4 packet header that is used to mitigate Layer 3 route loops is Time To Live (TTL). TTL is an 8-bit field that indicates the maximum number of hops that a packet can traverse before being discarded. TTL is set by the source device and decremented by one by each router that forwards the packet. If TTL reaches zero, the packet is dropped and an ICMP Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) is a network protocol that provides error reporting and diagnostic functions for IP networks. ICMP is used to send messages such as echo requests and replies (ping), destination unreachable, time exceeded, parameter problem, source quench, redirect, etc. ICMP messages are encapsulated in IP datagrams and have a specific format that contains fields such as type, code, checksum, identifier, sequence number, data, etc. ICMP messages can be verified by using commands such as ping,

traceroute, debug ip icmp, etc. message is sent back to the source device. TTL is used to mitigate Layer 3 route loops because it prevents packets from circulating indefinitely in a looped network topology. TTL also helps to conserve network resources and avoid congestion caused by looped packets.

The other options are not fields in a Layer 3 IPv4 packet header because:

– Checksum: Checksum is a 16-bit field that is used to verify the integrity of the IP header. Checksum is calculated by the source device and verified by the destination device based on the values of all fields in the IP header. Checksum does not mitigate Layer 3 route loops because it does not limit the number of hops that a packet can traverse.

– Protocol: Protocol is an 8-bit field that indicates the type of payload carried by the IP datagram. Protocol identifies the upper-layer protocol that uses IP for data transmission, such as TCP Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) is a connection-oriented transport layer protocol that provides reliable, ordered, and error-checked delivery of data between applications on different devices. TCP uses a three-way handshake to establish a connection between two endpoints, and uses sequence numbers, acknowledgments, and windowing to ensure data delivery and flow control. TCP also uses mechanisms such as retransmission, congestion avoidance, and fast recovery to handle packet loss and congestion. TCP segments data into smaller units called segments, which are encapsulated in IP datagrams and have a specific format that contains fields such as source port, destination port, sequence number, acknowledgment number, header length, flags, window size, checksum, urgent pointer, options, data, etc. TCP segments can be verified by using commands such as telnet, ftp, ssh, debug ip tcp transactions, etc ., UDP User Datagram Protocol (UDP) User Datagram Protocol (UDP) is a connectionless transport layer protocol that provides

Question #6

A network administrator with existing IAP-315 access points is interested in Aruba Central and needs to know which license is required for specific features Please match the required license per feature (Matches may be used more than once.)

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Correct Answer:

Explanation:

a) Alerts on config changes via email – Foundation

b) Group-based firmware compliance – Foundation

c) Heat maps of deployed APs – Advanced

d) Live upgrades of an AOS10 cluster – Advanced

According to the Aruba Central Licensing Guide1, the Foundation License provides basic device management features such as configuration, monitoring, alerts, reports, firmware management, etc. The Advanced License provides additional features such as AI insights, WLAN services, NetConductor Fabric, heat maps, live upgrades, etc.

https://www.arubanetworks.com/techdocs/central/2.5.3/content/pdfs/licensing-guide.pdf


Question #7

A network technician is troubleshooting one new AP at a branch office that will not receive Its configuration from Aruba Central. The other APs at the branch are working as expected. The output of the ‘show ap debug cloud-server command’ shows that the "cloud conflg received" Is FALSE.

After confirming the new AP has internet access, what would you check next?

  • A . Disable and enable activate to trigger provisioning refresh
  • B . Verify the AP can ping the device on arubanetworks.com
  • C . Verify the AP has a license assigned
  • D . Disable and enable Aruba Central to trigger configuration refresh

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Correct Answer: C
C

Explanation:

If the AP has internet access but does not receive its configuration from Aruba Central, one possible reason is that the AP does not have a license assigned in Aruba Central. A license is required for each AP to be managed by Aruba Central.

References: https://www.arubanetworks.com/techdocs/Central/2.5.2-GA/HTML_frameset.htm#GUID-8F0E7E8

Question #8

A network technician is using Aruba Central to troubleshoot network issues.

Which dashboard can be used to view and acknowledge issues when beginning the troubleshooting process?

  • A . the Alerts and Events dashboard
  • B . the Audit Trail dashboard
  • C . the Reports dashboard
  • D . the Tools dashboard

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Correct Answer: A
A

Explanation:

The Alerts and Events dashboard displays all types of alerts and events generated for events pertaining to device provisioning, configuration, and user management. You can use the Config icon to configure alerts and notifications for different alert categories and severities1. You can also view the alerts and events in the List view and Summary view2.

References:

1 https://www.arubanetworks.com/techdocs/central/latest/content/nms/alerts/configuring-alerts.htm

2 https://www.arubanetworks.com/techdocs/central/latest/content/nms/alerts/viewing-alerts.htm

Question #9

You need to configure wireless access for several classes of loT devices, some of which operate only with 802 11b. Each class must have a unique PSK and will require a different security policy applied as a role There will be 15-20 different classes of devices and performance should be optimized

Which option fulfills these requirements?

  • A . Single SSID with MPSK for each loT class using 5 GHz and 6 GHz bands
  • B . Single SSID with MPSK for each loT class using 2.4GHz and 5 GHz bands
  • C . Individual SSIDs with unique PSK for each loT class, using 5GHz and 6 GHz bands
  • D . Individual SSIDs with unique PSK for each loT class, using 2.4GHZ and 5GHz band

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Correct Answer: B
Question #10

Which commands are used to set a default route to 10.4.5.1 on an Aruba CX switch when ln-band management using an SVl is being used?

  • A . iP default-gateway 10.4.5.1
  • B . ip route 0 0 0.070 10.4 5.1 vrf mgmt
  • C . ip route 0.0 0 0/0 10.4.5.1
  • D . default-gateway 10.4.5.1

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Correct Answer: C
C

Explanation:

The command that is used to set a default route to 10.4.5.1 on an Aruba CX switch when in-band management using an SVI is being used is ip route 0.0 0 0/0 10.4.5.1. This command specifies the destination network address (0.0 0 0) and prefix length (/0) and the next-hop address (10.4.5.1) for reaching any network that is not directly connected to the switch. The default route applies to the default VRF Virtual Routing and Forwarding. VRF is a technology that allows multiple instances of a routing table to co-exist within the same router at the same time. VRFs are typically used to segment network traffic for security, privacy, or administrative purposes., which is used for in-band management traffic that goes through an SVI Switch Virtual Interface. SVI is a virtual interface on a switch that allows the switch to route packets between different VLANs on the same switch or different switches that are connected by a trunk link. An SVI is associated with a VLAN and has an IP address and subnet mask assigned to it12. References:

1 https://www.arubanetworks.com/techdocs/AOS-CX/10_08/HTML/ip_route_4100i-6000-6100-6200/Content/Ch

2 https://www.arubanetworks.com/techdocs/AOS-CX/10_08/HTML/ip_route_4100i-6000-6100-6200/Content/Ch

Question #11

Which Protocol Data Unit (PDU) represents the data link layer PDU?

  • A . PDU1 – Signal
  • B . PDU2 – Frame
  • C . PDU3 – Packet
  • D . PDU4 – Segment

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Correct Answer: B
B

Explanation:

A frame is the data link layer PDU that encapsulates the network layer PDU (packet) with a header and a trailer that contain information such as source and destination MAC addresses, frame type, error detection, etc. A frame is transmitted over a physical medium such asEthernet, Wi-Fi, etc.

References: https://www.arubanetworks.com/techdocs/ArubaOS_86_Web_Help/Content/arubaos-solutions/1-ov

Question #12

When using Aruba Central what can identify recommended steps to resolve network health issues and allows you to share detailed information with support personnel?

  • A . Overview Dashboard
  • B . OAlOps
  • C . Alerts and Events
  • D . Audit Trail

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Correct Answer: B
B

Explanation:

OAlOps is a feature of Aruba Central that uses artificial intelligence and machine learning to identify recommended steps to resolve network health issues and allows you to share detailed information with support personnel. OAlOps provides insights into network performance, root cause analysis, anomaly detection, proactive alerts, and automated remediation actions. OAlOps also integrates with Aruba User Experience Insight (UXI) sensors to measure and improve user experience across wired and wireless networks.

References: https://www.arubanetworks.com/assets/ds/DS_ArubaCentral.pdf

Question #13

You need to troubleshoot an Aruba CX 6200 4-node VSF stack switch that fails to boot correctly Select the option that allows you to access the switch and see the boot options available for OS images and ServiceOS.

  • A . Member 2 RJ-45 console port
  • B . Member 2 switch mgmt port
  • C . Conductor USB-C console port
  • D . Conductor mgmt port using SSH

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Correct Answer: C
Question #14

A hospital uses a lot of mobile equipment for the diagnosis and documentation of patient data.

What Is the ideal access switch for this large hospital with distribution racks of over 400 ports in a single VSF stack?

  • A . OCX 6300
  • B . OCX 6400
  • C . OCX 6200
  • D . OCX 6100

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Correct Answer: A
A

Explanation:

The ideal access switch for a large hospital with distribution racks of over 400 ports in a single VSF stack is the CX 6300.

This switch provides the following benefits:

– The CX 6300 supports up to 48 ports per switch and up to 10 switches per VSF stack, allowing for a total of 480 ports in a single stack. This meets the requirement of having over 400 ports in a single VSF stack.

– The CX 6300 supports high-performance switching with up to 960 Gbps of switching capacity and up to 714 Mpps of forwarding rate. This meets the requirement of having high throughput and low latency for mobile equipment and patient data.

– The CX 6300 supports advanced features such as dynamic segmentation, policy-based routing, and role-based access control. These features enhance the security and flexibility of the network by applying different policies and roles to different types of devices and users.

– The CX 6300 supports Aruba NetEdit, a network configuration and orchestration tool that simplifies the management and automation of the network. This reduces the complexity and human errors involved in network configuration and maintenance.

The other options are not ideal because:

– OCX 6400: This switch is designed for data center applications and does not support VSF stacking. It also does not support dynamic segmentation or policy-based routing, which are useful for network security and flexibility.

– OCX 6200: This switch is designed for small to medium-sized businesses and does not support VSF stacking. It also has lower switching capacity and forwarding rate than the CX 6300, which may affect the performance of the network.

– OCX 6100: This switch is designed for edge applications and does not support VSF stacking. It also has lower switching capacity and forwarding rate than the CX 6300, which may affect the performance of the network.

References:

https://www.arubanetworks.com/assets/ds/DS_CX6300Series.pdf

https://www.arubanetworks.com/assets/ds/DS_OC6400Series.pdf

https://www.arubanetworks.com/assets/ds/DS_OC6200Series.pdf

https://www.arubanetworks.com/assets/ds/DS_OC6100Series.pdf

Question #15

Which device configuration group types can a user define in Aruba Central during group creation? (Select two.)

  • A . Security group
  • B . Template group
  • C . Default group
  • D . Ul group
  • E . ESP group

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Correct Answer: B C
B C

Explanation:

Aruba Central allows you to create device configuration groups that define common settings for devices within each group. You can create different types of groups depending on your network requirements and management preferences.

Two types of groups that you can define in Aruba Central during group creation are:

– Template group: A template group allows you to create configuration templates using variables and expressions that can be applied to multiple devices or device groups. Template groups provide flexibility and scalability for managing large-scale deployments with similar configurations.

– Default group: A default group is automatically created when you add devices to Aruba Central for the first time. The default group contains basic configuration settings that are applied to all devices that are not assigned to any other group. You can modify or delete the default group as needed.

References:

https://www.arubanetworks.com/techdocs/Central/latest/content/nms/device-groups.htm

https://www.arubanetworks.com/techdocs/Central/latest/content/nms/template-groups.htm

https://www.arubanetworks.com/techdocs/Central/latest/content/nms/default-group.htm

Question #16

What can be done to dynamically set the PoE Priority on a switch port when deploying IP cameras APs. and other PoE devices?

  • A . Enable Quick PoE on the switch modules
  • B . Enable profiling for device provisioning
  • C . Configure PoE power management to Class-based Mode
  • D . Configure PoE power management to Dynamic Mode

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Correct Answer: C
Question #17

Please match the use case to the appropriate authentication technology

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Correct Answer:

Explanation:

Based on the information provided, here are the matches for the use case to the appropriate authentication technology:

ClearPass Policy Manager:

Authenticate users on corporate-owned Chromebook devices using 802.1X and context gathered from the network devices that they log into.

Validate devices exist in a Mobile Device Management (MDM) database before authenticating BYOD users with corporate Active Directory using certificates.

Cloud Authentication and Policy:

Add certificates to Android devices with the Aruba Onboard Application in the Google Play store that will be used for wireless authentication.

Leverage unbound Multi Pre-Shared Keys (MPSK) managed by Aruba Central to the end-users and client devices.

The ClearPass Policy Manager is a comprehensive network access control (NAC) and policy management platform that can authenticate devices using 802.1X, as well as integrate with MDM systems for device validation. The Cloud Authentication and Policy is likely referring to cloud-based services such as Aruba Central, which can manage MPSK and distribute certificates for device authentication.


Question #17

Please match the use case to the appropriate authentication technology

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Correct Answer:

Explanation:

Based on the information provided, here are the matches for the use case to the appropriate authentication technology:

ClearPass Policy Manager:

Authenticate users on corporate-owned Chromebook devices using 802.1X and context gathered from the network devices that they log into.

Validate devices exist in a Mobile Device Management (MDM) database before authenticating BYOD users with corporate Active Directory using certificates.

Cloud Authentication and Policy:

Add certificates to Android devices with the Aruba Onboard Application in the Google Play store that will be used for wireless authentication.

Leverage unbound Multi Pre-Shared Keys (MPSK) managed by Aruba Central to the end-users and client devices.

The ClearPass Policy Manager is a comprehensive network access control (NAC) and policy management platform that can authenticate devices using 802.1X, as well as integrate with MDM systems for device validation. The Cloud Authentication and Policy is likely referring to cloud-based services such as Aruba Central, which can manage MPSK and distribute certificates for device authentication.


Question #17

Please match the use case to the appropriate authentication technology

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Correct Answer:

Explanation:

Based on the information provided, here are the matches for the use case to the appropriate authentication technology:

ClearPass Policy Manager:

Authenticate users on corporate-owned Chromebook devices using 802.1X and context gathered from the network devices that they log into.

Validate devices exist in a Mobile Device Management (MDM) database before authenticating BYOD users with corporate Active Directory using certificates.

Cloud Authentication and Policy:

Add certificates to Android devices with the Aruba Onboard Application in the Google Play store that will be used for wireless authentication.

Leverage unbound Multi Pre-Shared Keys (MPSK) managed by Aruba Central to the end-users and client devices.

The ClearPass Policy Manager is a comprehensive network access control (NAC) and policy management platform that can authenticate devices using 802.1X, as well as integrate with MDM systems for device validation. The Cloud Authentication and Policy is likely referring to cloud-based services such as Aruba Central, which can manage MPSK and distribute certificates for device authentication.


Question #17

Please match the use case to the appropriate authentication technology

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Correct Answer:

Explanation:

Based on the information provided, here are the matches for the use case to the appropriate authentication technology:

ClearPass Policy Manager:

Authenticate users on corporate-owned Chromebook devices using 802.1X and context gathered from the network devices that they log into.

Validate devices exist in a Mobile Device Management (MDM) database before authenticating BYOD users with corporate Active Directory using certificates.

Cloud Authentication and Policy:

Add certificates to Android devices with the Aruba Onboard Application in the Google Play store that will be used for wireless authentication.

Leverage unbound Multi Pre-Shared Keys (MPSK) managed by Aruba Central to the end-users and client devices.

The ClearPass Policy Manager is a comprehensive network access control (NAC) and policy management platform that can authenticate devices using 802.1X, as well as integrate with MDM systems for device validation. The Cloud Authentication and Policy is likely referring to cloud-based services such as Aruba Central, which can manage MPSK and distribute certificates for device authentication.


Question #17

Please match the use case to the appropriate authentication technology

Reveal Solution Hide Solution

Correct Answer:

Explanation:

Based on the information provided, here are the matches for the use case to the appropriate authentication technology:

ClearPass Policy Manager:

Authenticate users on corporate-owned Chromebook devices using 802.1X and context gathered from the network devices that they log into.

Validate devices exist in a Mobile Device Management (MDM) database before authenticating BYOD users with corporate Active Directory using certificates.

Cloud Authentication and Policy:

Add certificates to Android devices with the Aruba Onboard Application in the Google Play store that will be used for wireless authentication.

Leverage unbound Multi Pre-Shared Keys (MPSK) managed by Aruba Central to the end-users and client devices.

The ClearPass Policy Manager is a comprehensive network access control (NAC) and policy management platform that can authenticate devices using 802.1X, as well as integrate with MDM systems for device validation. The Cloud Authentication and Policy is likely referring to cloud-based services such as Aruba Central, which can manage MPSK and distribute certificates for device authentication.


Question #17

Please match the use case to the appropriate authentication technology

Reveal Solution Hide Solution

Correct Answer:

Explanation:

Based on the information provided, here are the matches for the use case to the appropriate authentication technology:

ClearPass Policy Manager:

Authenticate users on corporate-owned Chromebook devices using 802.1X and context gathered from the network devices that they log into.

Validate devices exist in a Mobile Device Management (MDM) database before authenticating BYOD users with corporate Active Directory using certificates.

Cloud Authentication and Policy:

Add certificates to Android devices with the Aruba Onboard Application in the Google Play store that will be used for wireless authentication.

Leverage unbound Multi Pre-Shared Keys (MPSK) managed by Aruba Central to the end-users and client devices.

The ClearPass Policy Manager is a comprehensive network access control (NAC) and policy management platform that can authenticate devices using 802.1X, as well as integrate with MDM systems for device validation. The Cloud Authentication and Policy is likely referring to cloud-based services such as Aruba Central, which can manage MPSK and distribute certificates for device authentication.


Question #23

Make sure the interfaces are all ON.

Which configuration script will achieve the task?

  • A . Edge1# conf t vlan 20 name Mgmt interface vlan 20 ip address 10.1.1.10/24 no shut interface lag 1 shut vlan access 20 lacp mode active Int 1/1/51.1/1/52 shut no routing lag 1 interface lag 1 no shut
  • B . Edgel# conf t vlan 20 name Mgmt interface vlan 20 ip address 10 1.1 10/24 no shut interface 1/1/51.1/1/52 shut vlan trunk native 20 vlan trunk allowed all lag 1 lacp mode active interface 1/1/51.1/1/52 no shut
  • C . Edgel# conf t vlan 20 name Mgmt interface vlan 20 ip address 10 1 1 10/24 no shut interface lag 1 shut vlan trunk native 20 vlan trunk allowed all lacp mode active Int 1/1/51.1/1/52 shut no routing lag 1 interface lag 1 no shut interface 1/1/51.1/1/52 no shut
  • D . conf t vlan 20 name Mgmt ip address 10 1 1.10/24 no shut interface lag 1 shut vlan trunk native 1 vlan trunk allowed all lacp mode active int 1/1/51.1/1/52 shut no routing interface lag 1 no shut interface 1/1/51.1/1/52 no shut

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Correct Answer: C
C

Explanation:

This configuration script will achieve the task as it follows the guidelines given by the Senior Engineer. It creates VLAN 20 with name Mgmt, adds L3 SVI on VLAN 20 with IP address 10.1.1.10/24, creates LAG 1 with LACP mode active for the uplink, uses VLAN 20 as the native VLAN on the LAG, and ensures that the interfaces are all ON.

References: https://www.arubanetworks.com/techdocs/AOS-CX/10.04/HTML/5200-6790/GUID-8F0E7E8B-0F4

Question #24

Based on the "snow ip route" output on an AruDaCX 8400. what type of route is "10.1 20 0/24, vrf default via 10.1.12.2. [1/0]"?

  • A . local
  • B . static
  • C . OSPF
  • D . connected

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Correct Answer: B
B

Explanation:

A static route is a route that is manually configured on a router or switch and does not change unless it is modified by an administrator. Static routes are used to specify how traffic should reach specific destinations that are not directly connected to the device or that are not reachable by dynamic routing protocols. In Aruba CX switches, static routes can be configured using the ip route command in global configuration mode. Based on the “show ip route” output on an Aruba CX 8400 switch, the route “10.1 20 0/24, vrf default via 10.1.12.2, [1/0]” is a static route because it has an administrative distance of 1 and a metric of 0, which are typical values for static routes.

References:

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Static_routing

https://www.arubanetworks.com/techdocs/AOS-CX_10_04/NOSCG/Content/cx-noscg/ip-routing/static-routes.h

Question #25

Which statement is correct when comparing 5 GHz and 6 GHz channels with identical channel widths?

  • A . 5 GHz channels travel the same distances and provide different throughputs to clients compared to 6 GHz channels
  • B . 5 GHz channels travel different distances and provide different throughputs to clients compared to 6 GHz channels
  • C . 5 GHz channels travel the same distances and provide the same throughputs to clients compared to 6 GHz channels
  • D . 5 GHz channels travel different distances and provide the same throughputs to clients compared to 6 GHz channels

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Correct Answer: B
Question #26

What is the ideal Aruba access switch for a cost-effective connection to 200-380 clients, printers and APs per distribution rack?

  • A . Aruba CX 6400
  • B . Aruba CX 6200
  • C . Aruba CX 6300
  • D . Aruba CX 6000

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Correct Answer: C
C

Explanation:

The ideal Aruba access switch for a cost-effective connection to 200-380 clients, printers and APs per distribution rack is the Aruba CX 6200. This switch series is a cloud-manageable, stackable access switch series that is ideal for enterprise branch offices and campus networks, as well as SMBs.

The CX 6200 series offers the following benefits:

– Enterprise-class connectivity: The CX 6200 series supports ACLs, robust QoS, and common protocols such as static and Access OSPF routing.

– Power and speed for users and IoT: The CX 6200 series provides built-in 1/10GbE uplinks and 30W to 60W of Class 4 to Class 6 PoE for powering devices such as APs and cameras.

– Scalable growth made simple: The CX 6200 series supports Aruba Virtual Switching Framework (VSF) that allows you to quickly grow your network to eight members in a single stack using high-performance built-in 10G SFP ports.

– Management flexibility: The CX 6200 series supports a choice of management, including cloud-based and on-prem Central, CLI, switch Web GUI and programmability with AOS-CX operating system, and REST APIs.

The other options are not ideal because:

– Aruba CX 6400: This switch series is a high-availability modular switch series that is ideal for versatile edge access to data center deployments. It offers more performance, scalability, and modularity than the CX 6200 series, but it is also more expensive and complex to deploy and manage. It may not be cost-effective for connecting 200-380 clients per distribution rack.

– Aruba CX 6300: This switch series is a layer 3 stackable access and aggregation switch series that offers Smart Rate and High Power PoE. It offers more features and performance than the CX 6200 series, but it is also more expensive and may not be necessary for connecting 200-380 clients per distribution rack.

– Aruba CX 6000: This switch series is a layer 2 access switch series that offers PoE. It offers less features and performance than the CX 6200 series, and it does not support VSF stacking or routing protocols. It may not be sufficient for connecting 200-380 clients per distribution rack.

References:

https://www.arubanetworks.com/products/switches/access/

https://www.arubanetworks.com/products/switches/access/6200-series/

https://www.arubanetworks.com/products/switches/access/6400-series/

https://www.arubanetworks.com/products/switches/access/6300-series/

https://www.arubanetworks.com/products/switches/access/6000-series/

Question #27

Which statement about manual switch provisioning with Aruba Central is correct?

  • A . Manual provisioning does not require DHCP and requires DNS
  • B . Manual provisioning does not require DHCP and does not require DNS
  • C . Manual provisioning requires DHCP and does not require DNS
  • D . Manual provisioning requires DHCP and requires DNS

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Correct Answer: B
B

Explanation:

Manual provisioning is a method to add switches to Aruba Central without using DHCP or DNS. It requires the user to enter the switch serial number, MAC address, and activation code in Aruba Central, and then configure the switch with the same activation code and Aruba Central’s IP address.

References: https://help.central.arubanetworks.com/latest/documentation/online_help/content/devices/switches/p

Question #28

What is an advantage of using Layer 2 MAC authentication?

  • A . it matches user names to MAC address
  • B . No setup is required on the client
  • C . MAC allow lists are easily maintained over time
  • D . MAC identifiers are hard to spoof

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Correct Answer: B
B

Explanation:

Layer 2 MAC authentication is a method of authenticating devices based on their MAC addresses without requiring any client-side configuration or credentials. The switch sends the MAC address of the device to an authentication server such as ClearPass or RADIUS, which checks if the MAC address is authorized to access the network. If yes, the switch grants access to the device based on the assigned role and policies. If no, the switch denies access or redirects the device to a captive portal for further authentication.

References: https://www.arubanetworks.com/techdocs/ArubaOS_86_Web_Help/Content/arubaos-solutions/1-ov

Question #29

What is the recommended VSF topology? (Select two.)

  • A . Star
  • B . Daisy chain plus MAD
  • C . Full mesh
  • D . Full mesh plus MAD
  • E . Ring

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Correct Answer: B E
B E

Explanation:

Only: Daisy chain plus MAD and ring are the recommended VSF topologies for Aruba switches. They provide high availability and redundancy for the VSF stack. MAD (Multiple Active Detection) is a mechanism to detect and resolve split-brain scenarios in a VSF stack.

References: https://www.arubanetworks.com/techdocs/AOS-CX/10.04/HTML/5200-6790/GUID-D6EF042E-EE

Question #30

You put in a few show commands on switches EDGE1 and CORE1 to attempt to gather information to troubleshoot the issue Use the show command output images to determine the reason for the EDGE1 uplink being down

  • A . The physical interfaces are not members of the correct LAG.
  • B . Spanning-Tree block state is preventing the Core uplink from having connectivity to the edge
  • C . The Core is connected to the incorrect physical interlaces
  • D . LACP is not configured on the Core uplink

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Correct Answer: D
D

Explanation:

LACP is a protocol that allows multiple physical links to be aggregated into a single logical link for increased bandwidth and redundancy. LACP must be configured on both ends of the link for it to work properly. In this case, EDGE1 has LACP configured on its uplink port-channel 1, but CORE1 does not have LACP configured on its corresponding port-channel 1. This causes a mismatch and prevents the link from coming up.

References: https://www.arubanetworks.com/techdocs/ArubaOS_86_Web_Help/Content/arubaos-solutions/1-ov

Question #31

You need to drop excessive broadcast traffic on ingress to an ArubaOS-CX switch.

What is the best technology to use for this task?

  • A . Rate limiting
  • B . DWRR queuing
  • C . QoS shaping
  • D . Strict queuing

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Correct Answer: A
A

Explanation:

The best technology to use for dropping excessive broadcast traffic on ingress to an ArubaOS-CX switch is rate limiting. Rate limiting is a feature that allows network administrators to control the amount of traffic that enters or leaves a port or a VLAN on a switch by setting bandwidth thresholds or limits. Rate limiting can be used to prevent network congestion, improve network performance, enforce service level agreements(SLAs), or mitigate denial-of-service (DoS) attacks. Rate limiting can be applied to broadcast traffic on ingress to an ArubaOS-CX switch by using the storm-control command in interface configuration mode. This command allows network administrators to specify the percentage of bandwidth or packets per second that can be used by broadcast traffic on an ingress port. If the broadcast traffic exceeds the specified threshold, the switch will drop the excess packets.

The other options are not technologies for dropping excessive broadcast traffic on ingress because:

– DWRR queuing: DWRR stands for Deficit Weighted Round Robin, which is a queuing algorithm that assigns different weights or priorities to different traffic classes or queues on an egress port. DWRR ensures that each queue gets its fair share of bandwidth based on its weight while avoiding starvation of lower priority queues. DWRR does not drop excessive broadcast traffic on ingress, but rather schedules outgoing traffic on egress.

– QoS shaping: QoS stands for Quality of Service, which is a set of techniques that manage network resources and provide different levels of service to different types of traffic based on their requirements. QoS shaping is a technique that delays or buffers outgoing traffic on an egress port to match the available bandwidth or rate limit. QoS shaping does not drop excessive broadcast traffic on ingress, but rather smooths outgoing traffic on egress.

– Strict queuing: Strict queuing is another queuing algorithm that assigns different priorities to different traffic classes or queues on an egress port. Strict queuing ensures that higher priority queues are always served before lower priority queues regardless of their bandwidth requirements or weights. Strict queuing does not drop excessive broadcast traffic on ingress, but rather schedules outgoing traffic on egress.

References:

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Rate_limiting

https://www.arubanetworks.com/techdocs/AOS-CX_10_08/NOSCG/Content/cx-noscg/qos/storm-control .htm

https://www.arubanetworks.com/techdocs/AOS-CX_10_08/NOSCG/Content/cx-noscg/qos/dwrr.htm

https://www.arubanetworks.com/techdocs/AOS-CX_10_08/NOSCG/Content/cx-noscg/qos/shaping.htm

https://www.arubanetworks.com/techdocs/AOS-CX_10_08/NOSCG/Content/cx-noscg/qos/strict.htm

Question #32

Which authentication does Aruba’s Captive Portal use?

  • A . Layer 3 authentication
  • B . MAC authentication
  • C . 802.1x authentication
  • D . Layer 2 authentication

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Correct Answer: A
A

Explanation:

Aruba’s Captive Portal uses Layer 3 authentication, which means that it intercepts the client’s HTTP requests and redirects them to a web page where the client can enter their credentials. The credentials are then verified by a RADIUS server or a local database before granting network access.

References: https://www.arubanetworks.com/techdocs/Instant_86_WebHelp/Content/instant-ug/captive-portal/ca

Question #33

Where are wireless client roaming decisions made?

  • A . Client device
  • B . Virtual Controller
  • C . Joint decision made by the origination and destination APs
  • D . Aruba Central

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Correct Answer: A
A

Explanation:

Wireless client roaming decisions are made by the client device based on its own criteria, such as signal strength, noise level, data rate, etc. The network can influence the client’s roaming decision by providing information such as neighbor reports, load balancing, band steering, etc., but the final decision is up to the client.

References: https://www.arubanetworks.com/techdocs/Instant_86_WebHelp/Content/instant-ug/wlan-roaming/cl

Question #34

Which feature can network administrators use to centralized RF planning and optimization service when using an Aruba mobility master architecture?

  • A . Airwave
  • B . Client Match
  • C . AirMatch
  • D . Client Wave

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Correct Answer: C
C

Explanation:

AirMatch is a feature that provides centralized RF planning and optimization service for Aruba wireless networks. It uses cloud-based algorithms and machine learning to optimize the RF performance and user experience.

References: https://www.arubanetworks.com/assets/ds/DS_AirMatch.pdf

Question #35

Match the feature to the Aruba OS version (Matches may be used more than once.)

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Correct Answer:

Explanation:

Features: 1) Clustered Instant Access Points Aruba OS version: a) Aruba OS 8

Features: 2) Dynamic Radius Proxy Aruba OS version: a) Aruba OS 8

Features: 3) Scales to more than 10,000 devices Aruba OS version: b) Aruba OS 10

Features: 4) Unifies wired and wireless management Aruba OS version: a) Aruba OS 8

Features: 5) Wireless controllers Aruba OS version: a) Aruba OS 8

ArubaOS is the operating system for all Aruba Mobility Controllers (MCs) and controller-managed wireless access points (APs). ArubaOS 8 delivers unified wired and wireless access, seamless roaming, enterprise grade security, and a highly available network with the required reliability to support high density environments1.

Some of the features of ArubaOS 8 are:

– Clustered Instant Access Points: This feature allows multiple Instant APs to form a cluster and share configuration and state information. This enables seamless roaming, load balancing, and fast failover for clients2.

– Dynamic Radius Proxy: This feature allows an MC to act as a proxy for RADIUS authentication requests from clients or APs. This simplifies the configuration and management of RADIUS servers and reduces the network traffic between MCs and RADIUS servers3.

– Wireless controllers: Aruba wireless controllers are devices that centrally manage and control the wireless network. They provide functions such as AP provisioning, configuration, security, policy enforcement, and network optimization.

ArubaOS 10 is the next-generation operating system that works with Aruba Central, a cloud-based network management platform. ArubaOS 10 delivers greater scalability, security, and AI-powered optimization across large campuses, branches, and remote work environments. Some of the features of ArubaOS 10 are:

– Scales to more than 10,000 devices: ArubaOS 10 can support up to 10,000 devices per cluster, which is ten times more than ArubaOS 8. This enables customers to scale their networks without compromising performance or reliability.

– Unifies wired and wireless management: ArubaOS 10 provides a single platform for managing both wired and wireless devices across the network. Customers can use Aruba Central to configure, monitor, troubleshoot, and update their devices from anywhere.

Both ArubaOS 8 and ArubaOS 10 share some common features, such as:

– Unifies wired and wireless management: Both operating systems provide unified wired and wireless

access for customers who use Aruba switches and APs. Customers can use a single interface to manage

their entire network infrastructure1.

References:

1 https://www.arubanetworks.com/resource/arubaos-8-fundamental-guide/

2 https://www.arubanetworks.com/techdocs/Instant_86_WebHelp/Content/instant-ug/iap-maintenance/clus

3 https://www.arubanetworks.com/techdocs/ArubaOS_86_Web_Help/Content/arubaos-solutions/1-overvie

https://www.arubanetworks.com/products/networking/controllers/

https://www.arubanetworks.com/products/network-management-operations/arubaos/

https://blogs.arubanetworks.com/solutions/making-the-switch/

https://www.arubanetworks.com/products/network-management-operations/aruba-central/


Question #36

When using an Aruba standalone AP you select "Native VLAN" for the Client VLAN Assignment.

In which subnet will the client IPs reside?

  • A . The same subnet as the mobility controller
  • B . The same subnet as the Aruba ESP gateway
  • C . The same subnet as the mobility conductor
  • D . The same subnet as the access point

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Correct Answer: D
D

Explanation:

When using an Aruba standalone AP, selecting “Native VLAN” for the Client VLAN Assignment means that the clients will get their IP addresses from the same subnet as the access point’s IP address. This is because the access point acts as a DHCP server for the clients in this mode.

References: https://www.arubanetworks.com/techdocs/Instant_86_WebHelp/Content/instant-ug/iap-dhcp/iap-dhc

Question #37

When performing live firmware upgrades on Aruba APs.

Which technology partitions all the APs based on RF neighborhood data minimizing the impact on clients?

  • A . Aruba ClientMatch
  • B . Aruba Ai insights
  • C . Aruba AirMatch
  • D . Aruba ESP

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Correct Answer: C
C

Explanation:

Aruba AirMatch is a feature that optimizes RF Radio Frequency. RF is any frequency within the electromagnetic spectrum associated with radio wave propagation. When an RF current is supplied to an antenna, an electromagnetic field is created that then is able to propagate through space. performance and user experience by using machine learning algorithms and historical data to dynamically adjust AP power levels, channel assignments, and channel width. AirMatch performs live firmware upgrades on Aruba APs by partitioning all the APs based on RFneighborhood data and minimizing the impact on clients. AirMatch uses a rolling upgrade process that upgrades one partition at a time while ensuring that adjacent partitions are not upgraded simultaneously.

References: https://www.arubanetworks.com/assets/ds/DS_AirMatch.pdfhttps://www.arubanetworks.com/techdocs/ArubaOS

Question #38

You are configuring a network with a stacked pair of 6300M switches used for distribution and layer 3 services. You create a new VLAN for users that will be used on multiple access stacks of CX6200 switches connected downstream of the distribution stack You will be creating multiple VLANs/subnets similar to this will be utilized in multiple access stacks

What is the correct way to configure the routable interface for the subnet to be associated with this VLAN?

  • A . Create a physically routed interface in the subnet on the 6300M stack for each downstream switch.
  • B . Create an SVl in the subnet on each downstream switch
  • C . Create an SVl in the subnet on the 6300M stack, and assign the management address of each downstream switch stack to a different IP address in the same subnet
  • D . Create an SVl in the subnet on the 6300M stack.

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Correct Answer: D
D

Explanation:

The correct way to configure the routable interface for the subnet to be associated with this VLAN is to create an SVI Switched Virtual Interface (SVI) Switched Virtual Interface (SVI) is a virtual interface on a switch that represents a VLAN and provides Layer 3 routing functions for that VLAN. SVIs are used to enable inter-VLAN routing, provide gateway addresses for hosts in VLANs, apply ACLs or QoS policies to VLANs, etc. SVIs have some advantages over physical routed interfaces such as saving interface ports, reducing cable costs, simplifying network design, etc. SVIs are usually numbered according to their VLAN IDs (e.g., vlan 10) and assigned IP addresses within the subnet of their VLANs. SVIs can be created and configured by using commands such as interface vlan, ip address, no shutdown, etc. SVIs can be verified by using commands such as show ip interface brief, show vlan, show ip route, etc. in the subnet on the 6300M stack. An SVI is a virtual interface on a switch that represents a VLAN and provides Layer 3 routing functions for that VLAN. Creating an SVI in the subnet on the 6300M stack allows the switch to act as a gateway for the users in that VLAN and enable inter-VLAN routing between different subnets. Creating an SVI in the subnet on the 6300M stack also simplifies network design and management by reducing the number of physical interfaces and cables required for routing.

The other options are not correct ways to configure the routable interface for the subnet to be associated with this VLAN because:

– Create a physically routed interface in the subnet on the 6300M stack for each downstream switch: This option is incorrect because creating a physically routedinterface in the subnet on the 6300M stack for each downstream switch would require using one physical port and cable per downstream switch, which would consume interface resources and increase cable costs. Creating a physically routed interface in the subnet on the 6300M stack for each downstream switch would also complicate network design and management by requiring separate routing configurations and policies for each interface.

– Create an SVl in the subnet on each downstream switch: This option is incorrect because creating an SVI in the subnet on each downstream switch would not enable inter-VLAN routing between different subnets, as each downstream switch would act as a gateway for its own VLAN only. Creating an SVI in the subnet on each downstream switch would also create duplicate IP addresses in the same subnet, which would cause IP conflicts and routing errors.

– Create an SVl in the subnet on the 6300M stack, and assign the management address of each downstream switch stack to a different IP address in the same subnet: This option is incorrect because creating an SVI in the subnet on the 6300M stack, and assigning the management address of each downstream switch stack to a different IP address in the same subnet would not enable inter-VLAN routing between different subnets, as each downstream switch would still act as a gateway for its own VLAN only. Creating an SVI in the subnet on the 6300M stack, and assigning the management address of each downstream switch stack to a different IP address in the same subnet would also create unnecessary IP addresses in the same subnet, which would waste IP space and complicate network management.

References:

https://www.arubanetworks.com/techdocs/AOS-CX/10.05/HTML/5200-7295/index.html https://www.arubanetworks.com/techdocs/AOS-CX/10.05/HTML/5200-7295/cx-noscg/l3-routing/l3-routing-ov

https://www.arubanetworks.com/techdocs/AOS-CX/10.05/HTML/5200-7295/cx-noscg/l3-routing/l3-routing-co

Question #39

Refer to the exhibit.

In the given topology, a pair of Aruba CX 8325 switches are in a VSX stack using the active gateway.

What is the nature and behavior of the Virtual IP for the VSX pair if clients are connected to the access switch using VSX as the default gateway?

  • A . Virtual IP is active on the primary VSX switch
  • B . Virtual floating IP will failover in case of a failure
  • C . Virtual IP is active on both CX switches
  • D . Virtual IP uses SVI IP address synced with VSX

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Correct Answer: A
A

Explanation:

Virtual Switching Extension (VSX) is a feature that allows two Aruba CX switches to operate as a single logical device with a single control plane and data plane. VSX provides high availability, scalability, and simplified management for campus and data center networks3. In VSX, one switch is designated as the primary switch and the other as the secondary switch. The primary switch owns and responds to ARP Address Resolution Protocol. ARP is a communication protocol used for discovering the link layer address, such as a MAC address, associated with a given internet layer address, typically an IPv4 address. This mapping is a critical function in the Internet protocol suite. requests for the virtual IP address of the VSX pair4. The virtual IP address is used as the default gateway for clients connected to the access switch. If the primary switch fails, the secondary switch takes over the virtual IP address and continues to forward traffic for the clients5.

References:

3 https://www.arubanetworks.com/techdocs/AOS-CX_10_04/UG/Content/cx-ug/vsx/vsx-overview.htm

4 https://www.arubanetworks.com/techdocs/AOS-CX_10_04/UG/Content/cx-ug/vsx/vsx-ip-addressing.htm

5 https://www.arubanetworks.com/techdocs/AOS-CX_10_04/UG/Content/cx-ug/vsx/vsx-failover.htm

Question #40

What are two advantages of a UXl? (Select two.)

  • A . A UXl can be used without any internet connection
  • B . A UXl helps to calculate the best WiFi channels in a remote location
  • C . A UXl behaves like a client/user
  • D . A UXl measures the Wi-Fi coverage of all APs in the given location.
  • E . A UXl can check different applications, such as HTTP VOIP or Office 365.

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Correct Answer: C E
C E

Explanation:

A UXI (User Experience Insight) is a device that simulates user behavior and tests network performance from the user perspective. It can check different applications, such as HTTP, VOIP, or Office 365, and measure metrics such as latency, jitter, packet loss, and throughput.

References: https://www.arubanetworks.com/products/networking/user-experience-insight/

Question #41

What are the main characteristics of the 6 GHz band?

  • A . Less RF signal is absorb by objects in a 6 GHz WLAN.
  • B . In North America, the 6 GHz band offers more 80 MHz channels than there are 40 MHz channels in the 5 GHz band.
  • C . The 6 GHz band is fully backward compatible with the existing bands.
  • D . Low Power Devices are allowed for indoor and outdoor usage.

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Correct Answer: B
B

Explanation:

The main characteristic of the 6 GHz band that is true among the given options is that in North America, the 6 GHz band offers more 80 MHz channels than there are 40 MHz channels in the 5 GHz band. This characteristic provides more spectrum availability, less interference, and higher throughput for wireless devices that support Wi-Fi 6E Wi-Fi Enhanced (Wi-Fi 6E) is an extension of Wi-Fi 6 (802.11ax) standard that operates in the newly available unlicensed frequency spectrum around 6 GHz in addition to existing bands below it.

Some facts about this characteristic are:

– In North America, there are up to seven non-overlapping channels available in each of three channel widths (20 MHz, 40 MHz, and 80 MHz) in the entire unlicensed portion of the new spectrum (5925C7125 MHz). This means there are up to 21 non-overlapping channels available for Wi-Fi devices in total.

– In comparison, in North America, there are only nine non-overlapping channels available in each of two channel widths (20 MHz and 40 MHz) in the entire unlicensed portion of the existing spectrum below it (2400C2483 MHz and 5150C5825 MHz). This means there are only up to nine non-overlapping channels available for Wi-Fi devices in total.

– Therefore, in North America, there are more than twice as many non-overlapping channels available in each channel width in the new spectrum than in the existing spectrum below it.

– Specifically, there are more than twice as many non-overlapping channels available at 80 MHz width (seven) than at 40 MHz width (three) in the existing spectrum below it.

The other options are not true because:

– Less RF signal is absorbed by objects in a 6 GHz WLAN: This option is false because higher frequency signals tend to be more absorbed by objects than lower frequency signals due to higher attenuation Attenuation is a general term that refers to any reduction in signal strength during transmission over distance or through an object or medium. Therefore, RF signals in a 6 GHz WLAN would be more absorbed by objects than RF signals in a lower frequency WLAN.

– The 6 GHz band is fully backward compatible with existing bands: This option is false because Wi-Fi devices need to support Wi-Fi 6E standard to operate in the new spectrum around 6 GHz. Existing Wi-Fi devices that do not support Wi-Fi 6Estandard cannot use this spectrum and can only operate in existing bands below it.

– Low Power Devices are allowed for indoor and outdoor usage: This option is false because Low Power Indoor Devices (LPI) are only allowed for indoor usage under certain power limits and registration requirements. Outdoor usage of LPI devices is prohibited by regulatory authorities such as FCC Federal Communications Commission (FCC) is an independent agency of United States government that regulates communications by radio, television, wire, satellite, and cable across United States. However, outdoor usage of Very Low Power Devices (VLP) may be allowed under certain power limits and without registration requirements.

References:

https://www.wi-fi.org/discover-wi-fi/wi-fi-certified-6e

https://www.wi-fi.org/file/wi-fi-alliance-spectrum-needs-study

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/wireless/spectrum-expert-wi-fi/prod_white_paper0900aecd80

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless-mobility/wireless-lan-wlan/82068-power-levels.html

https://www.wi-fi.org/file/wi-fi-alliance-unlicensed-spectrum-in-the-us

Question #42

After having configured the edge switch uplink as requested your colleague says that they have failed to ping the core You ask your colleague to verify the connection is plugged in and the switch is powered on They confirm that both are correct You attempt to ping the core switch and confirm that the ping is failing.

Knowing the nature of this deployment, what commands might you use to troubleshoot this issued

  • A . Ping 10.11 1 – ping the core to attempt to verify connectivity Show trunk – to verify if the LAG interface was correctly added to the switch Show spanning tree – to check for spanning-tree blocked states Show port-access clients interface all – to view any port-access blocking states or failed authentication attempts on all interfaces Show run interface vlan20 – to double check the layer 3 svi configuration is correct for l_3 connectivity Show lldp neighors – to verify whether you are able to see the Core as an L2 neighbor to verify if the correct links are plugged in to the correct ports
  • B . diagnostic diag cable-diag 1/1/51 diag cable-diag 1/1/52 – to view diagnostic information for the physical link to get a status on any interruptions to Layer 1 connectivity, show ip route – to verify that the default gateway is present in the routing table show ip ospf – to check whether there is a layer 3 routing protocol enabled show ip dns – to view whether there is a valid dns source
  • C . Ping 10.1.1.1 – ping the core to attempt to verify connectivity show lacp agg – to verify which link aggregations are currently configured using which physical ports show lacp int – to verify the LACP status and whether any links are blocking in your topology show lldp neighors – to verify whether you are able to see the Core as an L2 neighbor to verify if the correct links are plugged in to the correct ports show run interface 1/1/51.1/1/52-to ensure the physical interfaces are no-shut and members of the lag show run interface lag 1 – to ensure the correct vlan trunking configuration is applied to the logical interface show run int vlan 20 – to ensure you have the L3 SVI no shut and configured in the correct subnet
  • D . Show run – to view the running configuration of the switch Show run | begin 20 "vlan 20" – to ensure VLAN 20 was correctly added to the database show run | begin 20 ‘interface vlan 20’ – to view the L3 SVI configuration Show run interface 1/1/51.1/1/52 – to ensure the physical interfaces are no shut and were added as members of LAG 1 Show run int lag 1 – to verify LACP mode active was configured to eliminate LACP blocking states

Reveal Solution Hide Solution

Correct Answer: C
C

Explanation:

These commands might help troubleshoot this issue as they check various aspects of the connectivity between the edge switch and the core switch, such as Layer 3 reachability, Layer 2 adjacency, LACP configuration and status, VLAN trunking configuration, and interface status.

References: https://www.arubanetworks.com/techdocs/AOS-CX_10_04/CLI/GUID-8F0E7E8B-0F4B-4A3C-AE

Question #43

Match the phase of message processing with the Open Systems interconnection (OSl) layer.

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Correct Answer:

Explanation:

In the OSI model, data is handled differently at each layer. Here is the correct matching of the phase of message processing with the OSI layer:

Physical Layer: Organizes the data into bits.

Data Link Layer: Organizes the data into frames.

Network Layer: Organizes the data into packets.

Transport Layer: Organizes the data into segments.

The Physical Layer is responsible for the transmission of raw bits over a physical medium. The Data Link Layer encapsulates packets into frames with MAC addresses for node-to-node communication. The Network Layer is responsible for packet forwarding including routing through intermediate routers. The Transport Layer provides reliable data transfer services to the upper layers and handles the segmentation and reassembly of data.


Question #44

When measuring signal strength, dBm is commonly used and 0 dBm corresponds to 1 mW power.

What does -20 dBm correspond to?

  • A . .-1 mW
  • B . .01 mw
  • C . 10 mW
  • D . 1mW

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Correct Answer: B
B

Explanation:

dBm is a unit of power that measures the ratio of a given power level to 1 mW. The formula to convert dBm to mW is: P(mW) = 1mW * 10^(P(dBm)/10). Therefore, -20 dBm corresponds to 0.01 mW, as follows: P(mW) = 1mW * 10^(-20/10) = 0.01 mW

References: https://www.rapidtables.com/convert/power/dBm_to_mW.html

Question #45

The noise floor measures 000000001 milliwatts, and the receiver’s signal strength is -65dBm.

What is the Signal to Noise Ratio?

  • A . 35 dBm
  • B . 15 dBm
  • C . 45 dBm
  • D . 25 dBm

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Correct Answer: D
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