Which of the following best describes data security?
- A . Measures to protect data from unauthorized access.
- B . The process of ensuring data is stored in physical locations only.
- C . Backup and recovery techniques for cloud data.
- D . Procedures to duplicate data across multiple locations.
A
Explanation:
Data security encompasses practices, policies, and technologies aimed at protecting data from unauthorized access, breaches, and theft.
Which is NOT a core element of security?
- A . Confidentiality
- B . Data auditing
- C . Integrity
- D . Availability
B
Explanation:
Core elements of security include confidentiality, integrity, and availability (CIA triad). Auditing supports security but is not a core element.
What does the CIA triad aim to achieve?
- A . Regulatory compliance
- B . Comprehensive data security
- C . Data processing efficiency
- D . Encryption protocols
B
Explanation:
The CIA triad―confidentiality, integrity, and availability―forms the foundation of a comprehensive approach to protecting information assets.
Data breaches primarily threaten which aspect of the CIA triad?
- A . Integrity
- B . Confidentiality
- C . Availability
- D . All of the above
B
Explanation:
Data breaches most directly threaten confidentiality by exposing sensitive information to unauthorized parties.
Which of the following can compromise data integrity? (Choose two)
- A . Unauthorized modifications
- B . Man-in-the-middle attacks
- C . User authentication failures
- D . Distributed denial-of-service attacks
A, B
Explanation:
Unauthorized modifications and interception during transmission (e.g., man-in-the-middle attacks) jeopardize data integrity.
What is the first step in establishing a secure computing environment?
- A . Regular software updates
- B . Identifying and classifying assets
- C . Encrypting all data
- D . Installing a firewall
B
Explanation:
Identifying and classifying assets helps organizations understand what needs protection and prioritize
security measures effectively.
Which type of security loss occurs due to a ransomware attack?
- A . Loss of availability
- B . Loss of confidentiality
- C . Loss of integrity
- D . Regulatory penalties
A
Explanation:
Ransomware attacks primarily affect availability by restricting access to systems and data until a ransom is paid.
An insider threat can compromise which elements of the CIA triad?
- A . Confidentiality only
- B . Integrity and availability only
- C . Confidentiality, integrity, and availability
- D . None of the above
C
Explanation:
Insider threats can affect all elements of the CIA triad by stealing, altering, or disrupting access to information.
What is the primary risk of unencrypted sensitive data?
- A . Increased storage costs
- B . Loss of data availability
- C . Exposure during unauthorized access
- D . Longer processing times
C
Explanation:
Unencrypted sensitive data is vulnerable to exposure during unauthorized access, compromising confidentiality.
Which of the following are potential losses due to security attacks? (Choose two)
- A . Financial loss
- B . Reduced system performance
- C . Increased regulatory oversight
- D . Damage to reputation
A, D
Explanation:
Financial loss and damage to reputation are common outcomes of security breaches, affecting organizations severely.
What is an example of a loss of integrity?
- A . Inaccessible systems due to a DDoS attack
- B . Tampered financial transaction records
- C . Exposure of encrypted data
- D . Unauthorized file downloads
B
Explanation:
A loss of integrity occurs when information is altered without authorization, as in the case of tampered transaction records.
Which attack is an example of compromising availability?
- A . Phishing
- B . Denial-of-service
- C . Malware installation
- D . Credential theft
B
Explanation:
Denial-of-service attacks compromise availability by overwhelming a system, making it inaccessible to authorized users.
What is the goal of a security policy?
- A . To enforce organizational structure
- B . To outline measures for protecting assets
- C . To identify potential attackers
- D . To ensure software usability
B
Explanation:
A security policy defines the rules and measures necessary to protect an organization’s information assets and mitigate risks.
Which of the following is a characteristic of effective data encryption?
- A . Publicly available encryption keys
- B . Limited application to sensitive data
- C . Protection against unauthorized access during transmission
- D . Reduced performance of network systems
C
Explanation:
Effective encryption ensures data is protected during transmission, maintaining confidentiality and preventing interception.
Why is regular security training important?
- A . To avoid compliance penalties
- B . To keep employees informed about evolving threats
- C . To reduce encryption overhead
- D . To maintain software licensing requirements
B
Explanation:
Regular training helps employees recognize and respond to evolving cybersecurity threats, improving overall security posture.
Which component is essential for mitigating phishing attacks?
- A . Spam filters
- B . Advanced encryption methods
- C . Physical security measures
- D . Hardware-based firewalls
A
Explanation:
Spam filters reduce the likelihood of phishing emails reaching users, thereby lowering the risk of compromise.
What is the primary purpose of access control?
- A . Securing physical server locations
- B . Ensuring users can view all organizational data
- C . Limiting data access based on roles or permissions
- D . Backing up sensitive information
C
Explanation:
Access control mechanisms limit access to data and resources, ensuring users only access what their roles permit.
An organization’s online store becomes unavailable due to a cyberattack.
What loss does this represent?
- A . Loss of integrity
- B . Loss of availability
- C . Loss of confidentiality
- D . Financial gain
B
Explanation:
When an online store becomes unavailable, it is a loss of availability, affecting business operations and potentially causing financial losses.
Which of the following best reduces the risk of unauthorized data access?
- A . Implementing strong password policies
- B . Regularly updating hardware devices
- C . Limiting network bandwidth
- D . Performing frequent hardware audits
A
Explanation:
Strong password policies protect against unauthorized access by ensuring only authorized users can access sensitive systems.
Which two security measures address both confidentiality and integrity?
- A . Access control and encryption
- B . Multi-factor authentication and redundancy
- C . Firewall implementation and monitoring
- D . Backups and disaster recovery plans
A
Explanation:
Access control limits who can access data, while encryption ensures data remains confidential and unaltered during transmission.
Which of the following is a primary objective of data classification?
- A . Enhance system performance
- B . Reduce storage requirements
- C . Prioritize security measures based on data sensitivity
- D . Enable universal data sharing across departments
C
Explanation:
Data classification organizes information by sensitivity, helping to apply appropriate security controls and prioritize protection efforts.
What is a potential impact of a successful social engineering attack?
- A . Unauthorized data access
- B . Network hardware failure
- C . System performance optimization
- D . Improved compliance policies
A
Explanation:
Social engineering attacks trick individuals into revealing sensitive information, leading to unauthorized data access and breaches.
Which type of data is typically most at risk during transit?
- A . Encrypted data
- B . Redundant backup files
- C . Unencrypted sensitive data
- D . Archived files
C
Explanation:
Unencrypted data in transit is vulnerable to interception, potentially compromising confidentiality and security.
Which of these is an example of a technical control in data security?
- A . Security policies
- B . User awareness training
- C . Firewalls
- D . Incident response planning
C
Explanation:
Technical controls like firewalls provide automated protection against threats, complementing procedural and administrative controls.
What is the primary purpose of multi-factor authentication (MFA)?
- A . To reduce password reset requests
- B . To enhance user convenience
- C . To strengthen access security by requiring multiple verification methods
- D . To eliminate the need for strong passwords
C
Explanation:
MFA adds layers of authentication, making it more difficult for attackers to gain unauthorized access, even if one factor is compromised.
Which are the key advantages of encryption? (Choose two)
- A . Protects data integrity
- B . Simplifies compliance requirements
- C . Ensures data confidentiality
- D . Reduces the need for backups
A, C
Explanation:
Encryption protects data integrity by preventing unauthorized modifications and ensures confidentiality by restricting access to authorized parties.
Which of the following can result in data availability loss?
- A . Unauthorized data encryption by attackers
- B . Accidental deletion of critical files
- C . Prolonged hardware failure
- D . All of the above
D
Explanation:
Data availability can be compromised by encryption attacks (e.g., ransomware), accidental deletions, or extended hardware failures.
What is the most effective way to prevent brute-force attacks on passwords?
- A . Use firewalls to block traffic
- B . Require strong password policies and lockout mechanisms
- C . Encrypt all password files
- D . Implement biometric authentication
B
Explanation:
Strong password policies and account lockout mechanisms reduce the likelihood of brute-force attacks succeeding.
What kind of attack involves overwhelming a server with traffic to make it unavailable?
- A . Phishing attack
- B . Denial-of-service attack
- C . Malware injection
- D . Social engineering attack
B
Explanation:
Denial-of-service attacks flood servers with excessive traffic, disrupting services and making systems inaccessible to legitimate users.
What is the role of a firewall in data security?
- A . Encrypt sensitive information
- B . Monitor and control incoming and outgoing network traffic
- C . Authenticate users before granting system access
- D . Prevent physical access to servers
B
Explanation:
Firewalls act as a barrier between trusted and untrusted networks, filtering traffic based on security policies to prevent unauthorized access.
What is the best way to minimize insider threats?
- A . Monitor network traffic continuously
- B . Restrict employee access to only necessary data
- C . Implement network segmentation
- D . Encrypt all communications
B
Explanation:
Limiting data access to only what employees need for their roles reduces the potential for insider threats.
Which two are common causes of data breaches?
- A . Poor password management
- B . Hardware malfunctions
- C . Social engineering attacks
- D . Lack of data backups
A, C
Explanation:
Weak passwords and social engineering attacks are major contributors to data breaches, often leading to unauthorized access.
Which of the following best describes a zero-day vulnerability?
- A . A known security flaw with no existing patches
- B . A flaw exploited after a patch is released
- C . An outdated security protocol
- D . A misconfigured firewall setting
A
Explanation:
A zero-day vulnerability refers to a security flaw discovered by attackers before the vendor can issue a patch, leaving systems exposed.
What is a key benefit of using network segmentation?
- A . Improved system performance
- B . Reduced impact of breaches on critical systems
- C . Faster data backups
- D . Enhanced physical security
B
Explanation:
Network segmentation limits the spread of attacks by isolating critical systems, reducing the overall impact of breaches.
What is the primary objective of a vulnerability assessment?
- A . Identify and prioritize system vulnerabilities
- B . Replace outdated software
- C . Implement disaster recovery plans
- D . Encrypt sensitive data
A
Explanation:
Vulnerability assessments identify and prioritize risks in a system, enabling proactive security measures to address potential threats.
Which are potential impacts of a loss of confidentiality? (Choose two)
- A . Identity theft
- B . Data corruption
- C . Financial losses
- D . Service unavailability
A, C
Explanation:
A confidentiality breach can lead to identity theft and financial losses, affecting individuals and organizations significantly.
Which type of malware encrypts files and demands payment for access?
- A . Spyware
- B . Ransomware
- C . Worms
- D . Adware
B
Explanation:
Ransomware encrypts files, restricting access to them until a ransom is paid, targeting availability and causing significant disruptions.
Why is regular patch management critical?
- A . To ensure hardware longevity
- B . To reduce downtime during updates
- C . To fix known vulnerabilities and prevent exploits
- D . To simplify system configurations
C
Explanation:
Regular patch management addresses known vulnerabilities, reducing the risk of attacks that exploit outdated software.
What is the best practice for securing sensitive data stored in the cloud?
- A . Storing it in unstructured formats
- B . Using strong encryption methods
- C . Avoiding access control mechanisms
- D . Reducing the number of backups
B
Explanation:
Encrypting sensitive data in the cloud ensures that even if unauthorized access occurs, the data remains unreadable without the decryption keys.
Which two measures can enhance both data integrity and availability?
- A . Regular data backups and hash verification
- B . Firewalls and intrusion detection systems
- C . Biometric authentication and monitoring
- D . Security awareness training and disaster recovery plans
A, D
Explanation:
Data backups and hash verification protect integrity, while disaster recovery ensures availability during incidents.
Which of the following defines data security?
- A . A method of ensuring physical protection of data.
- B . Measures to safeguard data from unauthorized access or corruption.
- C . Techniques for data duplication and storage.
- D . Ensuring all systems are interconnected.
B
Explanation:
Data security involves protecting data from unauthorized access, breaches, or corruption using policies, procedures, and tools.
Which are the main components of the CIA triad in security?
- A . Authentication, Integrity, Availability
- B . Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability
- C . Confidentiality, Accessibility, Authentication
- D . Authorization, Authentication, Access
B
Explanation:
The CIA triad ensures information security through confidentiality (privacy), integrity (accuracy), and availability (accessibility).
What is the primary goal of confidentiality in the CIA triad?
- A . To restrict unauthorized access to sensitive data.
- B . To ensure all data is backed up.
- C . To protect systems from malware.
- D . To provide 24/7 access to systems.
A
Explanation:
Confidentiality ensures only authorized individuals can access sensitive information, preventing leaks and breaches.
A distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attack primarily affects which aspect of security?
- A . Integrity
- B . Confidentiality
- C . Availability
- D . Authentication
C
Explanation:
DDoS attacks overload systems, making services unavailable to legitimate users, directly impacting availability.
Which of the following are considered potential losses due to security attacks? (Choose two)
- A . Financial losses
- B . Improved system performance
- C . Loss of customer trust
- D . Reduction in data redundancy
A, C
Explanation:
Security attacks can lead to financial losses and damage customer trust, affecting organizational reputation and operations.
What is a key purpose of encryption in data security?
- A . To make data readily accessible.
- B . To ensure data is transmitted securely.
- C . To reduce the need for firewalls.
- D . To optimize system performance.
B
Explanation:
Encryption protects data during transmission by converting it into unreadable formats, ensuring secure communication.
An employee accidentally deletes critical files.
What type of loss does this represent?
- A . Loss of confidentiality
- B . Loss of availability
- C . Loss of integrity
- D . Regulatory non-compliance
C
Explanation:
When files are altered or deleted without intent, it constitutes a loss of data integrity, affecting its reliability.
What is the role of authentication in data security?
- A . To protect against phishing attacks.
- B . To verify the identity of users accessing a system.
- C . To enable encryption of sensitive data.
- D . To prevent hardware malfunctions.
B
Explanation:
Authentication verifies users’ identities, ensuring only authorized individuals can access data and resources.
Which of the following ensures data availability?
- A . Frequent data backups and redundancy measures
- B . Strong passwords and encryption methods
- C . Firewalls and intrusion detection systems
- D . Regular software updates
A
Explanation:
Backups and redundancy ensure data availability by providing alternative ways to access data during system failures.
Which two actions can protect the integrity of data?
- A . Implementing strong access controls
- B . Performing regular data backups
- C . Encrypting data during transmission
- D . Using hashing techniques for data validation
A, D
Explanation:
Access controls and hashing prevent unauthorized alterations and verify data accuracy, protecting its integrity.
Which term refers to an unauthorized entity gaining access to sensitive data?
- A . Data breach
- B . Data masking
- C . Data redundancy
- D . Data audit
A
Explanation:
A data breach occurs when unauthorized individuals access sensitive information, violating confidentiality.
Which element of security prevents unauthorized data modification?
- A . Availability
- B . Confidentiality
- C . Integrity
- D . Scalability
C
Explanation:
Integrity ensures that data remains unchanged and accurate, preventing unauthorized alterations or corruption.
A ransomware attack primarily affects which security element?
- A . Confidentiality
- B . Availability
- C . Integrity
- D . Scalability
B
Explanation:
Ransomware encrypts data and systems, preventing access until a ransom is paid, compromising availability.
What is the first step in a robust data security strategy?
- A . Encrypting all sensitive files
- B . Identifying and classifying sensitive data
- C . Deploying a firewall
- D . Implementing multi-factor authentication
B
Explanation:
Identifying and classifying data helps prioritize protection for sensitive information and allocate resources effectively.
Which two practices enhance confidentiality in data security?
- A . Encryption and access controls
- B . Firewalls and disaster recovery plans
- C . Data redundancy and hashing
- D . Incident response plans and backups
A
Explanation:
Encryption protects data privacy, while access controls restrict data access to authorized personnel, enhancing confidentiality.
What is the key benefit of multi-factor authentication (MFA)?
- A . Simplifies password management
- B . Enhances system performance
- C . Increases security by requiring multiple credentials
- D . Eliminates the need for strong passwords
C
Explanation:
MFA strengthens access security by requiring multiple forms of verification, making unauthorized access more difficult.
Which of the following are potential impacts of a phishing attack? (Choose two)
- A . Unauthorized data access
- B . System hardware damage
- C . Credential theft
- D . Improved network speed
A, C
Explanation:
Phishing attacks can lead to unauthorized access by tricking users into sharing credentials or sensitive data.
What is the purpose of access control in security?
- A . To secure physical servers
- B . To restrict unauthorized access to data and systems
- C . To create user accounts
- D . To prevent phishing emails
B
Explanation:
Access control mechanisms ensure only authorized users can access specific data and systems, protecting confidentiality.
Which type of attack often leads to identity theft?
- A . Phishing
- B . Man-in-the-middle
- C . Denial-of-service
- D . Malware
A
Explanation:
Phishing attacks trick users into revealing sensitive information, such as personal or financial data, leading to identity theft.
What is a potential consequence of unpatched software vulnerabilities?
- A . Reduced encryption strength
- B . Unauthorized system access by attackers
- C . Improved system speed
- D . Increased network redundancy
B
Explanation:
Unpatched software vulnerabilities are exploited by attackers to gain unauthorized access to systems and data.
What is the purpose of data masking in data security?
- A . Encrypt data during transmission.
- B . Obscure sensitive data for non-production environments.
- C . Improve data availability in redundant systems.
- D . Facilitate faster data recovery.
B
Explanation:
Data masking hides sensitive data by replacing it with fictitious values for use in testing or non-production environments.
Which attack method is specifically designed to compromise the availability of a system?
- A . Phishing
- B . Denial-of-service (DoS)
- C . Man-in-the-middle
- D . Ransomware
B
Explanation:
A DoS attack overwhelms system resources, making services unavailable to legitimate users and affecting availability.
What is a key element of ensuring data integrity?
- A . Implementing strict access controls
- B . Using hashing algorithms for data validation
- C . Encrypting data during transmission
- D . Restricting physical access to servers
B
Explanation:
Hashing algorithms verify data integrity by detecting unauthorized alterations, ensuring data remains accurate and unmodified.
Which two measures help maintain the availability of data during an attack?
- A . Data redundancy and failover systems
- B . Strong passwords and encryption
- C . Multi-factor authentication and hashing
- D . Firewalls and intrusion detection systems
A
Explanation:
Redundancy and failover systems ensure continuous access to data even during system failures or attacks.
Which of the following best describes a man-in-the-middle attack?
- A . Exploiting software vulnerabilities to gain access.
- B . Intercepting and altering communications between two parties.
- C . Overloading systems with traffic to deny service.
- D . Distributing malware to gain system control.
B
Explanation:
A man-in-the-middle attack intercepts and manipulates communications between two entities without their knowledge.
What is the main purpose of disaster recovery plans in data security?
- A . Prevent phishing attacks.
- B . Ensure rapid recovery after a security incident.
- C . Enhance system performance.
- D . Monitor and log system activity.
B
Explanation:
Disaster recovery plans outline procedures for restoring systems and data quickly after incidents, ensuring availability.
Which two factors contribute to the loss of confidentiality in a system?
- A . Weak password policies
- B . Data encryption during transmission
- C . Lack of access controls
- D . Hashing techniques for validation
A, C
Explanation:
Weak passwords and insufficient access controls expose systems to unauthorized access, compromising confidentiality.
What is the key characteristic of ransomware attacks?
- A . Encrypting data to restrict access until a ransom is paid.
- B . Infecting systems with malicious spyware.
- C . Overloading systems with fake traffic.
- D . Intercepting communication between devices.
A
Explanation:
Ransomware encrypts files, denying users access to their data until a ransom is paid, targeting data availability.
What is the role of intrusion detection systems (IDS) in security?
- A . Prevent unauthorized access.
- B . Detect and alert administrators of potential breaches.
- C . Encrypt sensitive communications.
- D . Enhance physical security measures.
B
Explanation:
IDS monitors network traffic and system activity to identify and alert administrators of potential security breaches.
Which security measure best prevents phishing attacks?
- A . Regular employee awareness training
- B . Strong encryption algorithms
- C . Redundant backups of sensitive data
- D . Biometric access controls
A
Explanation:
Employee awareness training helps users identify and avoid phishing attempts, reducing the risk of compromised credentials.
Which of the following contributes to a loss of data availability?
- A . Unauthorized encryption by ransomware
- B . Weak password policies
- C . Secure data backups
- D . Strong access control mechanisms
A
Explanation:
Ransomware attacks encrypt data, rendering it inaccessible until the ransom is paid, thereby impacting availability.
What is a primary function of encryption in data security?
- A . Improve system performance.
- B . Prevent unauthorized access to data.
- C . Enable seamless data sharing.
- D . Reduce storage requirements.
B
Explanation:
Encryption converts data into unreadable formats, ensuring that only authorized users with decryption keys can access it.
Which are common potential losses from a data breach? (Choose two)
- A . Financial penalties
- B . Enhanced system performance
- C . Loss of customer trust
- D . Increased data redundancy
A, C
Explanation:
Data breaches often lead to regulatory fines and loss of trust, severely impacting financial and reputational aspects.
What is the primary advantage of implementing access controls?
- A . To speed up system processes.
- B . To restrict unauthorized access to sensitive information.
- C . To simplify data encryption.
- D . To reduce the need for system audits.
B
Explanation:
Access controls ensure only authorized individuals can access sensitive information, maintaining confidentiality and integrity.
Which of the following best describes a zero-day attack?
- A . Exploiting a known vulnerability without a patch.
- B . Attacking systems after a vulnerability is patched.
- C . Using outdated software for malicious purposes.
- D . Monitoring network traffic for suspicious activity.
A
Explanation:
Zero-day attacks exploit software vulnerabilities that are unknown to vendors, leaving systems defenseless until a patch is released.
What is a key characteristic of hashing in security?
- A . Converts data into unreadable encrypted formats.
- B . Verifies data integrity by detecting unauthorized changes.
- C . Ensures uninterrupted access to sensitive information.
- D . Enhances data redundancy for recovery purposes.
B
Explanation:
Hashing generates unique values based on data input, allowing verification of data integrity by identifying unauthorized changes.
Which of the following reduces the impact of insider threats?
- A . Encrypting data at rest.
- B . Implementing role-based access controls.
- C . Using redundant storage systems.
- D . Regularly updating antivirus software.
B
Explanation:
Role-based access controls limit access to data based on job functions, minimizing opportunities for insider threats.
What is the most effective way to mitigate risks associated with unpatched vulnerabilities?
- A . Encrypting sensitive data.
- B . Implementing a regular patch management process.
- C . Conducting monthly data audits.
- D . Limiting network bandwidth.
B
Explanation:
Regularly applying patches addresses known vulnerabilities, reducing the risk of exploitation by attackers.
Which security measure protects data in transit?
- A . Firewalls
- B . Encryption protocols
- C . Multi-factor authentication
- D . Data backups
B
Explanation:
Encryption protocols safeguard data during transmission, preventing unauthorized access and maintaining confidentiality.
Which two actions enhance both confidentiality and availability?
- A . Data encryption and failover systems
- B . Role-based access controls and redundant backups
- C . Regular data audits and physical security
- D . Disaster recovery plans and hashing techniques
A, B
Explanation:
Encryption ensures confidentiality, while failover systems and backups maintain data availability during disruptions.
Which of the following is the primary characteristic of malware?
- A . Software designed to enhance system performance.
- B . Software intended to disrupt, damage, or gain unauthorized access.
- C . Software that prevents unauthorized access.
- D . Software that only affects outdated operating systems.
B
Explanation:
Malware is malicious software specifically designed to damage, disrupt, or gain unauthorized access to systems.
Which type of malware encrypts user data and demands payment for its release?
- A . Spyware
- B . Ransomware
- C . Worms
- D . Adware
B
Explanation:
Ransomware encrypts files and demands payment to restore access, targeting availability and causing disruptions.
Which type of malware records user activities without their consent?
- A . Trojans
- B . Adware
- C . Spyware
- D . Worms
C
Explanation:
Spyware collects and transmits user data, such as keystrokes and browsing activities, without the user’s knowledge.
What is the main purpose of antivirus software?
- A . To enhance system performance.
- B . To prevent and remove malware infections.
- C . To encrypt sensitive data.
- D . To reduce the need for system backups.
B
Explanation:
Antivirus software detects, prevents, and removes malware to protect systems from unauthorized threats.
Which of the following is a characteristic of worms?
- A . Requires user intervention to spread.
- B . Replicates itself to spread across networks.
- C . Disguises itself as legitimate software.
- D . Steals personal information via phishing.
B
Explanation:
Worms are self-replicating malware that spreads across networks without requiring user action, exploiting vulnerabilities.
What is a Trojan horse in the context of malware?
- A . A type of malware that spreads without user interaction.
- B . Malware disguised as legitimate software.
- C . A malicious program that targets network hardware.
- D . A virus embedded in hardware devices.
B
Explanation:
Trojan horses appear as legitimate applications but execute malicious activities when run.
Which two features are commonly found in antivirus software?
- A . Real-time scanning and scheduled scans
- B . Data encryption and physical security
- C . Intrusion detection and firewall settings
- D . Multi-factor authentication and password management
A
Explanation:
Antivirus software often includes real-time scanning to detect threats as they occur and scheduled scans for regular system checks.
What should be done after installing antivirus software?
- A . Disconnect the system from the internet.
- B . Update the software and run a full system scan.
- C . Disable real-time scanning to improve performance.
- D . Perform a factory reset on the system.
B
Explanation:
Updating antivirus software ensures it recognizes the latest threats, and running a full system scan identifies existing malware.
Which type of malware modifies its code to avoid detection?
- A . Polymorphic malware
- B . Spyware
- C . Adware
- D . Keylogger
A
Explanation:
Polymorphic malware frequently changes its code structure, making it harder for antivirus programs to detect.
Which of the following is a step to prevent malware infections? (Choose two)
- A . Regularly update operating systems and software.
- B . Avoid using antivirus software to reduce system overhead.
- C . Open email attachments from unknown senders.
- D . Download software only from trusted sources.
A, D
Explanation:
Keeping systems updated and downloading from trusted sources minimizes vulnerabilities that malware can exploit.
How does adware affect a system?
- A . Encrypts system files until a ransom is paid.
- B . Displays unwanted advertisements, sometimes compromising privacy.
- C . Deletes critical system files.
- D . Modifies system settings to reduce performance.
B
Explanation:
Adware generates unwanted advertisements and may collect user data to target personalized ads, affecting system usability.
What is the first step in the process of installing antivirus software?
- A . Running a full system scan.
- B . Checking the system for existing malware.
- C . Downloading the software from a trusted source.
- D . Updating the software definitions.
C
Explanation:
The installation process begins with downloading antivirus software from a reliable source to ensure its integrity.
What is the primary difference between a virus and a worm?
- A . A virus replicates only via user interaction, while a worm spreads automatically.
- B . A virus targets hardware, while a worm targets networks.
- C . A virus encrypts data, while a worm deletes files.
- D . A virus is easier to detect than a worm.
A
Explanation:
A virus requires user interaction, such as running an infected file, while a worm spreads across networks automatically.
What is the role of a quarantine feature in antivirus software?
- A . Deleting all detected malware files.
- B . Isolating suspicious files to prevent them from running.
- C . Backing up infected files for recovery.
- D . Encrypting files to protect them from malware.
B
Explanation:
Quarantine isolates potentially harmful files, preventing them from executing while allowing safe analysis or deletion.
Which type of malware is designed to track keyboard input?
- A . Ransomware
- B . Keylogger
- C . Worm
- D . Trojan horse
B
Explanation:
Keyloggers record keystrokes to capture sensitive information, such as passwords and financial details.
What is the purpose of real-time scanning in antivirus software?
- A . To scan the system only during idle times.
- B . To monitor and detect threats as they occur.
- C . To analyze encrypted files for malware.
- D . To speed up the system’s processing time.
B
Explanation:
Real-time scanning continuously monitors system activity to identify and neutralize threats immediately.
Which two steps should be taken to ensure antivirus effectiveness?
- A . Schedule regular scans and keep software updated.
- B . Disable real-time protection and use manual scans.
- C . Remove software firewalls and enable default settings.
- D . Install multiple antivirus programs for redundancy.
A
Explanation:
Regular scans and updates keep antivirus software effective against new and existing threats.
What is the primary risk of not updating antivirus software regularly?
- A . Slower system performance.
- B . Inability to detect new types of malware.
- C . Reduced file storage capacity.
- D . Increased encryption overhead.
B
Explanation:
Outdated antivirus software lacks recognition of the latest malware signatures, leaving systems vulnerable to emerging threats.
What is the best method to remove stubborn malware from a system?
- A . Reinstalling the operating system.
- B . Running an antivirus scan in safe mode.
- C . Disabling internet connectivity.
- D . Restarting the system in normal mode.
B
Explanation:
Running antivirus software in safe mode helps remove malware by preventing it from running during the scan.
Which two factors improve antivirus software efficiency?
- A . Frequent updates and real-time protection
- B . Increased CPU performance and reduced scans
- C . Uninstalling unused software and firewalls
- D . Disabling non-essential system processes
A
Explanation:
Regular updates and real-time protection keep antivirus software prepared for current threats and ensure constant monitoring.