What is the primary goal of data protection?
- A . To ensure data confidentiality, integrity, and availability
- B . To optimize storage usage
- C . To reduce network traffic
- D . To minimize hardware costs
Which of the following is an example of data protection?
- A . Load balancing
- B . Backup and recovery
- C . Virtualization
- D . System defragmentation
What does RPO stand for?
- A . Recovery Policy Objective
- B . Restore Plan Operation
- C . Recovery Point Objective
- D . Replication Process Order
What is a key characteristic of cloud-based data protection?
- A . Automatic scalability
- B . High latency
- C . No need for encryption
- D . Limited storage capacity
What is the benefit of deduplication in data protection?
- A . Enhanced encryption
- B . Reduced storage usage
- C . Faster backups
- D . Increased network speed
What is the primary focus of GDPR?
- A . Data loss prevention
- B . Compliance with data privacy regulations
- C . Cost reduction in data storage
- D . Increasing encryption standards
Which technique is used for point-in-time recovery?
- A . Archiving
- B . Replication
- C . Snapshot
- D . Deduplication
What is the purpose of a disaster recovery plan?
- A . To reduce data redundancy
- B . To ensure business continuity after an outage
- C . To increase storage efficiency
- D . To implement real-time monitoring
What is a key feature of data archiving?
- A . Storing frequently accessed data
- B . Long-term retention of infrequently used data
- C . Eliminating duplicate data
- D . Real-time data replication
What does RTO measure?
- A . Time allowed to restore operations after a failure
- B . Amount of data lost during a failure
- C . Frequency of data replication
- D . Efficiency of backup storage
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What is the primary benefit of hybrid cloud data protection?
- A . Complete reliance on public cloud providers
- B . Integration of on-premises and cloud solutions
- C . Elimination of local backups
- D . Reduction in compliance requirements
Which compliance regulation focuses on healthcare data?
- A . GDPR
- B . HIPAA
- C . CCPA
- D . SOX
What is the purpose of encryption in data protection?
- A . To reduce storage costs
- B . To secure data from unauthorized access
- C . To replicate data efficiently
- D . To enable faster recovery
Which of the following is a data protection challenge in virtualized environments?
- A . Lack of hardware redundancy
- B . Snapshot consistency
- C . Low network bandwidth
- D . Limited physical space
What is a primary goal of data governance?
- A . Ensuring compliance and data accuracy
- B . Reducing backup frequency
- C . Increasing storage capacity
- D . Simplifying encryption processes
What does zero RPO mean?
- A . No downtime is acceptable
- B . No data loss is acceptable
- C . Recovery must be instant
- D . Replication is unnecessary
Which strategy helps improve disaster recovery readiness?
- A . Regular testing of recovery plans
- B . Increasing storage speed
- C . Reducing backup size
- D . Eliminating encryption
What is the primary purpose of data replication?
- A . To store data in a single location
- B . To ensure data redundancy across systems
- C . To reduce encryption requirements
- D . To enable faster processing speeds
What is a common use of snapshots?
- A . Encrypting backup data
- B . Providing point-in-time data copies
- C . Increasing storage efficiency
- D . Monitoring real-time changes
What is a typical feature of automated backup tools?
- A . Manual operation
- B . Policy-driven management
- C . Lack of cloud integration
- D . Real-time deduplication
What is a critical aspect of disaster recovery planning?
- A . Regular testing of recovery processes
- B . Increased encryption levels
- C . Use of public cloud storage only
- D . Data deduplication implementation
What is the primary focus of data archiving?
- A . Storing critical operational data
- B . Retaining infrequently accessed data long-term
- C . Ensuring high availability of data
- D . Encrypting all archived data
Which regulation emphasizes user consent for data usage?
- A . HIPAA
- B . GDPR
- C . SOX
- D . CCPA
What is the primary benefit of deduplication?
- A . Faster replication
- B . Reduced storage requirements
- C . Improved compliance
- D . Enhanced RPOs
What does an RTO of zero mean?
- A . No downtime is acceptable
- B . Minimal data loss is tolerable
- C . Backup must complete in zero time
- D . Continuous data replication is required
Which data protection strategy involves geographic duplication of data?
- A . Deduplication
- B . Replication
- C . Encryption
- D . Archiving
What is a primary feature of modern automated backup tools?
- A . Manual intervention required
- B . Integration with hybrid cloud environments
- C . Incompatibility with virtualization
- D . Limited encryption capabilities
What is the role of metadata in data protection?
- A . Compressing data during backups
- B . Storing information about data attributes
- C . Encrypting data during replication
- D . Providing real-time data recovery
What is the goal of data governance?
- A . Optimizing disaster recovery speed
- B . Ensuring regulatory compliance and accuracy
- C . Reducing the cost of data replication
- D . Increasing the speed of cloud backups
Which factor impacts the selection of an RPO?
- A . The level of acceptable data loss
- B . The speed of encryption processes
- C . The size of the backup repository
- D . The latency of network connections
What does encryption ensure in data protection?
- A . Data cannot be altered without authorization
- B . Data is stored efficiently
- C . Data is replicated in real time
- D . Data is archived permanently
Which compliance regulation primarily affects financial institutions?
- A . HIPAA
- B . GDPR
- C . SOX
- D . CCPA
What is the purpose of a snapshot in data protection?
- A . Provides real-time encryption
- B . Creates a point-in-time data copy
- C . Compresses backup data
- D . Eliminates redundant data
Which disaster recovery test is most comprehensive?
- A . Tabletop exercise
- B . Simulation testing
- C . Full-scale recovery testing
- D . Partial workload testing
What is a challenge when implementing data protection in hybrid environments?
- A . Inconsistent encryption standards
- B . Ensuring data consistency across platforms
- C . Limited backup scheduling options
- D . High power consumption of servers
What is a common use of archiving in data protection?
- A . Storing frequently accessed data
- B . Long-term storage for regulatory compliance
- C . Real-time replication of data
- D . Enhancing encryption levels
Which of the following describes RPO?
- A . Time needed to restore operations
- B . Amount of data loss an organization can tolerate
- C . Frequency of disaster recovery tests
- D . Speed of backup restoration
What is a benefit of using a hybrid cloud for data protection?
- A . Full reliance on public cloud providers
- B . Flexibility to combine on-premises and cloud solutions
- C . Complete elimination of local backups
- D . Reduction of all compliance requirements
What does geographic replication ensure?
- A . Data is stored in a single location
- B . Data is copied to multiple remote locations
- C . Data is encrypted during transit
- D . Data is archived for compliance purposes
What is the purpose of regular disaster recovery drills?
- A . To reduce network latency
- B . To test the effectiveness of recovery plans
- C . To compress backup data
- D . To improve encryption speed
Which method is used to ensure data availability in multiple locations?
- A . Compression
- B . Replication
- C . Encryption
- D . Indexing
What is the primary goal of data compression in a backup strategy?
- A . To encrypt data
- B . To speed up the backup process
- C . To reduce storage space
- D . To improve data accuracy
Which aspect of data protection is crucial for compliance with GDPR?
- A . Data replication speed
- B . Encryption of personal data
- C . The frequency of backups
- D . The physical security of data centers
What is the advantage of using cloud storage for data backups?
- A . Reduced dependency on local infrastructure
- B . Increased data security
- C . Accelerated data retrieval
- D . Lower cost compared to on-premises solutions
Which technology minimizes downtime during a disaster recovery process?
- A . Real-time data mirroring
- B . Offline data archiving
- C . Manual data entry
- D . Periodic data auditing
How does a snapshot contribute to data protection?
- A . It encrypts all backup data
- B . It provides a historical view of data
- C . It offers a point-in-time copy of data
- D . It archives data offsite
What role does encryption play in data protection?
- A . It prevents data compression
- B . It speeds up the replication process
- C . It secures data from unauthorized access
- D . It reduces the cost of storage
Why is it important to have a data retention policy?
- A . To define how long data should be kept before deletion
- B . To ensure all data is stored indefinitely
- C . To prevent data replication
- D . To guarantee faster data access
What is a key feature of an effective data protection solution?
- A . Ability to increase data volume
- B . Regularly scheduled data purging
- C . Capability to recover data quickly
- D . Dependence on manual processes
How does RPO affect a business’s disaster recovery strategy?
- A . It dictates the backup frequency
- B . It specifies the encryption method
- C . It sets the data mirroring rate
- D . It determines the type of storage media
What is the primary benefit of implementing SOX compliance in data protection?
- A . Ensuring ethical financial reporting
- B . Enhancing data deduplication
- C . Increasing backup speeds
- D . Reducing physical storage needs
What does continuous data protection (CDP) offer over traditional backup methods?
- A . Data is backed up at scheduled intervals
- B . Data is backed up in real-time
- C . Data is less secure
- D . Data backups are managed manually
Which aspect of cloud backups is critical for data recovery?
- A . The geographic location of data centers
- B . The encryption level of backups
- C . The availability of data on demand
- D . The cost of data transfer
What does data archiving accomplish in terms of compliance?
- A . It ensures data is available for audits
- B . It guarantees data is deleted after a set period
- C . It encrypts all archived data
- D . It allows for unlimited data storage
Which recovery solution is essential for maintaining business continuity?
- A . Automated system shutdowns
- B . Redundant data centers
- C . Scheduled downtime
- D . Manual backup procedures
What challenge does virtualization pose to data protection?
- A . It simplifies data encryption
- B . It increases data storage requirements
- C . It complicates data recovery processes
- D . It reduces the need for backups
How does deduplication impact the efficiency of backups?
- A . It increases the backup window
- B . It decreases the amount of data stored
- C . It makes data recovery more difficult
- D . It requires additional hardware
What is the benefit of having a disaster recovery site geographically distant from the primary site?
- A . It increases data latency
- B . It ensures faster data access
- C . It provides protection against local disasters
- D . It simplifies data management
What advantage does encryption offer for cloud-based backups?
- A . It ensures faster data transfer
- B . It decreases storage costs
- C . It secures data against breaches
- D . It eliminates the need for physical backups
Why is it important to perform regular disaster recovery drills?
- A . To ensure the effectiveness of recovery protocols
- B . To increase data storage capacity
- C . To comply with industry standards
- D . To reduce the overall cost of data protection
What is true of hot-swappable hardware?
- A . All components need to be rearranged after swap
- B . Reboot is required after a change
- C . All fans need to be running to ensure proper cooling
- D . Replaceable with zero downtime
In which technique does an application maintain limited functionality, even when some of the modules or supporting services of that application become unavailable?
- A . Retry logic
- B . Persistent state model
- C . Graceful degradation
- D . Checkpointing
What is a disadvantage of source-based deduplication?
- A . Requires more network bandwidth to send data across LAN or WAN during the backup
- B . CPU cycles may impact application performance
- C . High network load since the client checks all segments on the deduplication server device
- D . Increases CPU utilization in the backup appliance
A customer has created a change management window to perform scheduled system maintenance. During the scheduled downtime window, information will be transferred to another system to ensure continuous availability.
What is this process an example of?
- A . Data governance
- B . Data migration
- C . Automated failback
- D . Disaster recovery
Which architectural component scans and archives files?
- A . Archive storage
- B . Archive server
- C . Primary storage
- D . Archiving agent
What are the three pillars of data security and management?
- A . Security, Confidentiality, and Integrity
- B . High availability, Integrity, and Compliance
- C . Integrity, Governance, and Compliance
- D . Confidentiality, Integrity, and Availability
What are the key functions of data management?
- A . detection and orchestration management
- B . discovery and operations management
- C . configuration and detection management
- D . rollout and configuration management
What is a characteristic of storage resource pools?
- A . Resource pools should always be created by different types of storage devices
- B . Resources are reserved by the application after being released by the consumer
- C . Resources are dynamically released to the pool when the consumer exceeds their quota
- D . Resources are dynamically allocated based on consumer demand
What is the process of identifying and moving inactive data from primary storage systems to lower-cost storage systems for long-term retention?
- A . Data archiving
- B . Replication
- C . Business continuity
- D . Data locality
What are three types of backups?
- A . Image, Object, and Block
- B . Block, File, and Object
- C . NDMP, Image, and Object
- D . File, Block, and Image