Management decides to implement a risk management system to reduce and maintain the organization’s risk at an acceptable level.
Which of the following is the correct order in the risk management phase?
- A . Risk Identification, Risk Assessment, Risk Treatment, Risk Monitoring & Review
- B . Risk Treatment, Risk Monitoring & Review, Risk Identification, Risk Assessment
- C . Risk Assessment, Risk Treatment, Risk Monitoring & Review, Risk Identification
- D . Risk Identification. Risk Assessment. Risk Monitoring & Review, Risk Treatment
A
Explanation:
The correct order in the risk management phase starts with Risk Identification, where potential business risks are determined. This is followed by Risk Assessment, which involves analyzing and prioritizing the identified risks. Next is Risk Treatment, where plans are made to mitigate the risks. Finally, Risk Monitoring & Review is conducted to oversee the risk management process and make necessary adjustments. This sequence ensures a structured and effective approach to managing risks within an organization.
Reference: The sequence aligns with the widely recognized ISO 31000 risk management standard, which outlines these core steps in managing risks123.
John has implemented ________ in the network to restrict the limit of public IP addresses in his organization and to enhance the firewall filtering technique.
- A . DMZ
- B . Proxies
- C . VPN
- D . NAT
D
Explanation:
Network Address Translation (NAT) is a network function that translates private IP addresses into a public IP address. This technique restricts the number of public IP addresses required by an organization, as multiple devices on a private network can share a single public IP address. NAT also enhances firewall filtering techniques by hiding the internal IP addresses from the external network, which adds a layer of security by making it more difficult for attackers to target specific devices within the organization’s network. It is a common practice in network security to use NAT in conjunction with firewalls to manage the traffic entering and leaving the network, ensuring that only authorized access is permitted.
Reference: The information provided aligns with the Certified Network Defender (CND) program’s focus on network defense fundamentals, including the application of network security controls like NAT12. Additionally, NAT’s role in conserving IP addresses and providing security by hiding internal network addresses is well-documented and is part of the network security best practices345.
What command is used to terminate certain processes in an Ubuntu system?
- A . #grep Kill [Target Process}
- B . #kill-9[PID]
- C . #ps ax Kill
- D . # netstat Kill [Target Process]
B
Explanation:
In Ubuntu, to terminate a specific process, you would use the kill command followed by the signal you want to send and the Process ID (PID) of the target process. The -9 signal is the SIGKILL signal, which forcefully terminates the process. The correct syntax is kill -9 [PID], where [PID] is replaced with the actual numerical ID of the process you wish to terminate.
Reference: This information is consistent with standard Linux documentation and practices as well as the Certified Network Defender (CND) course material, which covers system administration and security tasks including process management. The kill command is a fundamental tool for process management in Unix-like operating systems, which is covered in the CND curriculum.
Consider a scenario consisting of a tree network. The root Node N is connected to two man nodes N1 and N2. N1 is connected to N11 and N12. N2 is connected to N21 and N22.
What will happen if any one of the main nodes fail?
- A . Failure of the main node affects all other child nodes at the same level irrespective of the main node.
- B . Does not cause any disturbance to the child nodes or its tranmission
- C . Failure of the main node will affect all related child nodes connected to the main node
- D . Affects the root node only
C
Explanation:
In a tree network, each node is connected in a hierarchical manner, with the root node at the top. If a main node (such as N1 or N2) fails, all the child nodes connected to it (N11, N12 for N1 and N21, N22 for N2) will be affected because the tree structure relies on the connectivity of the parent node to its children. The failure of a main node will disrupt the transmission path from the root to the child nodes, leading to a loss of connectivity for those child nodes. This is consistent with the principles of network resilience and fault tolerance as outlined in the EC-Council’s Certified Network Defender (CND) program, which emphasizes the importance of each node in maintaining the network’s overall integrity.
Reference: The explanation is based on the standard network topologies and fault tolerance principles covered in the EC-Council’s Certified Network Defender (CND) curriculum.
Stephanie is currently setting up email security so all company data is secured when passed through email. Stephanie first sets up encryption to make sure that a specific user’s email is protected. Next, she needs to ensure that the incoming and the outgoing mail has not been modified or altered using digital signatures.
What is Stephanie working on?
- A . Confidentiality
- B . Availability
- C . Data Integrity
- D . Usability
C
Explanation:
Stephanie is working on ensuring data integrity for her company’s email communications. Data integrity refers to the assurance that data has not been altered or tampered with during transit. By setting up encryption, Stephanie is ensuring confidentiality, which protects the contents of the email from being read by unauthorized parties. However, to ensure that the emails have not been modified, she is implementing digital signatures. Digital signatures provide a means to verify the authenticity of the sender and to ensure that the message has not been changed, which directly relates to the concept of data integrity in cybersecurity.
Reference: The information aligns with the objectives and documents of the EC-Council’s Certified Network Defender (CND) program, which emphasizes the importance of protecting data integrity through measures like digital signatures as part of a defense-in-depth security strategy1.
An enterprise recently moved to a new office and the new neighborhood is a little risky. The CEO wants to monitor the physical perimeter and the entrance doors 24 hours.
What is the best option to do this job?
- A . Install a CCTV with cameras pointing to the entrance doors and the street
- B . Use fences in the entrance doors
- C . Use lights in all the entrance doors and along the company’s perimeter
- D . Use an IDS in the entrance doors and install some of them near the corners
A
Explanation:
The best option for 24-hour monitoring of the physical perimeter and entrance doors is to install a CCTV system. CCTV cameras serve as both a deterrent to unauthorized entry and a means of surveillance to monitor activities. They can be positioned to cover the entrance doors and the street, providing a broad view of the area that needs to be secured. This aligns with the principles of intrusion detection and prevention, which include deterrence through visible security measures like cameras, and detection through continuous monitoring.
Reference: The information aligns with the core principles of intrusion detection systems, which include deterrence and detection, as outlined in the resources related to Physical Intrusion Detection Systems (PIDS) and Certified Network Defender (CND) training materials12.
Eric is receiving complaints from employees that their systems are very slow and experiencing odd issues including restarting automatically and frequent system hangs. Upon investigating, he is convinced the systems are infected with a virus that forces systems to shut down automatically after period of time.
What type of security incident are the employees a victim of?
- A . Scans and probes
- B . Malicious Code
- C . Denial of service
- D . Distributed denial of service
B
Explanation:
The symptoms described by the employees, such as systems being very slow, restarting automatically, and experiencing frequent hangs, are indicative of a security incident involving malicious code. Malicious code refers to software or scripts designed to cause harm to a computer system, network, or server. In this case, the virus that forces systems to shut down automatically after a period of time is a type of malicious code. It disrupts the normal functioning of the system, leading to decreased performance and unexpected behavior.
Reference: The classification of this type of security incident aligns with the Certified Network
Defender (CND) curriculum, which includes understanding and identifying various types of security threats, including those caused by viruses and other forms of malicious code12. The CND program emphasizes the importance of recognizing the signs of malware infection, which can include system slowdowns, crashes, and other erratic behaviors that impact system availability and performance1.
———–is a group of broadband wireless communications standards for Metropolitan Area Networks (MANs)
- A . 802.15.4
- B . 802.15
- C . 802.12
- D . 802.16
D
Explanation:
The IEEE 802.16 is a series of wireless broadband standards, also known as Wireless MAN, that are designed for Metropolitan Area Networks (MANs). It specifies the air interface, including the medium access control layer (MAC) and physical layer (PHY), of combined fixed and mobile point-to-multipoint broadband wireless access systems. This standard supports rapid deployment of broadband wireless access systems and encourages competition by providing alternatives to wireline broadband access.
Reference: The information is verified by the IEEE Standard for Local and metropolitan area networks
Part 16: Air Interface for Broadband Wireless Access Systems1, and further details can be found in the IEEE 802.16 Working Group’s documents23.
The network admin decides to assign a class B IP address to a host in the network. Identify which of the following addresses fall within a class B IP address range.
- A . 255.255.255.0
- B . 18.12.4.1
- C . 172.168.12.4
- D . 169.254.254.254
B
Explanation:
Class B IP addresses range from 128.0.0.0 to 191.255.255.255. The first two bits of the first octet in a Class B address are always set to ‘10’, and the default subnet mask is 255.255.0.0. Option B, 18.12.4.1, falls within this range, with the first octet being 18, which is between 128 and 191.
Reference: The information is based on the standard IP address classification as per the IPv4 protocol1234.
Rick has implemented several firewalls and IDS systems across his enterprise network.
What should he do to effectively correlate all incidents that pass through these security controls?
- A . Use firewalls in Network Address Transition (NAT) mode
- B . Implement IPsec
- C . Implement Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)
- D . Use Network Time Protocol (NTP)
D
Explanation:
To effectively correlate incidents across various security controls like firewalls and IDS systems, it is essential to ensure that the timestamps of logs and events are synchronized. This is where Network Time Protocol (NTP) comes into play. NTP ensures that all devices on the network are on the same time setting, which is crucial for event correlation. Without synchronized time settings, it would be challenging to establish a timeline of events and understand the sequence in which they occurred, making incident response and forensic analysis more difficult.
Reference: The importance of using NTP for incident correlation is well-documented in network security best practices and is also highlighted in the EC-Council’s Certified Network Defender (CND) course materials. The CND course emphasizes the role of NTP in maintaining accurate time stamps across network devices for effective security incident management and analysis.
Management asked their network administrator to suggest an appropriate backup medium for their backup plan that best suits their organization’s need.
Which of the following factors will the administrator consider when deciding on the appropriate backup medium?
- A . Capability
- B . Accountability
- C . Extensibility
- D . Reliability
D
Explanation:
When deciding on the appropriate backup medium, the network administrator will consider Reliability as the primary factor. This is because the backup medium must be dependable for restoring data in case of data loss or system failure. The reliability of a backup medium ensures that data can be recovered accurately and completely when needed.
Reference: The importance of reliability in choosing a backup medium is supported by best practices in data backup and recovery, which emphasize the need for a dependable backup solution to ensure data integrity and availability1234.
Which of the following network monitoring techniques requires extra monitoring software or hardware?
- A . Non-router based
- B . Switch based
- C . Hub based
- D . Router based
B
Explanation:
Switch-based network monitoring requires additional monitoring software or hardware because switches operate at the data link layer of the OSI model and do not inherently provide monitoring capabilities. To monitor traffic through a switch, network administrators must use port mirroring or a network tap, which involves configuring the switch to send a copy of the network packets to a monitoring device. This allows the monitoring device to analyze the traffic passing through the switch without interfering with the network’s normal operation. This technique is essential for deep packet inspection, intrusion detection systems, and for gaining visibility into the traffic between devices in a switched network.
Reference: The need for extra monitoring software or hardware in switch-based network monitoring is consistent with the Certified Network Defender (CND) curriculum, which emphasizes the importance of implementing robust network monitoring practices to detect and respond to security threats12. Additionally, the use of port mirroring and network taps as methods to monitor switch-based networks is a standard practice in network security, aligning with the CND’s focus on technical network security measures34.
Steven’s company has recently grown from 5 employees to over 50. Every workstation has a public IP address and navigated to the Internet with little to no protection. Steven wants to use a firewall. He also wants IP addresses to be private addresses, to prevent public Internet devices direct access to them.
What should Steven implement on the firewall to ensure this happens?
- A . Steven should use a Demilitarized Zone (DMZ)
- B . Steven should use Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)
- C . Steven should use IPsec
- D . Steven should enabled Network Address Translation (NAT)
D
Explanation:
Steven should implement Network Address Translation (NAT) on the firewall to ensure that the IP
addresses of the workstations are private and not directly accessible from the public Internet. NAT translates the private IP addresses of the workstations to a public IP address before they are sent out to the Internet, and vice versa for incoming traffic. This not only hides the internal IP addresses but also allows multiple devices to share a single public IP address, which is essential as the company grows.
Reference: The concept of NAT and its role in protecting internal network resources while allowing Internet access is a fundamental topic covered in the Certified Network Defender (CND) course. It is also a standard practice in network security, aligning with the objectives of ensuring the confidentiality and integrity of network infrastructure.
What is the name of the authority that verifies the certificate authority in digital certificates?
- A . Directory management system
- B . Certificate authority
- C . Registration authority
- D . Certificate Management system
C
Explanation:
In the context of digital certificates, the Registration Authority (RA) is responsible for verifying the identity of entities requesting a certificate before the Certificate Authority (CA) issues it. The RA acts as a verifier for the CA, ensuring that the entity requesting the certificate is who they claim to be. This process is crucial for maintaining trust within a digital environment, as it prevents the issuance of certificates to fraudulent or unauthorized entities.
Reference: The role of the Registration Authority in the verification process is outlined in the EC-Council’s Certified Network Defender (CND) curriculum, which covers the essential concepts of network security, including the management and issuance of digital certificates.
Will is working as a Network Administrator. Management wants to maintain a backup of all the company data as soon as it starts operations. They decided to use a RAID backup storage technology for their data backup plan. To implement the RAID data backup storage, Will sets up a pair of RAID disks so that all the data written to one disk is copied automatically to the other disk as well. This maintains an additional copy of the data.
Which RAID level is used here?
- A . RAID 3
- B . RAID 1
- C . RAID 5
- D . RAID 0
B
Explanation:
The RAID level used here is RAID 1, which is also known as disk mirroring. In this setup, all the data written to one disk is automatically copied to another disk, creating an exact duplicate of the data. This ensures that if one disk fails, the data is still available on the other disk, providing redundancy and protecting against data loss. RAID 1 is a common choice for systems where data availability and integrity are critical.
Reference: This explanation is consistent with the principles outlined in the EC-Council’s Certified Network Defender (CND) course materials, which describe RAID 1 as a configuration that duplicates data across multiple disks to ensure redundancy and data availability1.
You are monitoring your network traffic with the Wireshark utility and noticed that your network is experiencing a large amount of traffic from a certain region. You suspect a DoS incident on the network.
What will be your first reaction as a first responder?
- A . Avoid Fear, Uncertainty and Doubt
- B . Communicate the incident
- C . Make an initial assessment
- D . Disable Virus Protection
C
Explanation:
As a first responder to a suspected DoS incident, the initial reaction should be to make an initial assessment. This involves quickly evaluating the situation to understand the scope and impact of the incident. An initial assessment helps in determining whether the unusual traffic is indeed a DoS attack or a false positive. It also aids in deciding the next steps, such as whether to escalate the incident, what resources are required, and how to communicate the issue to relevant stakeholders.
Reference: The approach aligns with best practices for incident response, which emphasize the importance of an initial assessment to understand the nature and extent of a security incident before proceeding with further actions123.
If a network is at risk from unskilled individuals, what type of threat is this?
- A . External Threats
- B . Structured Threats
- C . Unstructured Threats
- D . Internal Threats
C
Explanation:
Unstructured threats typically originate from individuals who lack advanced skills or a sophisticated understanding of network systems. These threats often involve simple methods to disrupt network operations, such as basic malware attacks or exploiting known vulnerabilities that have not been patched. In the context of the Certified Network Defender (CND) program, unstructured threats are recognized as those that can be caused by unskilled individuals who may inadvertently introduce risks to the network through misconfigurations or inadequate security practices.
Reference: The Certified Network Defender (CND) curriculum addresses various types of threats, including unstructured threats, and emphasizes the importance of securing networks against all levels of skill and sophistication among potential attackers12. It also covers the need for continuous monitoring and the implementation of security best practices to mitigate the risks posed by both unstructured and structured threats34.
According to the company’s security policy, all access to any network resources must use Windows Active Directory Authentication. A Linux server was recently installed to run virtual servers and it is not using Windows Authentication.
What needs to happen to force this server to use Windows Authentication?
- A . Edit the ADLIN file.
- B . Edit the shadow file.
- C . Remove the /var/bin/localauth.conf file.
- D . Edit the PAM file to enforce Windows Authentication
D
Explanation:
To enforce Windows Active Directory Authentication on a Linux server, the Pluggable Authentication Modules (PAM) configuration files must be edited. PAM provides a way to develop programs that are independent of authentication scheme. These files, located in /etc/pam.d/, dictate how a Linux system handles authentication for various services. To integrate Windows Active Directory with a Linux server, specific PAM modules like pam_krb5 or pam_winbind can be used. These modules allow the Linux system to communicate with the Active Directory server for authentication purposes. The process typically involves installing necessary packages, joining the Linux server to the AD domain, and configuring the PAM files to use AD for authentication.
Reference: The procedure for integrating Linux servers with Windows Active Directory is documented in various Linux administration guides and resources12. Specific steps can also be found in tutorials and official documentation from Linux distributions that support Active Directory integration345.
Kelly is taking backups of the organization’s data. Currently, he is taking backups of only those files which are created or modified after the last backup.
What type of backup is Kelly using?
- A . Full backup
- B . Incremental backup
- C . Differential Backup
- D . Normal Backup
B
Explanation:
An incremental backup is a type of data backup that copies only the files that have been created or modified since the last backup operation of any type. This method is efficient because it only backs up data that has changed, which can save on storage space and reduce the time needed to complete the backup. In Kelly’s case, since he is backing up only the new or changed files since the last backup, he is using an incremental backup approach.
Reference: The explanation aligns with the standard backup methodologies where an incremental backup captures only the changes made since the last backup, which can be either a full or another incremental backup1234.
John is a network administrator and is monitoring his network traffic with the help of Wireshark. He suspects that someone from outside is making a TCP OS fingerprinting attempt on his organization’s network.
Which of the following Wireshark filter(s) will he use to locate the TCP OS fingerprinting attempt?
- A . Tcp.flags==0x2b
- B . Tcp.flags=0x00
- C . Tcp.options.mss_val<1460
- D . Tcp.options.wscale_val==20
C
Explanation:
TCP OS fingerprinting attempts can be identified by analyzing various TCP/IP stack behaviors, one of which is the TCP Maximum Segment Size (MSS). The MSS value indicates the size of the largest segment of TCP data that a device is willing to receive. Different operating systems have different default MSS values, and a value less than 1460 can suggest an OS fingerprinting attempt, as it may indicate that the sender is trying to avoid fragmentation or is probing to discover the OS based on MSS response.
Reference: The use of Wireshark to monitor and analyze network traffic, including identifying TCP OS fingerprinting attempts, is covered in the EC-Council’s Certified Network Defender (CND) course. The course materials would include detailed explanations on how to use Wireshark filters to detect such activities, and the reference to MSS values is consistent with standard network analysis practices for identifying OS fingerprinting attempts.
A company has the right to monitor the activities of their employees on different information systems according to the _______policy.
- A . Information system
- B . User access control
- C . Internet usage
- D . Confidential data
B
Explanation:
The right of a company to monitor the activities of their employees on its information systems is typically defined under the "User Access Control" policy. This policy sets out the rules and conditions under which employee activities can be monitored, ensuring that monitoring is conducted legally and ethically while protecting the privacy rights of employees. It often includes provisions for the monitoring of email, internet use, and other digital interactions to safeguard company assets and ensure compliance with corporate policies.
Reference: The establishment and enforcement of user access control policies are fundamental principles in cybersecurity management and are discussed in Network Defender training materials.
Liza was told by her network administrator that they will be implementing IPsec VPN tunnels to connect the branch locations to the main office.
What layer of the OSI model do IPsec tunnels function on?
- A . The data link layer
- B . The session layer
- C . The network layer
- D . The application and physical layers
C
Explanation:
IPsec VPN tunnels function at the network layer of the OSI model. This layer is responsible for the logical transmission of data across a network and includes routing through different network paths. IPsec enhances the security at this layer by providing features such as data integrity, encryption, and authentication. These features are crucial for establishing a secure and encrypted connection across the internet, which is essential for VPN tunnels that connect different network segments, such as branch locations to a main office.
Reference: The role of IPsec at the network layer is well-established in network security literature and is consistent with the Certified Network Defender (CND) program’s teachings on secure network architecture12. The network layer’s involvement in routing and data transmission makes it the appropriate layer for IPsec’s operation, aligning with the CND’s emphasis on understanding and implementing network security protocols34.
Malone is finishing up his incident handling plan for IT before giving it to his boss for review. He is outlining the incident response methodology and the steps that are involved.
What is the last step he should list?
- A . Assign eradication.
- B . Recovery
- C . Containment
- D . A follow-up.
D
Explanation:
The last step Malone should list in his incident handling plan is ‘A follow-up’. This step is crucial as it involves analyzing the incident to understand how it occurred and what can be done to prevent similar incidents in the future. It often includes a review of the effectiveness of the response, identification of lessons learned, updating policies and procedures accordingly, and conducting training sessions if necessary. This step ensures that the organization improves its security posture and is better prepared for future incidents.
Reference: The follow-up step is aligned with the incident response life cycle which includes preparation, identification, containment, eradication, recovery, and then follow-up as the final phase. This is consistent with the best practices in incident response and is covered in the Certified Network Defender (CND) curriculum as well as in the NIST guidelines on incident response1.
Which VPN QoS model guarantees the traffic from one customer edge (CE) to another?
- A . Pipe Model
- B . AAA model
- C . Hub-and-Spoke VPN model
- D . Hose mode
A
Explanation:
The Pipe Model in VPN QoS is designed to guarantee bandwidth between one customer edge (CE) device to another. This model ensures a fixed amount of bandwidth is reserved for the traffic between these two points, providing a consistent and predictable service level. It is particularly useful in scenarios where a steady and reliable flow of data is critical. The Pipe Model contrasts with the Hose Model, which offers flexible bandwidth allocation based on the total amount of traffic entering and leaving the network, without guaranteeing individual flows between specific CEs.
Reference: This information aligns with the QoS strategies for VPNs that are part of the EC-Council’s Certified Network Defender (CND) curriculum, which includes understanding various QoS models and their implications on network traffic1.
James was inspecting ARP packets in his organization’s network traffic with the help of Wireshark. He is checking the volume of traffic containing ARP requests as well as the source IP address from which they are originating.
Which type of attack is James analyzing?
- A . ARP Sweep
- B . ARP misconfiguration
- C . ARP spoofinq
- D . ARP Poisioning
D
Explanation:
James is analyzing an ARP Poisoning attack. This type of attack occurs when an attacker sends falsified ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) messages over a local area network. This results in the linking of an attacker’s MAC address with the IP address of a legitimate computer or server on the network. Once the attacker has inserted their MAC address into the ARP cache of other devices, they can intercept, modify, or stop data in transit, effectively performing a man-in-the-middle or denial of service attack.
Reference: The analysis of ARP packets to identify potential ARP Poisoning is a critical skill for network defenders, as outlined in the EC-Council’s Certified Network Defender (CND) course. The course emphasizes understanding and identifying various network threats, including ARP-related attacks, which are fundamental to maintaining network security123.
Alex is administrating the firewall in the organization’s network.
What command will he use to check the ports applications open?
- A . Netstat -an
- B . Netstat -o
- C . Netstat -a
- D . Netstat -ao
A
Explanation:
The netstat -an command is used to display all active connections and the TCP and UDP ports on which the computer is listening, without resolving the hostnames. This command provides a list that includes both listening ports and established connections, making it a suitable choice for an administrator like Alex to check the ports that applications have opened on a firewall.
Reference: This explanation is based on standard networking practices and the functionality of the netstat command as described in networking and security documentation123.
The risk assessment team in Southern California has estimated that the probability of an incident that has potential to impact almost 80% of the bank’s business is very high.
How should this risk be categorized in the risk matrix?
- A . High
- B . Medium
- C . Extreme
- D . Low
C
Explanation:
In the context of risk assessment, an incident that has a very high probability of occurring and the potential to impact almost 80% of a business is considered an extreme risk. This categorization is based on the severity of the impact and the likelihood of the event. The risk matrix, a tool used in risk assessment, helps in the classification of risks by considering both the impact and the probability of potential incidents. An event that affects such a significant portion of the business would typically necessitate immediate attention and the implementation of mitigation strategies to prevent substantial loss or damage.
Reference: The Certified Network Defender (CND) curriculum includes principles of risk assessment and the use of risk matrices to categorize and prioritize risks. It outlines that risks with high impact and high probability should be classified as extreme, requiring urgent action12.
Identify the minimum number of drives required to setup RAID level 5.
- A . Multiple
- B . 3
- C . 4
- D . 2
B
Explanation:
RAID level 5 is a robust storage solution that provides fault tolerance and improved read performance. It requires a minimum of three drives to function. This setup allows for data and parity information to be striped across all drives in the array. If one drive fails, the system can use the parity information to reconstruct the lost data, ensuring no data loss occurs. This level of RAID is beneficial for systems where data availability and security are critical, without sacrificing too much storage capacity for parity.
Reference: The minimum number of drives required for RAID level 5 is confirmed by various authoritative sources on RAID technology and storage solutions1234.
Timothy works as a network administrator in a multinational organization. He decides to implement a dedicated network for sharing storage resources. He uses a_______as it seperates the storage units from the servers and the user network.
- A . SAN
- B . SCSA
- C . NAS
- D . SAS
A
Explanation:
Storage Area Network (SAN), which is a dedicated high-speed network that connects servers to storage devices, allowing for the sharing of storage resources. A SAN is designed to handle large amounts of data and provides a way to centralize storage management, making it an efficient solution for enterprises that require reliable and scalable storage infrastructure. It separates the storage units from the servers and the user network, which aligns with the scenario described for Timothy’s organization.
Reference: The concept of a SAN as a dedicated network for sharing storage resources is well-documented and aligns with industry standards and practices1234.
A local bank wants to protect their card holder data. The bank should comply with the________standard to ensure the security of card holder data.
- A . HIPAA
- B . ISEC
- C . PCI DSS
- D . SOAX
C
Explanation:
The Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard (PCI DSS) is the global data security standard adopted by the payment card brands for all entities that process, store, or transmit cardholder data. It consists of steps that mirror security best practices, including protecting stored cardholder data, maintaining a vulnerability management program, and implementing strong access control measures. For a local bank that wants to protect cardholder data, compliance with PCI DSS is essential to ensure the security of this sensitive information.
Reference: The PCI DSS Quick Reference Guide and other official documents from the PCI Security Standards Council provide comprehensive information on the requirements and best practices for securing cardholder data. These documents are used as references in the EC-Council’s Certified Network Defender (CND) course to educate network defenders on the importance of PCI DSS compliance12.
Sam wants to implement a network-based IDS in the network. Sam finds out the one IDS solution which works is based on patterns matching.
Which type of network-based IDS is Sam implementing?
- A . Behavior-based IDS
- B . Anomaly-based IDS
- C . Stateful protocol analysis
- D . Signature-based IDS
D
Explanation:
Sam is implementing a Signature-based Intrusion Detection System (IDS). This type of IDS uses predefined patterns of traffic, known as signatures, to identify and flag potential security threats. These signatures are based on known attack patterns and anomalies that have been identified from past incidents. When network traffic matches a signature within the IDS, an alert is generated, indicating a possible security event or breach. Signature-based IDS is effective in detecting known threats but may not be as effective in identifying new, previously unknown attacks.
Reference: The information aligns with the Certified Network Defender (CND) objectives and documents, which describe the role and function of signature-based IDS within network security. The CND training materials emphasize the importance of understanding various IDS types, including signature-based systems, which are critical for detecting known threats and maintaining network security1.
John wants to implement a firewall service that works at the session layer of the OSI model. The firewall must also have the ability to hide the private network information.
Which type of firewall service is John thinking of implementing?
- A . Application level gateway
- B . Stateful Multilayer Inspection
- C . Circuit level gateway
- D . Packet Filtering
C
Explanation:
A circuit level gateway is a type of firewall that operates at the session layer of the OSI model, which is Layer 5. This kind of firewall is designed to provide security by validating and managing sessions without inspecting the actual contents of each packet. It is particularly adept at hiding the private network information because it only allows traffic through that is part of an established session, effectively masking the details of the network’s internal structure from the outside. This makes it an ideal choice for John’s requirements.
Reference: The information about circuit level gateways operating at the session layer and their ability to hide private network information is supported by multiple sources within the field, including educational resources and security-focused articles123. Additionally, the ECCouncil’s Certified Network Defender (CND) program covers the necessary knowledge regarding network security and defense strategies, which includes understanding the functions and applications of different types of firewalls45.
You are an IT security consultant working on a contract for a large manufacturing company to audit their entire network. After performing all the tests and building your report, you present a number of recommendations to the company and what they should implement to become more secure. One recommendation is to install a network-based device that notifies IT employees whenever malicious or questionable traffic is found. From your talks with the company, you know that they do not want a device that actually drops traffic completely, they only want notification.
What type of device are you suggesting?
- A . The best solution to cover the needs of this company would be a HIDS device.
- B . A NIDS device would work best for the company
- C . You are suggesting a NIPS device
- D . A HIPS device would best suite this company
B
Explanation:
The device suggested is a Network Intrusion Detection System (NIDS). A NIDS monitors network traffic for suspicious activity and alerts the system or network administrator. Unlike a Network Intrusion Prevention System (NIPS), which actively blocks traffic deemed malicious, a NIDS does not interfere with the flow of traffic, thus fulfilling the company’s requirement for a device that only notifies rather than drops traffic.
Reference: The information aligns with the Certified Network Defender (CND) course’s focus on network security, which includes understanding and implementing devices that protect, detect, respond, and predict network security incidents. The CND course emphasizes the importance of network traffic monitoring and analysis, which is a key function of a NIDS12.
Management wants to calculate the risk factor for their organization. Kevin, a network administrator in the organization knows how to calculate the risk factor. Certain parameters are required before calculating risk factor.
What are they? (Select all that apply) Risk factor =………….X……………X………..
- A . Vulnerability
- B . Impact
- C . Attack
- D . Threat
A,
Explanation:
The risk factor for an organization is typically calculated by considering the potential impact of a threat exploiting a vulnerability. The formula often used is Risk = Threat X Vulnerability X Impact. This means that for a risk to exist, there must be a threat that could exploit a vulnerability and cause an impact on the organization. An attack is not a parameter in the risk calculation but rather the act that occurs when a threat exploits a vulnerability.
Reference: The information is based on the principles of risk assessment and management as outlined in the EC-Council’s Certified Network Defender (CND) course materials, which emphasize the importance of understanding threats, vulnerabilities, and their potential impact to calculate risk effectively12.
Lyle is the IT director for a medium-sized food service supply company in Nebraska. Lyle’s company employs over 300 workers, half of which use computers. He recently came back from a security training seminar on logical security. He now wants to ensure his company is as secure as possible. Lyle has many network nodes and workstation nodes across the network. He does not have much time for implementing a network-wide solution. He is primarily concerned about preventing any external attacks on the network by using a solution that can drop packets if they are found to be malicious. Lyle also wants this solution to be easy to implement and be network-wide.
What type of solution would be best for Lyle?
- A . A NEPT implementation would be the best choice.
- B . To better serve the security needs of his company, Lyle should use a HIDS system.
- C . Lyle would be best suited if he chose a NIPS implementation
- D . He should choose a HIPS solution, as this is best suited to his needs.
C
Explanation:
Lyle’s requirements indicate the need for a network-wide solution that is easy to implement and capable of dropping malicious packets to prevent external attacks. A Network Intrusion Prevention System (NIPS) is designed to be deployed across the network to inspect traffic and take action based on predefined security policies, such as dropping malicious packets. NIPS solutions are generally easier to manage and deploy compared to Host Intrusion Prevention Systems (HIPS), which require installation on individual endpoints. Moreover, NIPS can provide a centralized security solution for all the network nodes and workstation nodes that Lyle is concerned about, making it a suitable choice for his medium-sized company.
Reference: The Certified Network Defender (CND) course by EC-Council emphasizes the importance of understanding and using IDS/IPS technologies to protect, detect, respond, and predict network security incidents1. The course also covers the protect, detect, respond, and predict approach to network security, which aligns with the capabilities of a NIPS solution23.
Sam, a network administrator is using Wireshark to monitor the network traffic of the organization. He wants to detect TCP packets with no flag set to check for a specific attack attempt.
Which filter will he use to view the traffic?
- A . Tcp.flags==0x000
- B . Tcp.flags==0000x
- C . Tcp.flags==000×0
- D . Tcp.flags==x0000
A
Explanation:
In Wireshark, the filter tcp.flags==0x000 is used to detect TCP packets with no flags set. TCP flags are used to indicate the state of a TCP connection or provide additional information to the receiving party. Common flags include SYN, ACK, RST, FIN, among others. A packet with no flags set (represented as 0x000) could be indicative of a network anomaly or a specific type of attack, such as a reconnaissance or scanning attack. It’s important for network administrators like Sam to monitor such packets as they could signify malicious activity on the network.
Reference: The explanation is based on standard TCP/IP protocol behavior and the usage of Wireshark filters, which is consistent with the Network Defender (CND) curriculum that covers network monitoring and analysis tools. The reference to the filter syntax comes from the Wireshark documentation and common networking practices.
Frank installed Wireshark at all ingress points in the network. Looking at the logs he notices an odd packet source. The odd source has an address of 1080:0:FF:0:8:800:200C:4171 and is using port 21.
What does this source address signify?
- A . This address means that the source is using an IPv6 address and is spoofed and signifies an IPv4 address of 127.0.0.1.
- B . This source address is IPv6 and translates as 13.1.68.3
- C . This source address signifies that the originator is using 802dot1x to try and penetrate into Frank’s network
- D . This means that the source is using IPv4
A
Explanation:
The address 1080:0:FF:0:8:800:200C:4171 is an IPv6 address. IPv6 addresses are 128-bit identifiers for interfaces and sets of interfaces. In this case, the address includes a block ::FFFF: (or 0:FF), which is a reserved subnet prefix to facilitate IPv4 to IPv6 migration. This is known as an IPv4-mapped IPv6 address. It is used to represent an IPv4 address in an IPv6 address format. The last 32 bits of the address represent an IPv4 address, which in this case corresponds to 127.0.0.1 – the loopback address in IPv4 used to establish an IP connection to the same machine or computer being used by the end-user.
Reference: The explanation is based on standard IPv6 addressing rules and the specific structure of IPv4-mapped IPv6 addresses. The information is consistent with the ECCouncil’s Network Defender (CND) course objectives regarding understanding and analyzing network protocols and addressing12.
The IR team and the network administrator have successfully handled a malware incident on the network. The team is now preparing countermeasure guideline to avoid a future occurrence of the malware incident.
Which of the following countermeasure(s) should be added to deal with future malware incidents? (Select all that apply)
- A . Complying with the company’s security policies
- B . Implementing strong authentication schemes
- C . Implementing a strong password policy
- D . Install antivirus software
A B C D
Explanation:
The countermeasures to deal with future malware incidents involve a multi-layered approach that includes:
Complying with the company’s security policies: Ensuring that all security policies are followed can prevent malware incidents by maintaining a secure network environment.
Implementing strong authentication schemes: Strong authentication can prevent unauthorized access, reducing the risk of malware being introduced by attackers.
Implementing a strong password policy: Robust password policies can deter attackers by making it more difficult to gain access through brute force or other password-related attacks.
Install antivirus software: Antivirus software is essential for detecting, preventing, and removing malware from the network.
These measures align with the Certified Network Defender (CND) program’s emphasis on a defense-
in-depth strategy, which includes protecting endpoints, data, and networks, as well as continuous threat monitoring and response123.
Reference: Certified Network Defender (CND) course material and study guide.
EC-Council’s official Certified Network Defender (CND) resources123.
Assume that you are a network administrator and the company has asked you to draft an Acceptable Use Policy (AUP) for employees.
Under which category of an information security policy does AUP fall into?
- A . System Specific Security Policy (SSSP)
- B . Incident Response Policy (IRP)
- C . Enterprise Information Security Policy (EISP)
- D . Issue Specific Security Policy (ISSP)
D
Explanation:
An Acceptable Use Policy (AUP) is a type of Issue Specific Security Policy (ISSP) that outlines the constraints and practices that users must agree to in order to access the corporate network, endpoints, applications, and the internet. It is designed to provide guidelines for the appropriate use of an organization’s IT resources, including employee conduct, data usage, system access privileges, and the handling of confidential information. The AUP is a crucial part of the security policy framework as it directly addresses specific issues related to the acceptable use of IT resources by employees.
Reference: The categorization of AUP as an ISSP is consistent with standard information security policy frameworks and best practices123.
The bank where you work has 600 windows computers and 400 Red Hat computers which primarily serve as bank teller consoles. You have created a plan and deployed all the patches to the Windows computers and you are now working on updating the Red Hat computers.
What command should you run on the network to update the Red Hat computers, download the security package, force the package installation, and update all currently installed packages?
- A . You should run the up2date -d -f -u command
- B . You should run the up2data -u command
- C . You should run the WSUS -d -f -u command.
- D . You should type the sysupdate -d command
A
Explanation:
The up2date command was used in older versions of Red Hat Enterprise Linux to update installed packages to their latest available versions. The -d option downloads the packages without installing them, -f forces the installation of the package even if it is already installed, and -u updates all installed packages to the latest versions. However, it’s important to note that up2date has been replaced by yum and more recently by dnf in the newer versions of Red Hat Enterprise Linux. For the scenario described, where security is a concern and the systems are likely to be running a more current version of Red Hat, the correct command would be yum update or dnf upgrade.
Reference: The information is based on the standard practices for updating Red Hat systems as per the Red Hat Customer Portal and the ECCouncil’s Certified Network Defender course objectives. Specifically, the use of up2date is referenced from historical Red Hat documentation, while the replacement with yum and dnf is documented in more recent Red Hat Enterprise Linux system management guides1234.
Smith is an IT technician that has been appointed to his company’s network vulnerability assessment team. He is the only IT employee on the team. The other team members include employees from Accounting, Management, Shipping, and Marketing. Smith and the team members are having their first meeting to discuss how they will proceed.
What is the first step they should do to create the network vulnerability assessment plan?
- A . Their first step is to analyze the data they have currently gathered from the company or interviews.
- B . Their first step is to make a hypothesis of what their final findings will be.
- C . Their first step is to create an initial Executive report to show the management team.
- D . Their first step is the acquisition of required documents, reviewing of security policies and compliance.
D
Explanation:
The first step in creating a network vulnerability assessment plan is to acquire the necessary documents and review the organization’s security policies and compliance requirements. This involves gathering all relevant information that will inform the scope and focus of the vulnerability assessment. It includes understanding the security policies in place, the regulatory compliance obligations the company must adhere to, and any existing security measures and controls. This foundational step ensures that the vulnerability assessment is aligned with the company’s security posture and compliance mandates, providing a clear direction for the subsequent stages of the assessment process.
Reference: This approach is supported by the Certified Network Defender (CND) guidelines, which emphasize the importance of starting with a thorough review of security policies and compliance documents as the initial step in the vulnerability assessment process123.
Management wants to bring their organization into compliance with the ISO standard for information security risk management.
Which ISO standard will management decide to implement?
- A . ISO/IEC 27004
- B . ISO/IEC 27002
- C . ISO/IEC 27006
- D . ISO/IEC 27005
D
Explanation:
ISO/IEC 27005 is the standard dedicated to information security risk management. It provides guidelines for information security risk management and supports the general concepts specified in ISO/IEC 27001. It is designed to assist the implementation of information security based on a risk management approach and is applicable to all types of organizations which intend to manage risks that can compromise the organization’s information security.
Reference: The ISO/IEC 27005 standard is referenced in various resources as the go-to standard for information security risk management, which aligns with the objectives of bringing an organization into compliance with ISO standards for this purpose12. Additionally, the ECCouncil’s Certified Network Defender (CND) study materials and guidelines would include references to such standards as part of the curriculum for network security and defense34.
As a network administrator, you have implemented WPA2 encryption in your corporate wireless network. The WPA2’s _________integrity check mechanism provides security against a replay attack
- A . CRC-32
- B . CRC-MAC
- C . CBC-MAC
- D . CBC-32
C
Explanation:
The integrity check mechanism used by WPA2 to provide security against replay attacks is the Cipher Block Chaining Message Authentication Code (CBC-MAC). This mechanism is part of the protocol suite that ensures data integrity and authenticity by using a combination of cipher block chaining (CBC) and message authentication code (MAC) to produce a secure and unique code for each data packet.
Reference: This information is consistent with the security protocols outlined in WPA2 standards, which specify the use of CBC-MAC for integrity checks12.
John wants to implement a packet filtering firewall in his organization’s network.
What TCP/IP layer does a packet filtering firewall work on?
- A . Application layer
- B . Network Interface layer
- C . TCP layer
- D . IP layer
D
Explanation:
A packet filtering firewall operates at the network layer of the TCP/IP model. It analyzes the headers of IP packets, which include source and destination IP addresses, protocol information, and port numbers, to determine whether to allow or block the packets based on predefined rules and access control lists (ACLs). This type of firewall does not perform deep packet inspection but rather checks the packet headers against the ACLs to make decisions1234.
Reference: The explanation aligns with the core functions of packet filtering firewalls as described in various sources, including the Enterprise Networking Planet and NordLayer articles, which detail how these firewalls interact with the IP layer to filter traffic12. GeeksforGeeks also confirms that packet filtering firewalls work at the network layer of the OSI model, which corresponds to the IP layer in the TCP/IP model4.
Simon had all his systems administrators implement hardware and software firewalls to ensure network security. They implemented IDS/IPS systems throughout the network to check for and stop any unauthorized traffic that may attempt to enter. Although Simon and his administrators believed they were secure, a hacker group was able to get into the network and modify files hosted on the company’s website. After searching through the firewall and server logs, no one could find how the attackers were able to get in. He decides that the entire network needs to be monitored for critical and essential file changes. This monitoring tool alerts administrators when a critical file is altered.
What tool could Simon and his administrators implement to accomplish this?
- A . Snort is the best tool for their situation
- B . They can implement Wireshark
- C . They could use Tripwire
- D . They need to use Nessus
C
Explanation:
Simon’s situation requires a tool that can monitor and alert administrators of critical file changes across the network. Tripwire is a File Integrity Monitoring (FIM) tool that serves this exact purpose. It can detect changes to system and configuration files, directories, and registry keys, and it is especially useful for spotting unauthorized changes that could indicate a security breach. Tripwire can help ensure that important files have not been tampered with, which seems to be the concern for Simon’s network following the incident.
Reference: The Certified Network Defender (CND) course material and study guide from EC-Council include discussions on the importance of monitoring critical systems and protecting network integrity. Tripwire is often highlighted in industry resources as a robust FIM tool that aligns with the objectives of maintaining network security and integrity as outlined in the CND curriculum1.
Assume that you are working as a network administrator in the head office of a bank. One day a bank employee informed you that she is unable to log in to her system. At the same time, you get a call from another network administrator informing you that there is a problem connecting to the main server.
How will you prioritize these two incidents?
- A . Based on approval from management
- B . Based on a first come first served basis
- C . Based on a potential technical effect of the incident
- D . Based on the type of response needed for the incident
C
Explanation:
Prioritizing incidents in a network environment, especially within a critical infrastructure like a bank, should be based on the potential technical effect of the incident. This approach ensures that the most severe and impactful issues are addressed first to maintain business continuity and minimize potential damage. The incident involving the main server would likely take precedence because it could affect a larger number of systems and operations within the bank, compared to an individual’s login issue. The ITIL framework supports this prioritization method by emphasizing the importance of impact and urgency when managing network incidents12.
Reference: The prioritization strategy aligns with best practices outlined in the ITIL framework for IT service management, which suggests managing incidents based on their severity, urgency, and impact on business operations12.
Assume that you are working as a network administrator in the head office of a bank. One day a bank employee informed you that she is unable to log in to her system. At the same time, you get a call from another network administrator informing you that there is a problem connecting to the main server.
How will you prioritize these two incidents?
- A . Based on approval from management
- B . Based on a first come first served basis
- C . Based on a potential technical effect of the incident
- D . Based on the type of response needed for the incident
C
Explanation:
Prioritizing incidents in a network environment, especially within a critical infrastructure like a bank, should be based on the potential technical effect of the incident. This approach ensures that the most severe and impactful issues are addressed first to maintain business continuity and minimize potential damage. The incident involving the main server would likely take precedence because it could affect a larger number of systems and operations within the bank, compared to an individual’s login issue. The ITIL framework supports this prioritization method by emphasizing the importance of impact and urgency when managing network incidents12.
Reference: The prioritization strategy aligns with best practices outlined in the ITIL framework for IT service management, which suggests managing incidents based on their severity, urgency, and impact on business operations12.
Assume that you are working as a network administrator in the head office of a bank. One day a bank employee informed you that she is unable to log in to her system. At the same time, you get a call from another network administrator informing you that there is a problem connecting to the main server.
How will you prioritize these two incidents?
- A . Based on approval from management
- B . Based on a first come first served basis
- C . Based on a potential technical effect of the incident
- D . Based on the type of response needed for the incident
C
Explanation:
Prioritizing incidents in a network environment, especially within a critical infrastructure like a bank, should be based on the potential technical effect of the incident. This approach ensures that the most severe and impactful issues are addressed first to maintain business continuity and minimize potential damage. The incident involving the main server would likely take precedence because it could affect a larger number of systems and operations within the bank, compared to an individual’s login issue. The ITIL framework supports this prioritization method by emphasizing the importance of impact and urgency when managing network incidents12.
Reference: The prioritization strategy aligns with best practices outlined in the ITIL framework for IT service management, which suggests managing incidents based on their severity, urgency, and impact on business operations12.
Assume that you are working as a network administrator in the head office of a bank. One day a bank employee informed you that she is unable to log in to her system. At the same time, you get a call from another network administrator informing you that there is a problem connecting to the main server.
How will you prioritize these two incidents?
- A . Based on approval from management
- B . Based on a first come first served basis
- C . Based on a potential technical effect of the incident
- D . Based on the type of response needed for the incident
C
Explanation:
Prioritizing incidents in a network environment, especially within a critical infrastructure like a bank, should be based on the potential technical effect of the incident. This approach ensures that the most severe and impactful issues are addressed first to maintain business continuity and minimize potential damage. The incident involving the main server would likely take precedence because it could affect a larger number of systems and operations within the bank, compared to an individual’s login issue. The ITIL framework supports this prioritization method by emphasizing the importance of impact and urgency when managing network incidents12.
Reference: The prioritization strategy aligns with best practices outlined in the ITIL framework for IT service management, which suggests managing incidents based on their severity, urgency, and impact on business operations12.
Assume that you are working as a network administrator in the head office of a bank. One day a bank employee informed you that she is unable to log in to her system. At the same time, you get a call from another network administrator informing you that there is a problem connecting to the main server.
How will you prioritize these two incidents?
- A . Based on approval from management
- B . Based on a first come first served basis
- C . Based on a potential technical effect of the incident
- D . Based on the type of response needed for the incident
C
Explanation:
Prioritizing incidents in a network environment, especially within a critical infrastructure like a bank, should be based on the potential technical effect of the incident. This approach ensures that the most severe and impactful issues are addressed first to maintain business continuity and minimize potential damage. The incident involving the main server would likely take precedence because it could affect a larger number of systems and operations within the bank, compared to an individual’s login issue. The ITIL framework supports this prioritization method by emphasizing the importance of impact and urgency when managing network incidents12.
Reference: The prioritization strategy aligns with best practices outlined in the ITIL framework for IT service management, which suggests managing incidents based on their severity, urgency, and impact on business operations12.
Should not be expensive.
The management team asks Nancy to research and suggest the appropriate RAID level that best suits their requirements.
What RAID level will she suggest?
- A . RAID 0
- B . RAID 10
- C . RAID 3
- D . RAID 1
C
Explanation:
RAID 3 is a level of RAID that uses striping with a dedicated parity disk. This means that data is spread across multiple disks, and parity information is stored on one dedicated disk. RAID 3 allows for good read and write speeds and can reconstruct data if one drive fails, thanks to the parity information. It is also a cost-effective solution because it requires only one additional disk for parity, regardless of the size of the array. This makes it suitable for environments where data throughput and fault tolerance are important but budget constraints are a consideration.
Reference: The explanation aligns with the RAID level characteristics and the requirements specified by the management team. RAID 3’s ability to provide parity checks, data reconstruction during downtime, and process data at a good speed while being cost-effective makes it an appropriate choice123.
Which OSI layer does a Network Interface Card (NIC) work on?
- A . Physical layer
- B . Presentation layer
- C . Network layer
- D . Session layer
A
Explanation:
The Network Interface Card (NIC) operates primarily on the Physical layer of the OSI model. This layer is responsible for the actual transmission and reception of data over a network medium. The NIC provides the physical connection between the computer and the network, converting digital data into electrical, radio, or optical signals for outbound data, and vice versa for inbound data12.
Additionally, the NIC also has functionalities that extend to the Data Link layer, which is responsible for node-to-node data transfer and handling the physical addressing of packets through MAC addresses3.
Reference: Information based on the Certified Network Defender (CND) course material and study guide. Additional details from EC-Council’s official Certified Network Defender (CND) resources and other authoritative sources on network interface cards and the OSI model132.
Harry has sued the company claiming they made his personal information public on a social networking site in the United States. The company denies the allegations and consulted a/an ______for legal advice to defend them against this allegation.
- A . PR Specialist
- B . Attorney
- C . Incident Handler
- D . Evidence Manager
B
Explanation:
In the context of legal proceedings, especially when facing allegations of making personal information public, a company would seek the expertise of an attorney. An attorney is qualified to provide legal advice, represent the company in court, and help navigate the complexities of the law regarding data protection and privacy. They would also assist in formulating a defense strategy and ensure that the company’s rights are protected throughout the legal process.
Reference: The role of an attorney in defending against allegations of public disclosure of personal information is supported by legal practices and the advice provided by law firms and legal experts12345.
Brendan wants to implement a hardware based RAID system in his network. He is thinking of choosing a suitable RAM type for the architectural setup in the system. The type he is interested in provides access times of up to 20 ns.
Which type of RAM will he select for his RAID system?
- A . NVRAM
- B . SDRAM
- C . NAND flash memory
- D . SRAM
D
Explanation:
SRAM, or Static Random-Access Memory, is known for its low access time, typically around 20 ns, which makes it suitable for applications requiring high speed, such as cache memory in computers or, in this case, a RAID system. SRAM is faster than DRAM because it does not need to be refreshed as often, which is why it’s used where speed is critical. Although SRAM is more expensive and has less density compared to other types of RAM, its speed advantage makes it the preferred choice for Brendan’s RAID system requirements.
Reference: The characteristics of SRAM are well-documented in computer architecture and hardware literature, aligning with the Certified Network Defender (CND) course’s focus on understanding different types of memory for network security purposes. The ECCouncil’s CND materials and study guides provide information on various hardware components and their relevance to network security, which includes the selection of appropriate RAM types for different systems123.
Sean has built a site-to-site VPN architecture between the head office and the branch office of his company. When users in the branch office and head office try to communicate with each other, the traffic is encapsulated. As the traffic passes though the gateway, it is encapsulated again. The header and payload both are encapsulated. This second encapsulation occurs only in the __________implementation of a VPN.
- A . Full Mesh Mode
- B . Point-to-Point Mode
- C . Transport Mode
- D . Tunnel Mode
D
Explanation:
In the context of VPNs, when both the header and payload of traffic are encapsulated, it indicates the use of Tunnel Mode. This mode is typically employed in site-to-site VPNs where the entire IP packet is wrapped with a new IP header. Tunnel Mode is designed to secure traffic between different networks over the internet, making it suitable for connecting multiple sites of an organization. Unlike Transport Mode, which only encrypts the payload and leaves the original IP header intact, Tunnel Mode encrypts the entire IP packet and adds a new header, which allows for the secure passage of the traffic through untrusted networks.
Reference: The explanation provided aligns with standard VPN implementations and the principles outlined in network security documents and study guides related to Certified Network Defender (CND) objectives.
Dan and Alex are business partners working together. Their Business-Partner Policy states that they should encrypt their emails before sending to each other.
How will they ensure the authenticity of their emails?
- A . Dan will use his public key to encrypt his mails while Alex will use Dan’s digital signature to verify the authenticity of the mails.
- B . Dan will use his private key to encrypt his mails while Alex will use his digital signature to verify the authenticity of the mails.
- C . Dan will use his digital signature to sign his mails while Alex will use his private key to verify the authenticity of the mails.
- D . Dan will use his digital signature to sign his mails while Alex will use Dan’s public key to verify the authencity of the mails.
D
Explanation:
In the context of email encryption and digital signatures, authenticity is typically ensured through the use of a sender’s digital signature. Dan would use his private key to create a digital signature on his emails. This signature is unique to both the sender and the email content. Alex, on the other hand, would use Dan’s public key to verify the digital signature. If the verification process confirms that the signature was created with Dan’s private key and that the email has not been altered, Alex can be assured of the email’s authenticity. This process does not involve encrypting the entire email with a private key, as that would make it unreadable to anyone except the holder of the corresponding private key, which is not shared. Instead, encryption of the email content is typically done using symmetric encryption, where both Dan and Alex would use a shared secret key.
Reference: The explanation aligns with the principles of public key infrastructure (PKI) and digital signatures as outlined in the EC-Council’s Certified Network Defender (CND) program, which covers various aspects of network security, including email encryption and digital signature mechanisms12.
The network administrator wants to strengthen physical security in the organization. Specifically, to implement a solution stopping people from entering certain restricted zones without proper credentials.
Which of following physical security measures should the administrator use?
- A . Bollards
- B . Fence
- C . Video surveillance
- D . Mantrap
D
Explanation:
A mantrap is a physical security mechanism designed to control access to a secure area through a small space with two sets of interlocking doors. It is an effective measure to prevent unauthorized access, as it allows only one person to pass through at a time after authentication, thereby stopping any attempt at ‘tailgating’ or ‘piggybacking’ where an unauthorized individual might try to follow an authorized person into a restricted zone.
Reference: The concept of a mantrap as a physical security control is aligned with the EC-Council’s Certified Network Defender (CND) program, which covers the protect, detect, respond, and predict approach to network security. The CND program emphasizes the importance of various security controls, including physical security measures, to safeguard against unauthorized access and ensure the integrity of the network environment12.
A network is setup using an IP address range of 0.0.0.0 to 127.255.255.255. The network has a default subnet mask of 255.0.0.0.
What IP address class is the network range a part of?
- A . Class C
- B . Class A
- C . Class B
- D . Class D
B
Explanation:
The IP address range from 0.0.0.0 to 127.255.255.255 falls under Class A. In the Class A type of network, the first octet (the first 8 bits of the IP address) is used for the network part, and the remaining 24 bits are used for host addresses. The default subnet mask for Class A is 255.0.0.0, which aligns with the given network’s default subnet mask. Class A networks are designed to support a very large number of hosts. The first bit of a Class A address is always set to 0, which means the first octet can range from 1 to 127, thus including the given IP address range.
Reference: This explanation is based on standard networking principles regarding IP address classes as outlined in resources like the Meridian Outpost article on IPv4 address classes1, and is consistent with the objectives and documents of the EC-Council’s Certified Network Defender (CND) program.
Which of the information below can be gained through network sniffing? (Select all that apply)
- A . Telnet Passwords
- B . Syslog traffic
- C . DNS traffic
- D . Programming errors
A, B, C
Explanation:
Network sniffing is a technique used to capture and analyze packets traveling across a network. Through network sniffing, one can potentially gain access to a variety of sensitive information, depending on the protocols being used and the security measures in place.
Telnet Passwords (A): Telnet is an older protocol that transmits data, including login credentials, in clear text. This makes Telnet passwords particularly vulnerable to network sniffing1.
Syslog Traffic (B): Syslog is a standard for message logging. If not properly secured, syslog traffic can be intercepted, revealing system messages and metadata about network activities1.
DNS Traffic ©: DNS traffic includes queries and responses that can be captured to reveal which domains are being requested by users on the network. This can provide insights into user behavior and network structure1.
Programming Errors (D): While network sniffing can capture packets that may contain the results of programming errors, such as error messages or malformed packets, it does not directly reveal the programming errors themselves. Sniffing tools capture the traffic but do not analyze the code within the applications generating that traffic.
Reference: The information has been verified from the EC-Council’s resources on network sniffing and network defense strategies, which discuss the types of data that can be captured through sniffing and the implications for network security123.
Blake is working on the company’s updated disaster and business continuity plan. The last section of the plan covers computer and data incidence response. Blake is outlining the level of severity for each type of incident in the plan.
Unsuccessful scans and probes are at what severity level?
- A . Extreme severity level
- B . Low severity level
- C . Mid severity level
- D . High severity level
B
Explanation:
In the context of incident response, unsuccessful scans and probes are typically considered a low severity level. This is because they often indicate an attempted reconnaissance rather than a successful breach or compromise. These activities are usually automated and widespread, affecting many networks, not just the targeted one. They are often the preliminary steps of an attack, trying to find vulnerabilities but not yet exploiting them. Therefore, while they should be monitored and logged, they do not usually signify an immediate threat to the network’s integrity or the confidentiality of the data.
Reference: The EC-Council’s Certified Network Defender (C|ND) program emphasizes a defense-in-depth security strategy, which includes continuous threat monitoring and incident response. The program outlines that not all incidents require the same level of response, and categorizing the severity of incidents is crucial for effective prioritization and resource allocation1.
The————–protocol works in the network layer and is responsible for handling the error codes during the delivery of packets. This protocol is also responsible for providing communication in the TCP/IP stack.
- A . RARP
- B . ICMP
- C . DHCP
- D . ARP
B
Explanation:
The Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) operates at the network layer and is integral to the Internet Protocol suite. It is utilized primarily for error handling during packet delivery, such as informing senders of a failed delivery due to unreachable destinations or other path-related issues. ICMP is also used for diagnostic purposes, with tools like ping and traceroute relying on ICMP messages to test connectivity and trace packet routes. Unlike transport layer protocols like TCP or UDP, ICMP does not establish a connection before sending messages, making it a connectionless protocol. This characteristic allows ICMP to quickly relay error messages and network information without the overhead of establishing a session.
Reference: The role and functions of ICMP are well-documented in resources such as GeeksforGeeks, ExploringBits, and IBM’s TCP/IP concepts, which align with the ECCouncil’s Network Defender (CND) objectives and documents123.
Daniel is monitoring network traffic with the help of a network monitoring tool to detect any abnormalities.
What type of network security approach is Daniel adopting?
- A . Preventative
- B . Reactive
- C . Retrospective
- D . Defense-in-depth
B
Explanation:
Daniel is adopting a Reactive network security approach. This approach involves monitoring network traffic to detect any abnormalities or intrusions as they occur. The goal of reactive security is to identify and respond to threats in real-time. It is a part of the broader defense strategy that includes Protect, Detect, Respond, and Predict, where ‘Detect’ aligns with the reactive approach. By using network monitoring tools, Daniel is able to observe the network for any signs of compromise or unusual activity and then take appropriate action to mitigate the threat.
Reference: The Certified Network Defender (CND) program by EC-Council emphasizes the importance of a continual/adaptive security strategy, which includes the ability to detect ongoing threats as a critical component of network defense12. This strategy is further detailed in the CND course outline, which covers key topics such as network traffic monitoring and analysis, indicating the reactive nature of such activities1.
David is working in a mid-sized IT company. Management asks him to suggest a framework that can be used effectively to align the IT goals to the business goals of the company. David suggests the______framework, as it provides a set of controls over IT and consolidates them to form a framework.
- A . RMIS
- B . ITIL
- C . ISO 27007
- D . COBIT
D
Explanation:
COBIT (Control Objectives for Information and Related Technologies) is a framework designed to help organizations develop, implement, monitor, and improve IT governance and management practices. It is recognized for its comprehensive approach to aligning IT goals with business objectives, ensuring that IT investments support the overall strategic direction of the company. COBIT provides a set of controls over IT and consolidates them into a framework that helps organizations ensure that their IT infrastructure is secure, reliable, and efficient, while also being aligned with their business goals12.
Reference: ISACA’s “Connecting Business and IT Goals Through COBIT 5” article provides insights into how COBIT 5 connects business goals with IT goals using non-technical, business language1.
The Interface Technical Training blog post on “Aligning IT goals using the COBIT5 Goals Cascade” explains the process of translating stakeholder needs into enterprise goals, IT-related goals, and enabler goals, which is key to supporting alignment between an enterprise’s needs and IT solutions and services2.
James is a network administrator working at a student loan company in Minnesota. This company processes over 20,000 student loans a year from colleges all over the state. Most communication between the company schools, and lenders is carried out through emails. Much of the email communication used at his company contains sensitive information such as social security numbers. For this reason, James wants to utilize email encryption. Since a server-based PKI is not an option for him, he is looking for a low/no cost solution to encrypt emails.
What should James use?
- A . James could use PGP as a free option for encrypting the company’s emails.
- B . James should utilize the free OTP software package.
- C . James can use MD5 algorithm to encrypt all the emails
- D . James can enforce mandatory HTTPS in the email clients to encrypt emails
A
Explanation:
James should opt for PGP (Pretty Good Privacy) as it is a widely recognized method for encrypting emails. PGP provides a cost-effective solution for securing email communication, which is essential for the sensitive information handled by his company. It uses a combination of data compression, symmetric-key cryptography, and public key cryptography to secure emails. Each user has a pair of keys: a public key that is shared with others to encrypt emails to the user, and a private key that is kept secret by the user to decrypt emails they receive. This method ensures that even if the email is intercepted, without the corresponding private key, the contents remain unreadable.
Reference: The choice of PGP is supported by its longstanding reputation for providing secure email communication. It is designed to be used in scenarios where secure communication is necessary, and it’s a practical option for James since it doesn’t require a server-based PKI system. The other options listed do not provide the same level of security for email encryption. OTP (One-Time Password) systems are not typically used for email encryption, MD5 is a hashing algorithm
Fred is a network technician working for Johnson Services, a temporary employment agency in Boston. Johnson Services has three remote offices in New England and the headquarters in Boston where Fred works.
The company relies on a number of customized applications to perform daily tasks and unfortunately these applications require users to be local administrators. Because of this, Fred’s supervisor wants to implement tighter security measures in other areas to compensate for the inherent risks in making those users local admins. Fred’s boss wants a solution that will be placed on all computers throughout the company and monitored by Fred. This solution will gather information on all network traffic to and from the local computers without actually affecting the traffic.
What type of solution does Fred’s boss want to implement?
- A . Fred’s boss wants a NIDS implementation.
- B . Fred’s boss wants Fred to monitor a NIPS system.
- C . Fred’s boss wants to implement a HIPS solution.
- D . Fred’s boss wants to implement a HIDS solution.
A
Explanation:
The solution described is a Network Intrusion Detection System (NIDS). A NIDS is designed to monitor and analyze network traffic for all computers on a network without affecting the traffic flow.
It gathers information on potential security threats and alerts the network administrator―in this case, Fred―without taking direct action to block the traffic. This aligns with the requirement of Fred’s boss for a solution that monitors network traffic and gathers information without impacting it. Unlike a Network Intrusion Prevention System (NIPS), which actively blocks potential threats, or Host-based Intrusion Detection/Prevention Systems (HIDS/HIPS), which are installed on individual hosts, a NIDS operates at the network level to monitor traffic across all systems.
Reference: The characteristics of a NIDS, as opposed to NIPS, HIDS, or HIPS, are well-documented in cybersecurity literature and align with the Certified Network Defender (CND) course objectives and documents.
Heather has been tasked with setting up and implementing VPN tunnels to remote offices. She will most likely be implementing IPsec VPN tunnels to connect the offices.
At what layer of the OSI model does an IPsec tunnel function on?
- A . They work on the session layer.
- B . They function on either the application or the physical layer.
- C . They function on the data link layer
- D . They work on the network layer
D
Explanation:
IPsec VPN tunnels operate at the network layer of the OSI model. This is because IPsec is designed to secure IP communications by authenticating and encrypting each IP packet of a communication session. IPsec includes protocols for establishing mutual authentication between agents at the beginning of a session and negotiation of cryptographic keys to be used during the session. IPsec can protect data flows between a pair of hosts (host-to-host), between a pair of security gateways (network-to-network), or between a security gateway and a host (network-to-host). By functioning at the network layer, IPsec VPNs are able to secure all traffic that passes through them, not just specific applications or sessions.
Reference: The information provided is based on standard networking protocols and the OSI model as covered in the EC-Council’s Certified Network Defender (CND) program, which includes a comprehensive understanding of network security measures like IPsec123.
The company has implemented a backup plan. James is working as a network administrator for the company and is taking full backups of the data every time a backup is initiated. Alex who is a senior security manager talks to him about using a differential backup instead and asks him to implement this once a full backup of the data is completed.
What is/are the reason(s) Alex is suggesting that James use a differential backup? (Select all that apply)
- A . Less storage space is required
- B . Father restoration
- C . Slower than a full backup
- D . Faster than a full backup
- E . Less expensive than full backup
A, E
Explanation:
Differential backups are advantageous because they only back up data that has changed since the last full backup. This means they require less storage space than taking a full backup every time, which can be significant as data accumulates over time. Additionally, differential backups are generally faster than full backups because they involve less data. This speed can be crucial for maintaining regular backup schedules without disrupting network operations. Lastly, because differential backups involve less data and take less time, they can be less expensive than full backups, considering the costs associated with storage and the time required for backup operations.
Reference: The Certified Network Defender (CND) program by EC-Council includes discussions on various backup strategies, including differential backups, as part of its comprehensive approach to network security. The program emphasizes the importance of efficient and effective backup strategies as a part of disaster recovery and business continuity planning12.
The agency Jacob works for stores and transmits vast amounts of sensitive government data that cannot be compromised. Jacob has implemented Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP) to encrypt IP traffic. Jacob wants to encrypt the IP traffic by inserting the ESP header in the IP datagram before the transport layer protocol header.
What mode of ESP does Jacob need to use to encrypt the IP traffic?
- A . He should use ESP in transport mode.
- B . Jacob should utilize ESP in tunnel mode.
- C . Jacob should use ESP in pass-through mode.
- D . He should use ESP in gateway mode
B
Explanation:
Jacob needs to use ESP in tunnel mode to encrypt the IP traffic. In tunnel mode, the entire original IP packet, including both the payload and the IP header, is encrypted and then encapsulated within a new IP packet with a new IP header123. This mode is particularly useful for encrypting traffic between different networks, such as in a site-to-site VPN, where the data and security endpoints may differ from the original source and destination IP addresses2. Transport mode, on the other hand, would only encrypt the payload of the IP packet, leaving the original IP header unencrypted123. Since Jacob’s goal is to encrypt the entire IP datagram before the transport layer protocol header, tunnel mode is the appropriate choice.
Reference: The information provided here is consistent with the principles of IPsec and ESP as described in various networking resources, including the Twingate article on IPsec Tunnel Mode vs. Transport Mode1, TutorialsPoint’s explanation of ESP in tunnel and transport mode2, and the STIGViewer’s guidelines on IPsec VPN Gateway requirements3.
Kyle, a front office executive, suspects that a Trojan has infected his computer.
What should be his first course of action to deal with the incident?
- A . Contain the damage
- B . Disconnect the five infected devices from the network
- C . Inform the IRT about the incident and wait for their response
- D . Inform everybody in the organization about the attack
A
Explanation:
When a Trojan is suspected to have infected a computer, the first course of action should be to contain the damage to prevent the malware from spreading or causing further harm. This involves disconnecting the infected device from the network to isolate it and prevent the Trojan from communicating with potential command and control servers or infecting other systems123. While informing the Incident Response Team (IRT) and other members of the organization is also important, these actions come after the immediate threat has been contained. Therefore, the correct answer is to contain the damage (A), which aligns with the Certified Network Defender (CND) objectives that prioritize immediate containment to minimize the impact of security incidents45678.
Reference: The response is based on best practices for dealing with Trojans as outlined in network security and incident response guidelines, including those from the EC-Council’s Certified Network Defender (CND) program. The CND framework emphasizes the importance of quick containment to protect network integrity and prevent further damage45678.
Katie has implemented the RAID level that split data into blocks and evenly write the data to multiple hard drives but does not provide data redundancy. This type of RAID level requires a minimum of________in order to setup.
- A . Four drives
- B . Three drives
- C . Two drives
- D . Six drives
C
Explanation:
The RAID level that splits data into blocks and evenly writes the data to multiple hard drives without providing data redundancy is known as RAID 0. This RAID level is also referred to as striping. It requires a minimum of two drives to set up. RAID 0 enhances performance by allowing simultaneous read and write operations across the drives, but it does not offer any fault tolerance. If one drive fails, all data in the array is lost because there is no redundancy.
Reference: RAID 0 is defined by its ability to increase performance by striping data across at least two drives. This information is consistent with the standards and descriptions provided in the EC-Council’s Certified Network Defender (C|ND) course materials and other authoritative sources on RAID configurations123.
Henry needs to design a backup strategy for the organization with no service level downtime.
Which backup method will he select?
- A . Normal backup
- B . Warm backup
- C . Hot backup
- D . Cold backup
C
Explanation:
A hot backup, also known as an online backup or dynamic backup, is the process of backing up data while the system continues to be in operation. This means that there is no need for system downtime or interruption in services while the backup is taking place. It is mostly used in systems where operations are critical and cannot afford any downtime, such as databases and servers that must be available 24/7. The hot backup method allows for data to be backed up at regular intervals with minimal impact on the system’s performance, ensuring that the organization can maintain continuous service levels.
Reference: The concept of hot backup is aligned with the ECCouncil’s Network Defender (CND) objectives and is supported by industry best practices as detailed in sources like MiniTool1 and NinjaOne2, which discuss the advantages of hot backups in maintaining uninterrupted service and business continuity.
James wants to implement certain control measures to prevent denial-of-service attacks against the organization.
Which of the following control measures can help James?
- A . Strong passwords
- B . Reduce the sessions time-out duration for the connection attempts
- C . A honeypot in DMZ
- D . Provide network-based anti-virus
C
Explanation:
Implementing a honeypot in the Demilitarized Zone (DMZ) can be an effective control measure against denial-of-service (DoS) attacks. A honeypot is a decoy system designed to attract attackers and divert them from legitimate targets. By deploying a honeypot in the DMZ, James can monitor and analyze incoming traffic to identify and mitigate DoS attacks. This proactive security measure allows the organization to detect and respond to malicious activities before they impact critical systems and services.
Reference: The Certified Network Defender (CND) course by EC-Council includes strategies for defending against DoS attacks, which cover the use of honeypots as a part of a layered security approach1. Additionally, industry best practices suggest that honeypots can serve as an early warning system and a means to study attacker behavior, which aligns with the objectives of the CND curriculum2.
An US-based organization decided to implement a RAID storage technology for their data backup plan. John wants to setup a RAID level that require a minimum of six drives but will meet high fault tolerance and with a high speed for the data read and write operations.
What RAID level is John considering to meet this requirement?
- A . RAID level 1
- B . RAID level 10
- C . RAID level 5
- D . RAID level 50
D
Explanation:
RAID level 50, also known as RAID 5+0, combines the features of RAID 5 and RAID 0. It requires a
minimum of six drives and offers high fault tolerance and high speed for data read and write operations. RAID 50 arrays are created by striping data across RAID 5 arrays, which are themselves striped sets with distributed parity. This configuration provides both the speed of RAID 0 and the redundancy of RAID 51.
Reference: The TechTarget article on “RAID 50: How to select the right RAID level” explains that RAID 50 is suitable for applications that require high reliability and can handle high request rates and high data transfer, with a lower cost of disks than RAID 101.
The DNSChecker RAID Calculator mentions that RAID 50 requires a minimum of six disks2.
An attacker uses different types of password cracking techniques to crack the password and gain unauthorized access to a system. An attacker uses a file containing a list of commonly used passwords. They then upload this file into the cracking application that runs against the user accounts.
Which of the following password cracking techniques is the attacker trying?
- A . Bruteforce
- B . Rainbow table
- C . Hybrid
- D . Dictionary
D
Explanation:
The attacker is employing a Dictionary attack, which is a method where a file containing a list of commonly used passwords is used to attempt to gain unauthorized access to user accounts. This technique relies on the probability that many users will use common passwords that are easy to guess. It is more efficient than a brute-force attack since it uses a predefined list of words, rather than trying all possible combinations of characters.
Reference: The Dictionary attack is defined as a word-based brute force method1, and it is specifically mentioned as a password cracking test that can be automated with tools2. This technique is distinct from the other options because:
A Brute-force attack involves trying all possible combinations of characters until the correct one is found1.
A Rainbow table attack uses precomputed tables of hash values to crack encrypted passwords1. A Hybrid attack combines elements of both brute-force and dictionary attacks, often by adding numbers or symbols to dictionary words2.
A company wants to implement a data backup method which allows them to encrypt the data ensuring its security as well as access at any time and from any location.
What is the appropriate backup method that
should be implemented?
- A . Onsite backup
- B . Hot site backup
- C . Offsite backup
- D . Cloud backup
D
Explanation:
The most appropriate backup method for a company that wants to ensure data encryption and accessibility from any location at any time is cloud backup. Cloud backup solutions provide remote, offsite storage that can be accessed over the internet, which is ideal for ensuring data availability and security. These solutions often include robust encryption protocols to secure data during transfer and
while at rest on the cloud servers. This aligns with the need for a backup method that not only encrypts data but also allows for easy access regardless of the user’s location.
Reference: The explanation is based on standard practices in data backup and security, which are consistent with the objectives and documentation of the Certified Network Defender (CND) course. Cloud backup is widely recognized for its encryption capabilities and remote accessibility, making it a suitable choice for companies looking to secure their data backups.
If there is a fire incident caused by an electrical appliance short-circuit, which fire suppressant should be used to control it?
- A . Water
- B . Wet chemical
- C . Dry chemical
- D . Raw chemical
C
Explanation:
For a fire caused by an electrical appliance short-circuit, the appropriate fire suppressant is a dry chemical extinguisher. This type of extinguisher is effective because it can smother the fire without conducting electricity, which is crucial for electrical fires. Dry chemical extinguishers typically contain agents like mono-ammonium phosphate or sodium bicarbonate, which help to interrupt the chemical reaction of the fire, effectively putting it out. It’s important not to use water or wet chemicals on electrical fires, as they can conduct electricity and exacerbate the situation.
Reference: The use of dry chemical fire extinguishers for electrical fires is a standard safety protocol, as they provide a non-conductive means to extinguish the fire, aligning with the safety measures outlined in the EC-Council’s Certified Network Defender (CND) program12.
Kyle is an IT technician managing 25 workstations and 4 servers. The servers run applications and mostly store confidential data. Kyle must backup the server’s data daily to ensure nothing is lost. The power in the company’s office is not always reliable, Kyle needs to make sure the servers do not go down or are without power for too long. Kyle decides to purchase an Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS) that has a pair of inverters and converters to charge the battery and provides power when needed.
What type of UPS has Kyle purchased?
- A . Kyle purchased a Ferro resonant Standby UPS.
- B . Kyle purchased a Line-Interactive UPS
- C . He has bought a Standby UPS
- D . He purchased a True Online UPS.
D
Explanation:
A True Online UPS is designed to provide continuous, uninterrupted power supply to equipment. It has a pair of inverters and converters that work together to continuously charge the battery and convert the battery’s DC power back to AC power for the equipment. This ensures that there is zero transfer time to the battery when power is lost, providing the most reliable power for sensitive equipment and critical applications that cannot tolerate any interruption in power. Kyle’s choice of a True Online UPS is appropriate for ensuring that the servers, which store confidential data and run applications, are not affected by unreliable power sources.
Reference: The Certified Network Defender (CND) program by EC-Council includes the study of various types of UPS systems as part of its module on Business Continuity and Disaster Recovery. The program outlines the importance of maintaining power to critical systems and the role of a True Online UPS in providing the highest level of protection against power inconsistencies12.
Ross manages 30 employees and only 25 computers in the organization. The network the company uses is a peer-to-peer. Ross configures access control measures allowing the employees to set their own control measures for their files and folders.
Which access control did Ross implement?
- A . Discretionary access control
- B . Mandatory access control
- C . Non-discretionary access control
- D . Role-based access control
A
Explanation:
Ross implemented Discretionary Access Control (DAC) in the organization’s peer-to-peer network. DAC is a type of access control where the data owner has the authority to decide who can access their data and what permissions they have. In a peer-to-peer network, where each peer can act as both a client and a server, DAC allows individual users to set access controls for their own files and folders. This is consistent with Ross allowing employees to set their own control measures, which aligns with the principles of DAC where owners or creators of the resources have the discretion to grant or restrict access to other users based on their own criteria1.
Reference: The explanation aligns with the standard definitions and functions of Discretionary Access Control as outlined in cybersecurity resources such as Built In’s guide to DAC1 and is in accordance with the Certified Network Defender (CND) program’s objectives regarding understanding and implementing access control measures.
Paul is a network security technician working on a contract for a laptop manufacturing company in Chicago. He has focused primarily on securing network devices, firewalls, and traffic traversing in and
out of the network. He just finished setting up a server a gateway between the internal private network and the outside public network. This server will act as a proxy, limited amount of services, and will filter packets.
What is this type of server called?
- A . Bastion host
- B . Edge transport server
- C . SOCKS hsot
- D . Session layer firewall
A
Explanation:
The server described in the question is known as a Bastion host. A Bastion host is a special-purpose computer on a network specifically designed and configured to withstand attacks. It is typically placed in a network’s demilitarized zone (DMZ) and acts as a proxy server, offering limited services and filtering packets to protect the internal private network from the public network. It is hardened due to its exposure to potential attacks and usually hosts a single application, like a proxy server, while all other services are removed or limited to reduce the threat surface1.
Reference: The definition and role of a Bastion host align with the objectives and documents of the EC-Council’s Certified Network Defender (CND) course, which emphasizes the importance of securing network devices and managing traffic between internal and external networks1
Larry is responsible for the company’s network consisting of 300 workstations and 25 servers. After using a hosted email service for a year, the company wants to control the email internally. Larry likes this idea because it will give him more control over the email. Larry wants to purchase a server for email but does not want the server to be on the internal network due to the potential to cause security risks. He decides to place the server outside of the company’s internal firewall. There is another firewall connected directly to the Internet that will protect traffic from accessing the email server. The server will be placed between the two firewalls.
What logical area is Larry putting the new email server into?
- A . He is going to place the server in a Demilitarized Zone (DMZ)
- B . He will put the email server in an IPsec zone.
- C . Larry is going to put the email server in a hot-server zone.
- D . For security reasons, Larry is going to place the email server in the company’s Logical Buffer Zone (LBZ).
A
Explanation:
Larry is placing the new email server in a Demilitarized Zone (DMZ). A DMZ is a physical or logical subnetwork that contains and exposes an organization’s external-facing services to an untrusted network, usually the internet. The purpose of a DMZ is to add an additional layer of security to an organization’s local area network (LAN); an external attacker only has access to equipment in the DMZ, rather than any other part of the network. The email server placed in the DMZ can be accessed from the internet, but it does not have direct access to the internal network, which reduces the risk of an internal security breach if the email server is compromised.
Reference: The concept of a DMZ is covered in the EC-Council’s Certified Network Defender (C|ND) program, which teaches network administrators how to secure their networks against threats. The C|ND program includes strategies for protecting network infrastructure and creating secure architectures, which involves the use of DMZs123.
Cindy is the network security administrator for her company. She just got back from a security conference in Las Vegas where they talked about all kinds of old and new security threats; many of which she did not know of. She is worried about the current security state of her company’s network so she decides to start scanning the network from an external IP address. To see how some of the hosts on her network react, she sends out SYN packets to an IP range. A number of IPs responds with a SYN/ACK response. Before the connection is established, she sends RST packets to those hosts to stop the session. She has done this to see how her intrusion detection system will log the traffic.
What type of scan is Cindy attempting here?
- A . The type of scan she is usinq is called a NULL scan.
- B . Cindy is using a half-open scan to find live hosts on her network.
- C . Cindy is attempting to find live hosts on her company’s network by using a XMAS scan.
- D . She is utilizing a RST scan to find live hosts that are listening on her network.
B
Explanation:
The technique Cindy is using is known as a half-open scan, or SYN scan. This method involves sending SYN packets, which are the initial step in establishing a TCP connection, to various hosts to determine if the ports are listening. If a host responds with a SYN/ACK, it indicates that the port is open and ready to establish a connection. Cindy then sends an RST packet to terminate the session before the connection is fully established. This type of scan is useful for mapping out live hosts on a network without completing the TCP three-way handshake, thus avoiding the creation of a full connection and reducing the likelihood of detection by intrusion detection systems.
Reference: The information about half-open scans can be found in various security resources and
aligns with the ECCouncil’s Network Defender (CND) objectives. It is a common technique discussed in network security literature for its efficiency and stealth123.
A newly joined network administrator wants to assess the organization against possible risk. He notices the organization doesn’t have a________identified which helps measure how risky an activity is.
- A . Risk Severity
- B . Risk Matrix
- C . Key Risk Indicator
- D . Risk levels
B
Explanation:
A Risk Matrix is a tool used to define and prioritize risks. It helps in assessing the likelihood of an event occurring and the impact it would have on the organization, thus measuring how risky an activity is. By not having a Risk Matrix, the network administrator lacks a structured approach to identify, assess, and prioritize risks, which is crucial for effective risk management.
Reference: The Certified Network Defender (CND) program by EC-Council includes the use of a Risk Matrix as part of its approach to network security, which is essential for identifying and mitigating risks within an organization12. The CND curriculum covers the importance of risk assessment and the tools used for this purpose, including the Risk Matrix3.
A VPN Concentrator acts as a bidirectional tunnel endpoint among host machines.
What are the other f unction(s) of the device? (Select all that apply)
- A . Provides access memory, achieving high efficiency
- B . Assigns user addresses
- C . Enables input/output (I/O) operations
- D . Manages security keys
B,D
Explanation:
A VPN Concentrator is a network device designed to manage VPN traffic for multiple users. It acts as a bidirectional tunnel endpoint among host machines and has several key functions. Firstly, it assigns user addresses to enable individual identification within the network. Secondly, it manages security keys which are essential for the encryption and decryption processes, ensuring secure data transmission. The concentrator is responsible for authenticating remote users and granting access to the network after verifying their credentials. It also handles the heavy lifting of encryption and decryption, maintaining the integrity and confidentiality of data traffic12.
Reference: The Palo Alto Networks article on “What Is a VPN Concentrator?” provides a detailed explanation of how a VPN Concentrator works, including its role in managing VPN connections and ensuring secure remote access1.
Privacy Affairs’ article on “What is a VPN Concentrator and How does it Work?” discusses the functions of a VPN Concentrator, including user authentication and management of cryptographic keys2.
James is working as a Network Administrator in a reputed company situated in California. He is monitoring his network traffic with the help of Wireshark. He wants to check and analyze the traffic against a PING sweep attack.
Which of the following Wireshark filters will he use?
- A . lcmp.type==0 and icmp.type==16
- B . lcmp.type==8 or icmp.type==16
- C . lcmp.type==8 and icmp.type==0
- D . lcmp.type==8 or icmp.type==0
D
Explanation:
James should use the Wireshark filter icmp.type==8 or icmp.type==0 to detect a PING sweep attack. This filter will capture both ICMP echo requests and echo replies, which are used in PING sweeps to discover active hosts on a network. When conducting a PING sweep, an attacker sends ICMP echo requests (type 8) to multiple hosts and listens for echo replies (type 0). By monitoring for both types, James can effectively identify a PING sweep attack.
Reference: The use of this filter for detecting PING sweeps is documented in various network security resources, including the InfosecMatter guide on detecting network attacks with Wireshark1, which specifically lists icmp.type==8 or icmp.type==0 as the filter for ICMP ping sweeps. This approach is consistent with standard practices for network monitoring and intrusion detection.
Harry has successfully completed the vulnerability scanning process and found serious vulnerabilities exist in the organization’s network. Identify the vulnerability management phases through which he will proceed to ensure all the detected vulnerabilities are addressed and eradicated. (Select all that apply)
- A . Mitigation
- B . Assessment
- C . Verification
- D . Remediation
A, C, D
Explanation:
After completing the vulnerability scanning process and identifying serious vulnerabilities, Harry will proceed through several phases of vulnerability management to address and eradicate these vulnerabilities. The phases include:
Mitigation: This phase involves taking steps to reduce the impact of the detected vulnerabilities. Mitigation strategies may include applying patches, adjusting configurations, or implementing compensating controls to lower the risk associated with the vulnerabilities.
Verification: In this phase, Harry will verify that the vulnerabilities have been successfully mitigated or remediated. This typically involves re-scanning the network to ensure that the vulnerabilities are no longer present or that their risk has been sufficiently reduced.
Remediation: This is the phase where Harry will take action to fix the vulnerabilities. Remediation can involve patching software, closing unnecessary ports, changing passwords, or other actions that directly address the identified security issues.
These phases are part of a broader vulnerability management lifecycle, which also includes assessing vulnerabilities and reassessing the network after remediation efforts to ensure continuous protection.
Reference: The explanation provided is based on the standard vulnerability management lifecycle, which includes assessment, prioritization, action (mitigation and remediation), reassessment, and improvement as outlined in cybersecurity resources123.
George was conducting a recovery drill test as a part of his network operation. Recovery drill tests are conducted on the______________.
- A . Archived data
- B . Deleted data
- C . Data in transit
- D . Backup data
D
Explanation:
Recovery drill tests are an essential part of disaster recovery planning. They are conducted on backup data to ensure that the data can be successfully restored in the event of a disaster. During these drills, the backup systems are tested to verify that they function correctly and that the data is intact and recoverable. This process helps organizations prepare for actual disaster scenarios and ensures that their backup solutions are effective and reliable.
Reference: The practice of conducting recovery drill tests on backup data is a standard procedure in disaster recovery and business continuity planning, as outlined in various IT and network security resources123.
During a security awareness program, management was explaining the various reasons which create threats to network security.
Which could be a possible threat to network security?
- A . Configuring automatic OS updates
- B . Having a web server in the internal network
- C . Implementing VPN
- D . Patch management
B
Explanation:
Having a web server within the internal network can pose a threat to network security because it increases the attack surface that an adversary can exploit. If not properly secured, internal web servers can be vulnerable to various attacks, such as SQL injection, cross-site scripting, and others. These vulnerabilities can lead to unauthorized access, data breaches, and other security incidents. Therefore, it is crucial to ensure that web servers are securely configured and isolated from the internal network to minimize the risk.
Reference: The EC-Council’s Certified Network Defender (CND) program discusses the importance of understanding the attack surface and the potential threats associated with having critical services like web servers within the internal network. The program emphasizes the need for strategic placement of network resources and the implementation of robust security measures to protect against internal and external threats1
Identify the network topology where each computer acts as a repeater and the data passes from one computer to the other in a single direction until it reaches the destination.
- A . Ring
- B . Mesh
- C . Bus
- D . Star
A
Explanation:
The network topology where each computer acts as a repeater and data passes from one computer to the other in a single direction until it reaches its destination is known as a ring topology. In a ring topology, each computer is connected to two other computers in the network, forming a circular data path. The data travels in one direction (clockwise or counterclockwise) and is passed along the ring until it reaches its intended recipient. If a device does not need the data, it simply passes it along to the next device in the ring1.
Reference: This explanation is based on standard networking principles regarding network topologies, specifically ring topology, as outlined in resources like Comparitech’s guide on network topologies1. It is consistent with the objectives and documents of the EC-Council’s Certified Network Defender (CND) program.
John, the network administrator and he wants to enable the NetFlow feature in Cisco routers to collect and monitor the IP network traffic passing through the router.
Which command will John use to enable NetFlow on an interface?
- A . Router (Config-if) # IP route – cache flow
- B . Router# Netmon enable
- C . Router IP route
- D . Router# netflow enable
A
Explanation:
To enable NetFlow on a Cisco router interface, the correct command is ip route-cache flow, which is entered in interface configuration mode. This command enables NetFlow switching on the specified interface. NetFlow is a feature that captures IP network traffic as it enters or exits an interface. By analyzing the data provided by NetFlow, a network administrator can determine things like the source and destination of traffic, class of service, and the causes of congestion1.
Reference: The information provided aligns with the Cisco documentation for configuring NetFlow on Cisco routers, which specifies the command to enable NetFlow on an interface1.
Michael decides to view the—————–to track employee actions on the organization’s network.
- A . Firewall policy
- B . Firewall log
- C . Firewall settings
- D . Firewall rule set
B
Explanation:
Michael would view the firewall log to track employee actions on the organization’s network. Firewall logs are records of events that are captured by the firewall. They typically include details about allowed and denied traffic, network connections, and other transactions through the firewall. By analyzing these logs, network administrators can monitor network usage, detect unusual patterns of activity, and identify potential security threats or breaches.
Reference: The importance of monitoring firewall logs is emphasized in the EC-Council’s Certified Network Defender (C|ND) program. It is part of the network traffic monitoring and analysis, which is crucial for detecting and responding to incidents on the network123.
Kyle is an IT consultant working on a contract for a large energy company in Houston. Kyle was hired on to do contract work three weeks ago so the company could prepare for an external IT security audit. With suggestions from upper management, Kyle has installed a network-based IDS system. This system checks for abnormal behavior and patterns found in network traffic that appear to be dissimilar from the traffic normally recorded by the IDS.
What type of detection is this network-based IDS system using?
- A . This network-based IDS system is using anomaly detection.
- B . This network-based IDS system is using dissimilarity algorithms.
- C . This system is using misuse detection.
- D . This network-based IDS is utilizing definition-based detection.
A
Explanation:
Anomaly detection in network-based Intrusion Detection Systems (IDS) involves establishing a baseline of normal behavior for the network or system and then monitoring for deviations from this baseline. The IDS analyzes traffic patterns, system performance, user behavior, and other metrics to detect anomalies that could indicate a potential security breach. This method is particularly effective for identifying new or unknown threats that do not match any known signatures or definitions. By focusing on irregular patterns rather than predefined signatures, anomaly detection can provide early warnings of malicious activities that might otherwise go unnoticed.
Reference: The concept of anomaly detection within IDS is discussed in various cybersecurity resources, including academic publications and industry guides, which align with the ECCouncil’s Network Defender (CND) objectives and documents1234.
Mark is monitoring the network traffic on his organization’s network. He wants to detect a TCP and UDP ping sweep on his network.
Which type of filter will be used to detect this on the network?
- A . Tcp.srcport==7 and udp.srcport==7
- B . Tcp.srcport==7 and udp.dstport==7
- C . Tcp.dstport==7 and udp.srcport==7
- D . Tcp.dstport==7 and udp.dstport==7
D
Explanation:
To detect TCP and UDP ping sweeps on a network, the appropriate filter would be one that checks for packets directed at port 7, which is commonly used for the ‘echo’ service. This service is associated with ping functionality for both TCP and UDP protocols. Therefore, the correct filter to use would be Tcp.dstport==7 and udp.dstport==7, which checks for incoming packets where the destination port is 7 for both TCP and UDP traffic. This allows Mark to identify ping sweep attempts, as these would typically send packets to this port to elicit a response from the network.
Reference: The Certified Network Defender (CND) course material outlines the importance of understanding and utilizing network filters to detect various types of network scans and sweeps, including TCP and UDP ping sweeps1. This is further supported by industry practices and discussions on network security monitoring and defense1.
Ivan needs to pick an encryption method that is scalable even though it might be slower. He has settled on a method that works where one key is public and the other is private.
What encryption method did Ivan settle on?
- A . Ivan settled on the private encryption method.
- B . Ivan settled on the symmetric encryption method.
- C . Ivan settled on the asymmetric encryption method
- D . Ivan settled on the hashing encryption method
C
Explanation:
Asymmetric encryption, also known as public-key cryptography, involves two keys: a public key, which can be shared widely, and a private key, which is kept confidential. The public key is used for encryption, and the private key is used for decryption. This method is scalable because it allows for secure communication over an open network without the need for the parties to share secret keys in advance. While asymmetric encryption is generally slower than symmetric encryption due to the complex mathematical computations involved, it provides a high level of security and is essential for tasks such as digital signatures and establishing secure connections over the internet1234.
Reference: GeeksforGeeks provides a detailed explanation of asymmetric key cryptography, including its characteristics and how it addresses key distribution and digital signatures1.
Dashlane’s blog offers a complete guide to asymmetric encryption, its definition, uses, and how it works2.
Kiteworks explains the difference between public and private key encryption and the use of asymmetric encryption on the internet3.
Cloudflare discusses asymmetric encryption and its role in securing web communications through protocols like TLS4.
Identify the password cracking attempt involving precomputed hash values stored as plaintext and using these to crack the password.
- A . Bruteforce
- B . Rainbow table
- C . Dictionary
- D . Hybrid
B
Explanation:
The password cracking attempt described involves the use of Rainbow tables. A Rainbow table is a precomputed table for reversing cryptographic hash functions, primarily for cracking password hashes. These tables store a mapping between the hash of a password and the correct password for that hash, allowing for quick retrieval of the plaintext password if the hash is known. This method is efficient for cracking passwords because it avoids the time-consuming process of computing hashes on the fly during an attack.
Reference: Rainbow tables are a well-known tool in password cracking that leverage precomputed hash values to expedite the cracking process1. They are particularly useful when dealing with standard hashing algorithms where salting is not used, as they can significantly reduce the time needed to crack a password by avoiding the need for real-time hash calculations23. This technique is distinct from brute force attacks, which try all possible combinations, dictionary attacks, which use a list of likely passwords, and hybrid attacks, which combine elements of brute force and dictionary methods4.
Justine has been tasked by her supervisor to ensure that the company’s physical security is on the same level as their logical security measures. She installs video cameras at all entrances and exits and installs badge access points for all doors. The last item she wants to install is a method to prevent unauthorized people piggybacking employees.
What should she install to prevent piggybacking?
- A . She should install a mantrap
- B . Justine needs to install a biometrics station at each entrance
- C . Justine will need to install a revolving security door
- D . She should install a Thompson Trapdoor.
A
Explanation:
A mantrap is a physical security system designed to control access to a secure area through a small space that can only fit one person at a time. This space typically has two sets of interlocking doors. The first set of doors must close before the second set opens, preventing tailgating or piggybacking, where an unauthorized person follows an authorized person into a restricted area. Mantraps can be equipped with biometric verification systems to ensure that the person in the mantrap is authorized to enter the secure area.
Reference: The concept of a mantrap as a security measure aligns with the Certified Network Defender (CND) objectives which include understanding and implementing physical security controls for network security. The use of mantraps is a recognized method to prevent unauthorized access and is mentioned in various security frameworks and guidelines as an effective physical security measure123.
Tom works as a network administrator in a multinational organization having branches across North America and Europe. Tom wants to implement a storage technology that can provide centralized data storage and provide free data backup on the server. He should be able to perform data backup and recovery more efficiently with the selected technology.
Which of the following storage technologies best suits Tom’s requirements?
- A . DAS
- B . PAS
- C . RAID
- D . NAS
D
Explanation:
Network-attached storage (NAS) is the most suitable technology for Tom’s requirements. NAS systems are designed to provide centralized data storage, allowing multiple clients or computers to access the same storage space. This centralization simplifies data management, protection, and backup. NAS systems typically include features that support efficient data backup and recovery, such as automatic backup to other devices and fault tolerance through RAID configurations. Unlike direct-attached storage (DAS), which is limited to one user at a time, NAS allows multiple users to access the storage simultaneously, making it ideal for a multinational organization with dispersed teams. NAS also offers remote data availability, which is beneficial for Tom’s organization that spans across different regions.
Reference: The information aligns with the Certified Network Defender (CND) course’s focus on network security, data protection, and efficient network operation as outlined in the EC-Council’s CND documentation12. Additionally, the benefits of NAS in centralized data storage and backup are supported by various sources that discuss the advantages of NAS for organizational use34.
Identify the spread spectrum technique that multiplies the original data signal with a pseudo random noise spreading code.
- A . FHSS
- B . DSSS
- C . OFDM
- D . ISM
B
Explanation:
The spread spectrum technique that involves multiplying the original data signal with a pseudo-random noise spreading code is known as Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum (DSSS). In DSSS, the data signal is combined with a higher data-rate bit sequence, also known as a chipping code, which divides the data according to a spreading ratio. The chipping code is a pseudo-random code sequence that spreads the signal across a wider bandwidth. This process allows the signal to be more resistant to interference and eavesdropping.
Reference: The information is consistent with the principles of spread spectrum techniques as outlined in various educational resources on the subject, including academic publications and industry standards related to network security and wireless communications12.
Jason has set a firewall policy that allows only a specific list of network services and deny everything else. This strategy is known as a____________.
- A . Default allow
- B . Default deny
- C . Default restrict
- D . Default access
B
Explanation:
The strategy Jason has set up is known as a Default Deny policy. This approach to network security is designed to block all access by default, only allowing services that are explicitly permitted. This is a more secure posture compared to the Default Allow policy, which allows all traffic unless it is specifically blocked. The Default Deny strategy aligns with the principle of least privilege, ensuring that only the minimum necessary access is granted, thereby reducing the attack surface and potential for unauthorized access.
Reference: The concept of Default Deny is a fundamental security posture that is widely recognized and implemented in various cybersecurity frameworks and guidelines. It is also a key feature of the Zero Trust security model, which does not inherently trust any user or device inside or outside the network perimeter and requires continuous verification and authorization for any access attempt.
You are responsible for network functions and logical security throughout the corporation. Your company has over 250 servers running Windows Server 2012, 5000 workstations running Windows 10, and 200 mobile users working from laptops on Windows 8. Last week 10 of your company’s laptops were stolen from a salesman, while at a conference in Barcelona. These laptops contained proprietary company information. While doing a damage assessment, a news story leaks about a blog post containing information about the stolen laptops and the sensitive information.
What built-in Windows feature could you have implemented to protect the sensitive information on these laptops?
- A . You should have used 3DES.
- B . You should have implemented the Distributed File System (DFS).
- C . If you would have implemented Pretty Good Privacy (PGP).
- D . You could have implemented the Encrypted File System (EFS)
D
Explanation:
The Encrypted File System (EFS) is a feature of the NTFS file system available in Windows that provides filesystem-level encryption. It allows for the transparent encryption of files, protecting confidential data from attackers who might gain physical access to the computers. EFS uses a combination of symmetric key encryption and public key technology to protect files. The symmetric key, known as the File Encryption Key (FEK), is used to encrypt the file data, and then the FEK itself is encrypted with a public key associated with the user’s identity and stored with the file. This ensures that only authorized users can decrypt the encrypted files. EFS is particularly suitable for protecting sensitive data on laptops that might be lost or stolen, as it ensures that the data remains inaccessible without the appropriate encryption key.
Reference: The information about EFS is consistent with the features and capabilities as described in the Windows documentation and resources on filesystem-level encryption123.
Geon Solutions INC., had only 10 employees when it started. But as business grew, the organization had to increase the amount of staff. The network administrator is finding it difficult to accommodate an increasing number of employees in the existing network topology. So the organization is planning to implement a new topology where it will be easy to accommodate an increasing number of employees.
Which network topology will help the administrator solve the problem of needing to add new employees and expand?
- A . Bus
- B . Star
- C . Ring
- D . Mesh
B
Explanation:
The star topology is the most suitable for accommodating an increasing number of employees because it allows for easy addition of new nodes or computers without disrupting the existing network. In a star topology, each node is independently connected to a central hub. If a new employee is added, they can be connected to the hub without affecting the other nodes. This topology also simplifies troubleshooting, as each connection can be individually assessed without taking down the entire network. Furthermore, the star topology is known for its scalability and robustness, making it ideal for a growing company like Geon Solutions INC.
Reference: The information aligns with the best practices for expanding business networks as described in the EC-Council’s Certified Network Defender (CND) program, which emphasizes the importance of a scalable and robust network topology for business growth12. Additionally, industry sources confirm that the star topology is recommended for large business offices due to its simplicity, scalability, and ease of expansion
Daniel is giving training on designing and implementing a security policy in the organization. He is explaining the hierarchy of the security policy which demonstrates how policies are drafted, designed and implemented.
What is the correct hierarchy for a security policy implementation?
- A . Laws, Policies, Regulations, Procedures and Standards
- B . Regulations, Policies, Laws, Standards and Procedures
- C . Laws, Regulations, Policies, Standards and Procedures
- D . Procedures, Policies, Laws, Standards and Regulations
C
Explanation:
The correct hierarchy for implementing a security policy starts with the Laws, which are the highest level of legal requirements that an organization must follow. Next are the Regulations, which are specific rules that are derived from laws and apply to certain sectors or types of data. Following regulations, we have Policies, which are high-level statements of management intent and direction for security within the organization. Standards come next; they are specific mandatory controls, rules, and configurations that implement the policies. Finally, Procedures are detailed step-by-step instructions that ensure consistent and repeatable compliance with the standards.
Reference: This hierarchy is supported by various sources, including industry best practices and guidelines on information security policy implementation. The hierarchy aligns with the principles outlined in resources such as the LinkedIn article on Information Security Policy Hierarchy1 and the Gartner community post which states "Policy sets goals, Standards define rules. Controls implement standards, procedures detail steps. Secure baseline config ensures compliance."2.
An organization needs to adhere to the______________rules for safeguarding and protecting the electronically stored health information of employees.
- A . HIPAA
- B . PCI DSS
- C . ISEC
- D . SOX
A
Explanation:
The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) sets the standard for protecting sensitive patient data. Organizations that deal with protected health information (PHI) must have physical, network, and process security measures in place and follow them to ensure HIPAA Compliance. Covered entities (which include healthcare providers, health plans, and healthcare clearinghouses) and business associates that conduct certain health care transactions electronically must comply with the HIPAA Privacy Rule, which protects the privacy of individually identifiable health information, and the HIPAA Security Rule, which sets standards for the security of electronic protected health information (e-PHI).
Reference: The information is based on the standards established by the HIPAA Privacy Rule and the HIPAA Security Rule, which are designed to protect the privacy and security of certain health information1234.
Chris is a senior network administrator. Chris wants to measure the Key Risk Indicator (KRI) to assess the organization.
Why is Chris calculating the KRI for his organization? It helps Chris to:
- A . Identifies adverse events
- B . Facilitates backward
- C . Facilitates post Incident management
- D . Notifies when risk has reached threshold levels
D
Explanation:
Key Risk Indicators (KRIs) are crucial metrics used in risk management to measure the likelihood of potential risks and their impact on an organization. They are designed to provide an early warning signal to notify management when a risk has reached a level that may exceed the organization’s risk appetite and could have a profoundly negative impact on its ability to succeed. KRIs are not typically used to identify adverse events, which is more the role of Key Performance Indicators (KPIs), nor are they used to facilitate backward or post-incident management directly. Instead, KRIs are forward-looking indicators that help in predicting and preventing risks before they materialize into significant threats.
Reference: The explanation provided is based on industry-standard practices for Key Risk Indicators as outlined in resources such as TechTarget and Safety Culture, which align with the objectives and documents of the Certified Network Defender (CND) program12.
John has successfully remediated the vulnerability of an internal application that could have caused a threat to the network. He is scanning the application for the existence of a remediated vulnerability, this process is called a________and it has to adhere to the_________
- A . Verification, Security Policies
- B . Mitigation, Security policies
- C . Vulnerability scanning, Risk Analysis
- D . Risk analysis, Risk matrix
A
Explanation:
The process of scanning an application for the existence of a remediated vulnerability is known as verification. This step is crucial to ensure that the vulnerability has been properly addressed and that the application is no longer susceptible to the previously identified threat. Verification must adhere to the organization’s security policies, which provide the framework and guidelines for all security-related activities. These policies ensure that the verification process is conducted in a manner that is consistent with the organization’s overall security posture and compliance requirements.
Reference: The Certified Network Defender (CND) program emphasizes the importance of adhering to security policies during all stages of network defense, including the verification of remediated vulnerabilities. This ensures that the network remains secure and that all defense measures are in line with the established security protocols123.