What is graceful degradation of an application?
- A . Application maintains limited functionality even when some of the modules are not available.
- B . Application can accept all requests from users but responds to only high priority requests.
- C . Application retries the service that is temporarily down and makes it available to users.
- D . Application automatically restarts on another virtual machine and provides full functionality.
A service is offered to a consumer from 9 A.M. to 6 P.M. Monday through Saturday. The service experiences four hours of downtime during one week.
What is the availability of the service for that week?
- A . 90.52%
- B . 92.59%
- C . 95.26%
- D . 97.28%
A service is offered to consumers from 9 A.M. to 5 P.M., Monday through Friday. The service experiences downtime from 3 P.M. to 5 P.M. on Wednesday of a given week.
What is the service availability for that week?
- A . 95.00%
- B . 95.88%
- C . 96.42%
- D . 98.33%
What activity is included in a compliance checklist when moving data to the cloud?
- A . Review and evaluate the usage of encryption to protect consumers’ data
- B . Ensure adherence to the security demands that are expressed in contracts
- C . Determine if appropriate governance processes are available to meet consumers’ requirements
- D . Review the financial stability of the provider to ensure its longevity
What is the goal of lean practices in a software development methodology?
- A . Create quality software with the minimum number of team members
- B . Create quality software in the shortest time period at the lowest cost
- C . Develop software using 12-Factor modern application practices
- D . Develop and deploy software using third platform technologies
What is an advantage of asynchronous remote replication?
- A . Supports replication across any geographic location without impacting response time
- B . Ensures source LUN and replica have identical data at all times
- C . Requires less storage space for the replica than the source LUN
- D . Provides a near zero recovery point objective without impacting response time
What is a characteristic of Simple Object Access Protocol (SOAP)?
- A . Uses XML for formatting messages
- B . Specifies binding of FC and Ethernet frames
- C . Identifies resources based on URIs
- D . Provides 64-bit World Wide Node Name
What is Representational State Transfer (REST)?
- A . Cloud interface standard for portability
- B . Client-server software architectural style
- C . Language to define a service, independent of provider
- D . Protocol for compute-to-storage communication
Which encapsulation function is performed by a Fibre Channel Host Bus Adapter?
- A . SCSI data into FC frames
- B . FC frames into IP packets
- C . Ethernet frames into FC frames
- D . FC frames into Ethernet frames
What is an example of OS hardening?
- A . Deleting unused programs and installing current updates
- B . Changing OS frequently to run applications
- C . Disallowing unauthorized modifications to application settings
- D . Encrypting application data at rest
What is facilitated by the Topology and Orchestration Specification for Cloud Applications (TOSCA) standard?
- A . Packaging and distribution of virtual appliances across clouds
- B . Preparation of functional interfaces for service orchestration
- C . Portable deployment of services to any compliant cloud
- D . Communication between applications running on a variety of platforms
Which are core attributes to a modern infrastructure?
- A . Adaptable, software-defined, and scale-out
- B . Resilient, scale-out, and cloud-enabled
- C . Flash, software-defined, and cloud-enabled
- D . Consolidation, flash, and scale-out
Which Dell EMC product provides a converged infrastructure solution?
- A . XC Series Appliance
- B . VxBlock
- C . VxRail Appliance
- D . XtremlO
Which component of the cloud reference architecture provides automated policy-driven management and delivery of heterogeneous resources?
- A . Software-defined infrastructure
- B . Orchestration
- C . Business continuity
- D . Cloud service
Which data protection solution enables direct backup from primary storage?
- A . Dell EMC Data Domain
- B . Dell EMC ProtectPoint
- C . Dell EMC NetWorker
- D . Dell EMC Avamar
Match each key functions of service operation management with its objective.
Which VMware product automates performance, capacity, and configuration management?
- A . vCenter Operations Management Suite
- B . vCloud Hybrid Service
- C . vCenter Site Recovery Manager
- D . IT Business Management Suite
What is the primary goal of a business continuity solution?
- A . Reduce the amount of investment in protecting an organization’s business-related data
- B . Decreases likelihood of a disaster in a data protection environment to control the loss of data
- C . Ensure data availability that is required to conduct vital business operations
- D . Eliminate security threats in a data protection environment for continuous access to data
Which statement describes the service operation management function?
- A . Deciding to deliver those services that provide value to the provider and reduce operating costs
- B . Managing the provider’s operational expenditure, budget, and billing requirements
- C . Maintaining deployed services, which ensures that service levels are delivered as committed
- D . Defining a suite of service offerings that aligns to the provider’s strategic business goals
What is the role of a proxy server in an image-based backup solution?
- A . Performs backup operations by using the virtual machine snapshot
- B . Stores backup media for a virtual machine backup
- C . Creates the snapshot for the virtual machine to be backed up
- D . Transfers data directly from the guest OS to the backup device
What is the purpose of a bitmap in snapshot creation?
- A . Keeps track of blocks that have changed in the filesystem
- B . Indicates the exact address from which data has to be read
- C . Indicates the exact address to where data has to be written
- D . Keeps track of the number of blocks that are highly utilized
What is a key function of the cloud service component?
- A . Allows consumers to create service offerings for a service catalog
- B . Enables service providers to request the purchase of new IT resources
- C . Presents cloud infrastructure for use of services by consumers
- D . Allows consumers to modify the existing service offerings in a service catalog
An organization is using a shared file system to manage virtual machine (VM) files.
Which statement is true about the file system?
- A . It enables VM files to be stored on remote file servers.
- B . It is installed on the local storage of the computer system.
- C . It enables multiple hypervisors to write to a VM file concurrently.
- D . It is installed on the guest operating system of each VM.
A cloud service provider has standalone mechanisms such as intrusion detection and prevention systems and firewalls in a cloud infrastructure.
Which security mechanism integrates with these mechanisms and uses heuristics to learn user behavior and detect fraudulent activity?
- A . iSNS discovery domain
- B . Hardening
- C . Adaptive security
- D . Kerberos
In which step of the service enablement roadmap is the existing IT infrastructure transformed to deliver the required cloud services?
- A . Build
- B . Plan
- C . Understand
- D . Enable
Which compute system component runs software programs?
- A . CPU
- B . RAM
- C . OS
- D . GPU
Which product enables IT organizations to ensure optimum resource usage and configuration compliance in virtualized and cloud environments?
- A . VMware vCenter Manager
- B . VMware vRealize Operations Management Suite
- C . VMware vRealize Automation Suite
- D . VMware vSphere with Operations Management
What impacts the application response time in synchronous remote replication?
- A . Buffer size at the source storage system
- B . Size of the replica
- C . Distance between the two sites
- D . Size of the source LUN
What is a service template?
- A . Collection of interrelated hardware and software components that constitute a service
- B . Source-code-based specification used by services as an interface to communicate with each other
- C . Entry in the service catalog that describes constraints, policies, rules, price, and SLA
- D . Specification related to the terms of service usage, configuration options, and termination of a service
Which Fibre Channel switch mechanism logically segments node ports within a fabric into groups and enables communication with each other within the group?
- A . Zoning
- B . LUN masking
- C . Fabric binding
- D . Port binding
What is used to update information in a configuration management database?
- A . Performance management tool
- B . Capacity management tool
- C . Configuration manager
- D . Discovery tool
Which encapsulation function is performed by an iSCSI Host Bus Adapter?
- A . SCSI data into IP packets
- B . SCSI data into FC frames
- C . SCSI data into FCIP frames
- D . Both SCSI data and FC frames into IP packets
What is a characteristic of the subscription by time chargeback model?
- A . Cost of providing a cloud service for a period of time is divided among a predefined number of consumers
- B . Easier to manage financially with a predetermined, reoccurring billing cycle
- C . Heavy service usage by one line of business over another does not automatically incur penalties
- D . Controls the service usage by using electronic tickets over a short period
Which two are key requirements for fault tolerance?
- A . Document SPOF and Fault Elimination
- B . Fault Isolation and Eliminate SPOF
- C . Network Isolation and Eliminate SPOF
- D . RAID Storage and Fault Isolation
Which data protection solution enables organizations to protect, manage, and recover data at scale across diverse environments?
- A . Dell PowerProtect DD Series Appliances
- B . Dell Data Domain
- C . Dell Avamar
- D . Dell PowerProtect DP Series Appliances
What enables LUNs to be assigned to the world-wide name of a specific host bus adapter?
- A . LUN rebalancing
- B . LUN hardening
- C . LUN-based zoning
- D . LUN masking
What is a benefit of stretching a compute cluster across service availability zones in a cloud environment?
- A . Enables dynamic workload balancing across zones
- B . Provides high security for compute systems across zones
- C . Reduces bandwidth requirements for replication across zones
- D . Reduces the possibility of disasters occurring in one of the zones
What describes network-attached storage (NAS)?
- A . High-performance file server that either has integrated storage or is connected to external storage
- B . Dedicated file server that maintains the mapping between the object IDs and the file system namespace
- C . Storage system used for creation and assignment of block storage volumes to compute systems
- D . File storage that stores data in the form of objects based on the content and other attributes of the data
A cloud service provider is concerned about an attacker gaining access to consumers’ confidential information by compromising the password database.
Which security mechanism should the cloud service provider deploy to mitigate the risk due to this attack?
- A . Multi-factor authentication
- B . Data shredding
- C . Strong authorization
- D . Malware protection software
Which Dell Technologies product can automate and centralize the collection and analysis of data across physical and virtual environments?
- A . NetWorker
- B . Avamar
- C . SourceOne
- D . Data Protection Advisor
What is the goal of governance?
- A . Adhere to government laws and regulations.
- B . Identify gaps in the ability to stand-up cloud services.
- C . Identify internal and external vulnerabilities.
- D . Establish the likelihood of threat occurrence.
What is an accurate statement about an active/active service availability zone configuration?
- A . It provides a lower recovery time objective (RTO).
- B . The zones must be connected over a FC network.
- C . The zones must be located more than 200 km apart.
- D . It has reduced bandwidth requirements for replication across zones.
What is used to prioritize the latency-sensitive network traffic in order to provide better network service in comparison to less critical network traffic?
- A . Quality of Service
- B . Traffic shaping
- C . Network storm control
- D . Multipathing
In the event of a virtual machine failure, which technique provides zero downtime?
- A . Fault tolerance
- B . Clone
- C . Snapshot
- D . Backup
Which process enables a cloud service provider to ensure that external laws and regulations are being adhered to and that the adherence can be demonstrated?
- A . Compliance management
- B . Governance
- C . Auditing
- D . Risk management
Which software-defined storage controller function gathers data about the components and brings them under its control and management?
- A . Storage provisioning
- B . Storage discovery
- C . Resource abstraction and pooling
- D . Storage component management
Which image represents the correct sequence of steps in a Kerberos mechanism?
A)
B)
C)
D)
- A . Exhibit A
- B . Exhibit B
- C . Exhibit C
- D . Exhibit D
Which storage data protection technique provides space-optimal data redundancy to prevent data loss against multiple disk drive failures?
- A . Erasure coding
- B . Cache protection
- C . RAID
- D . Dynamic disk sparing
Which image represents the correct sequence of steps to determine price per service?
A)
B)
C)
D)
- A . Option A
- B . Option B
- C . Option C
- D . Option D
Which RSA product enables multi-factor authentication?
- A . SecurID
- B . Archer eGRC
- C . Envision
- D . BSAFE
What workflow software enables automation of complex IT tasks?
- A . VMware vRealize Orchestrator
- B . Dell EMC XtremIO
- C . VMware HA
- D . Dell EMC ScaleIO
What is a goal of governance?
- A . Reviewing audit controls and processes
- B . Managing and mitigating uncertainties
- C . Demonstrating adherence to government laws
- D . Identifying internal and external vulnerabilities
A compute system is configured to access files from a network-attached storage system.
What is a characteristic of the file system?
- A . Managed by the object-based storage device node
- B . Managed by the compute system
- C . Managed by the storage system
- D . Part of the storage area network
What ensures that the cloud services and service creation processes adhere to relevant policies and legal requirements?
- A . Problem management
- B . Risk management
- C . Audit management
- D . Compliance management
A consumer is interested in a service that provides multiple operating systems and programming frameworks for application development and deployment.
Which cloud service model meets these requirements?
- A . Storage as a Service
- B . Platform as a Service
- C . Software as a Service
- D . Data as a Service
Which statement describes the OAuth mechanism?
- A . An open authorization mechanism that allows a client to access protected resources from a resource server on behalf of a resource owner
- B . A network authentication protocol that provides strong authentication for client/server applications by using secret-key cryptography
- C . An open authentication standard in which a service provider uses authentication services from an OpenID provider
- D . A mechanism designed to examine data packets traversing a network and compare them to a set of filtering rules
What is a benefit of hyper-threading?
- A . Improved processor utilization
- B . Reduced processor cost
- C . Concurrent execution of multiple threads
- D . Pool processors across compute systems
When configuring an authentication mechanism using Challenge-Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP), where should the CHAP secret be configured?
- A . Initiator and target
- B . Initiator only
- C . Target only
- D . Application server
What is a benefit of link aggregation?
- A . Saves bandwidth by restricting traffic to a specific potentially congested ISL
- B . Improves performance by combining two or more parallel ISLs into a single physical ISL
- C . Optimizes fabric performance by distributing network traffic across ISL
- D . Improves ISL utilization by increasing the network traffic on a specific ISL
What is a characteristic of a converged infrastructure?
- A . Eliminates CAPEX
- B . Eliminates OPEX
- C . Does not require a separate storage array
- D . Enables rapid scalability
Refer to the exhibit, which associates labels A, B, C, and D with planes within the software-defined infrastructure.
What set of labels is correct?
- A . A = Data plane
B = Control plane
C = Management plane
D= Service plane - B . A = Data plane
B = Service plane
C = Management plane
D = Control plane - C . A = Management plane
B = Service plane
C = Data plane
D = Control plane - D . A = Control plane
B = Management plane
C = Service plane
D = Data plane
Which compute system component contains boot firmware?
- A . Operating System
- B . Hard Disk Drive
- C . Read Only Memory
- D . Random Access Memory
The incident management team is unable to determine the root cause of an incident.
To which team should the error-correction activity be transferred?
- A . Performance Management
- B . Change Management
- C . Availability Management
- D . Problem Management
Which statement is true about virtual machine (VM) snapshots?
- A . A snapshot holds only changed blocks.
- B . A single delta disk file is used for all the snapshots of a VM.
- C . A snapshot provides a zero recovery point objective.
- D . A parent virtual disk is not required for recovery from a snapshot.
What is a virtual appliance?
- A . A preconfigured virtual machine, preinstalled with a guest OS and an application, dedicated to a specific function
- B . A master copy of a virtual machine with a standardized virtual hardware and software configuration that is used to create new virtual machines
- C . An interface to view and manage the virtual machines on a physical compute system or a compute cluster
- D . Software installed on a computer system that enables multiple virtual machines to share the resources of the computer system
What happens when a link in a link aggregation group is lost?
- A . All the network traffic is held in the queue until the link is repaired
- B . All network traffic on that link is redistributed to another link aggregation group
- C . All the network traffic is resent by the sender after the link is repaired
- D . All network traffic on that link is redistributed across the remaining links in that group
Which storage-defined controller function abstract physical storage systems into virtual storage systems and virtual storage pools as per policies?
- A . Storage Provisioning
- B . Resource abstraction and pooling
- C . Storage discovery
- D . Storage component management
What is the correct sequence of steps involved in synchronous remote replication?
A development group is using an iterative and incremental software development method.
Which standard is being utilized?
- A . Agile
- B . ITIL
- C . DevOps
- D . Orchestration
An organization plans to migrate an application that has loosely coupled components.
Which migration strategy is suitable for such an application?
- A . Hybrid
- B . Forklift
- C . Functional
- D . Compatible
Match each replication type with the appropriate description.
- A . Continuous Data Protection (CDP) – Remote replication where the write IO from a compute system is committed to both the source and the remote replica before it is acknowledged to the compute system
Snapshot – Remote replication where the write IO from a compute system is committed to the source and immediately acknowledged back to the compute system
Asynchronous – Allows data recovery to any point in time
Synchronous – Creates copy of file system at a specific point in time, even when the original file system continues to be updated and used normally - B . Continuous Data Protection (CDP) – Allows data recovery to any point in time
Snapshot – Remote replication where the write IO from a compute system is committed to the source and immediately acknowledged back to the compute system
Asynchronous – Remote replication where the write IO from a compute system is committed to both the source and the remote replica before it is acknowledged to the compute system
Synchronous – Creates copy of file system at a specific point in time, even when the original file system continues to be updated and used normally - C . Continuous Data Protection (CDP) – Creates copy of file system at a specific point in time, even when the original file system continues to be updated and used normally
Snapshot – Remote replication where the write IO from a compute system is committed to the source and immediately acknowledged back to the compute system
Asynchronous – Allows data recovery to any point in time
Synchronous – Remote replication where the write IO from a compute system is committed to the source and immediately acknowledged back to the compute system - D . Continuous Data Protection (CDP) – Creates copy of file system at a specific point in time, even when the original file system continues to be updated and used normally
Snapshot – Remote replication where the write IO from a compute system is committed to both the source and the remote replica before it is acknowledged to the compute system
Asynchronous – Remote replication where the write IO from a compute system is committed to the source and immediately acknowledged back to the compute system
Synchronous – Allows data recovery to any point in time
Which cloud service model enables an organization to deploy a proprietary operating system and applications on a cloud provider’s resources?
- A . Infrastructure as a Service
- B . Platform as a Service
- C . Software as a Service
- D . Desktop as a Service
A Cloud Service Brokerage combines cloud services provided by multiple cloud service providers into one or more new services. The specific number of services they combine varies based on user logic.
Which type of Cloud Service Brokerage is it?
- A . Integration
- B . Aggregation
- C . Intermediation
- D . Arbitrage
Which RAID level enables quick data reconstruction if two disks fail?
- A . RAID 0
- B . RAID 1
- C . RAID 5
- D . RAID 6
What is a function of a cloud portal?
- A . Updates IT resources database
- B . Replicates container resources in a web portal
- C . Interacts with the orchestration layer
- D . Creates workflows for automated scheduling
What is a benefit of standardizing the cloud interface?
- A . Enhances portability and interoperability across clouds
- B . Reduces service provisioning time and operating expenditures
- C . Provides flexibility and scalability to configure resources
- D . Personalizes the functional and management interfaces of a cloud
Which solution provides the capability to restore data to any previous point in time?
- A . Image-based backup
- B . Asynchronous replication
- C . Guest-level backup
- D . Continuous data protection
Consider a virtual machine (VM) with 2 GB memory capacity and 1200 MHz processing power as its lower bounds, and 4 GB memory capacity and 2400 MHz processing power as its upper bounds.
What is the effect on the VM if the memory capacity or processing power available to the VM is less than 2 GB and 1200 MHz respectively?
- A . The VM will not power on using this configuration.
- B . The VM will run with degraded performance.
- C . The VM will allow only a few applications to run.
- D . The VM will allow only one operating system to be installed.
What is specified by a service attribute?
- A . Relationships between services
- B . Configurations of service components
- C . Management operations
- D . Structure of a service
Which resource management technique improves utilization of storage by reducing the amount of allocated-but-unused physical storage?
- A . Virtual storage provisioning
- B . Automated storage tiering
- C . Storage pool rebalancing
- D . Cache tiering
What are two components of an FCoE network?
- A . E_Port, port zone
- B . FCoE Bridge, FC Host Bus Adapter
- C . TCP/IP, Fibre Channel
- D . Converged Network Adapter, FC Forwarder
What is the correct sequence of steps in asynchronous remote replication?
- A . Step 1: Compute system writes data to source.
Step 2: Write is immediately acknowledged to compute system.
Step 3: Data is transmitted to the replica (target).
Step 4: Target acknowledges back to source. - B . Step 1: Compute system writes data to source.
Step 2: Data is transmitted to the replica (target).
Step 3: Target acknowledges back to source.
Step 4: Write is immediately acknowledged to compute system. - C . Step 1: Compute system writes data to source.
Step 2: Write is immediately acknowledged to compute system.
Step 3: Target acknowledges back to source.
Step 4: Data is transmitted to the replica (target). - D . Step 1: Compute system writes data to source.
Step 2: Data from source is replicated to replica (target).
Step 3: Target acknowledges back to source.
Step 4: Source acknowledges write complete to the compute system.
Which activity is carried out during the service termination phase of the cloud service lifecycle?
- A . De-provisioning the service instance
- B . Asking for the service contract
- C . Establishing the billing policy
- D . Providing the final service assessment report
A cloud provider installs a virtual firewall on a hypervisor to reduce the scope of a security breach when there is already a network-based firewall deployed in the cloud environment.
Which strategy did the cloud provider use to mitigate the risk of security threats?
- A . Trusted computing base
- B . Defense-in-depth
- C . Information assurance framework
- D . Adaptive security
What is a characteristic of thin LUNs?
- A . When a thin LUN is destroyed, its allocated capacity is automatically reclaimed to the pool.
- B . When a thin LUN is created, physical storage is fully allocated for it
- C . Once a thin LUN is created it cannot be destroyed until all data is deleted from it
- D . When a thin LUN is destroyed, its allocated capacity is reserved until an administrator reclaims it
An organization plans to deploy remote replication between two sites for disaster recovery without affecting the application response time. The two sites are 1000 miles (1600 km) apart.
Which solution would you recommend to the organization?
- A . Snapshot replication
- B . Image-based replication
- C . Synchronous replication
- D . Asynchronous replication
Which product delivers software-defined networks and security with a broad range of services, including a virtual firewall, virtual private network, load balancing, and VXLAN extended networks?
- A . RSA Archer eGRC
- B . RSA Adaptive Authentication
- C . VMware vCloud Networking and Security
- D . RSA Security Analytics
What do consumers use to manage rented service instances?
- A . Unified manager
- B . Orchestrator
- C . Software-defined controller
- D . Cloud interface
Which APEX custom solution allows customers to choose their hardware, software, services, capacity, and offers usage-based payments?
- A . Data Center Utility
- B . Backup Services
- C . Private and Hybrid Cloud
- D . Flex on Demand
What is an advantage of adopting a microservices strategy in an application development environment?
- A . All microservices of an application are always updated at the same time for maintaining consistency in the application
- B . Every microservice can be deployed, upgraded, scaled, and restarted independent of other services in the application
- C . Microservices are tightly coupled so it is easy to scale all the services at once to meet business demands
- D . Microservices provide the application platform to implement DevOps in the organization easily and at low cost
What is a function of the discovery operation during the service operation phase of the cloud service lifecycle?
- A . Collects information about people involved in the service operations
- B . Collects information about services available in the catalog
- C . Provides visibility into each Cloud service asset employed
- D . Restores service levels while continuously optimizing operations
Which plane in a software-defined storage environment manages and provisions storage?
- A . Application
- B . Service
- C . Data
- D . Control
Which method optimizes network performance by distributing network traffic across the shared bandwidth of all the ISLs?
- A . Link aggregation
- B . Network zoning
- C . Network segmentation
- D . Link failover
Which protocol is most commonly used for compute-to-computer communication?
- A . TCP/IP
- B . FC
- C . FCIP
- D . iSCSI
An organization wants to deploy performance sensitive applications to meet their business requirements.
Which type of storage device is suitable?
- A . SATA drive
- B . Solid-state drive
- C . SAS drive
- D . Optical disk drive
How is a node added to a virtual storage area network (VSAN) created on a Fibre Channel SAN?
- A . Assign the VSAN ID to an F_Port on a FC switch
Connect the N_Port on the node to the F_Port - B . Assign the VSAN ID to the N_Port on the node
Connect the N_Port to an E_Port on a FC switch - C . Assign the VSAN ID to an E_Port on a FC switch
Connect the N_Port on the node to the E_Port - D . Assign the VSAN ID to the N_Port on the node
Connect the N_Port to an F_Port on a FC switch
Which EMC security product measures the risk associated with a user’s login and post-login activities by evaluating a variety of risk indicators?
- A . RSA Security Analytics
- B . RSA Adaptive Authentication
- C . RSA Archer eGRC
- D . RSA SecurID
Which technique of an intrusion detection and prevention system relies on a database that contains known attack patterns, and scans events against it?
- A . Signature-based detection
- B . Anomaly-based detection
- C . Device-based detection
- D . Plug-in-based detection
Which entities are involved in the OAuth mechanism?
- A . Resource owner, resource server, client, authorization server
- B . Resource owner, resource server, client, application server
- C . Resource client, resource server, owner, authentication server
- D . Resource client, resource server, owner, application server
What is a function of business relationship management?
- A . Determine if the capacity of IT services can deliver the agreed upon service levels
- B . Identity requirements and ensure that the appropriate services are provided
- C . Identify accurate information for all operational services
- D . Determine what the sufficient capacity is to meet business demand