Which of the following is typical of software licensing in the cloud?
- A . Per socket
- B . Perpetual
- C . Subscription-based
- D . Site-based
C
Explanation:
Cloud software licensing refers to the process of managing and storing software licenses in the cloud. The benefits of cloud software licensing models are vast. The main and most attractive benefit has to do with the ease of use for software vendors and the ability to provide customizable cloud software license management based on customer needs and desires1. Cloud-based licensing gives software developers and vendors the opportunity to deliver software easily and quickly and gives customers full control over their licenses, their analytics, and more1. Cloud based licensing gives software sellers the ability to add subscription models to their roster of services1. Subscription models are one of the most popular forms of licensing today1. Users sign up for a subscription (often based on various options and levels of use, features, etc.) and receive their licenses instantly1.
Reference: 1 Everything You Need to Know about Cloud Licensing | Thales
A server administrator wants to run a performance monitor for optimal system utilization.
Which of the following metrics can the administrator use for monitoring? (Choose two.)
- A . Memory
- B . Page file
- C . Services
- D . Application
- E . CPU
- F . Heartbeat
AE
Explanation:
Memory and CPU are two metrics that can be used for monitoring system utilization. Memory refers to the amount of RAM that is available and used by the system and its processes. CPU refers to the percentage of processor time that is consumed by the system and its processes. Both memory and CPU can affect the performance and responsiveness of the system and its applications. Monitoring memory and CPU can help identify bottlenecks, resource contention, memory leaks, high load, etc.
After configuring IP networking on a newly commissioned server, a server administrator installs a straight- through network cable from the patch panel to the switch. The administrator then returns to the server to test network connectivity using the ping command.
The partial output of the ping and ipconfig commands are displayed below:
The administrator returns to the switch and notices an amber link light on the port where the server is connected.
Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for the lack of network connectivity?
- A . Network port security
- B . An improper VLAN configuration
- C . A misconfigured DHCP server
- D . A misconfigured NIC on the server
D
Explanation:
A misconfigured NIC on the server is the most likely reason for the lack of network connectivity. The output of the ping command shows that the server is unable to reach its default gateway (10.0.0.1) or any other IP address on the network. The output of the ipconfig command shows that the server has a valid IP address (10.0.0.10) and subnet mask (255.255.255.0) but no default gateway configured. This indicates that there is a problem with the NIC settings on the server, such as an incorrect IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, DNS server, etc. A misconfigured NIC can also cause an amber link light on the switch port, which indicates a speed or duplex mismatch between the NIC and the switch.
A user cannot save large files to a directory on a Linux server that was accepting smaller files a few minutes ago.
Which of the following commands should a technician use to identify the issue?
- A . pvdisplay
- B . mount
- C . df -h
- D . fdisk -l
C
Explanation:
The df -h command should be used to identify the issue of not being able to save large files to a directory on a Linux server. The df -h command displays disk space usage in human-readable format for all mounted file systems on the server. It shows the total size, used space, available space, percentage of use, and mount point of each file system. By using this command, a technician can check if there is enough free space on the file system where the directory is located or if it has reached its capacity limit.
Following a recent power outage, a server in the datacenter has been constantly going offline and losing its configuration. Users have been experiencing access issues while using the application on the server. The server technician notices the data and time are incorrect when the server is online. All other servers are working.
Which of the following would MOST likely cause this issue? (Choose two.)
- A . The server has a faulty power supply
- B . The server has a CMOS battery failure
- C . The server requires OS updates
- D . The server has a malfunctioning LED panel
- E . The servers do not have NTP configured
- F . The time synchronization service is disabled on the servers
BF
Explanation:
The server has a CMOS battery failure and the time synchronization service is disabled on the servers. The CMOS battery is a small battery on the motherboard that powers the BIOS settings and keeps track of the date and time when the server is powered off. If the CMOS battery fails, the server will lose its configuration and display an incorrect date and time when it is powered on. This can cause access issues for users and applications that rely on accurate time stamps. The time synchronization service is a service that synchronizes the system clock with a reliable external time source, such as a network time protocol (NTP) server. If the time synchronization service is disabled on the servers, they will not be able to update their clocks automatically and may drift out of sync with each other and with the network. This can also cause access issues for users and applications that require consistent and accurate time across the network.
A company has implemented a requirement to encrypt all the hard drives on its servers as part of a data loss prevention strategy.
Which of the following should the company also perform as a data loss prevention method?
- A . Encrypt all network traffic
- B . Implement MFA on all the servers with encrypted data
- C . Block the servers from using an encrypted USB
- D . Implement port security on the switches
B
Explanation:
The company should also implement MFA on all the servers with encrypted data as a data loss prevention method. MFA stands for multi-factor authentication, which is a method of verifying a user’s identity by requiring two or more pieces of evidence, such as something they know (e.g., a password), something they have (e.g., a token), or something they are (e.g., a fingerprint). MFA adds an extra layer of security to prevent unauthorized access to sensitive data, even if the user’s password is compromised or stolen. Encrypting the hard drives on the servers protects the data from being read or copied if the drives are physically removed or stolen, but it does not prevent unauthorized access to the data if the user’s credentials are valid.
A systems administrator is setting up a server on a LAN that uses an address space that follows the RFC 1918 standard.
Which of the following IP addresses should the administrator use to be in compliance with the standard?
- A . 11.251.196.241
- B . 171.245.198.241
- C . 172.16.19.241
- D . 193.168.145.241
C
Explanation:
The administrator should use 172.16.19.241 as an IP address to be in compliance with RFC 1918 standard. RFC 1918 defines three ranges of IP addresses that are reserved for private internets, meaning they are not globally routable on the public Internet and can be used within an enterprise without any risk of conflict or overlap with other networks.
These ranges are:
A systems administrator is setting up a server on a LAN that uses an address space that follows the RFC 1918 standard.
Which of the following IP addresses should the administrator use to be in compliance with the standard?
- A . 11.251.196.241
- B . 171.245.198.241
- C . 172.16.19.241
- D . 193.168.145.241
C
Explanation:
The administrator should use 172.16.19.241 as an IP address to be in compliance with RFC 1918 standard. RFC 1918 defines three ranges of IP addresses that are reserved for private internets, meaning they are not globally routable on the public Internet and can be used within an enterprise without any risk of conflict or overlap with other networks.
These ranges are:
A systems administrator is setting up a server on a LAN that uses an address space that follows the RFC 1918 standard.
Which of the following IP addresses should the administrator use to be in compliance with the standard?
- A . 11.251.196.241
- B . 171.245.198.241
- C . 172.16.19.241
- D . 193.168.145.241
C
Explanation:
The administrator should use 172.16.19.241 as an IP address to be in compliance with RFC 1918 standard. RFC 1918 defines three ranges of IP addresses that are reserved for private internets, meaning they are not globally routable on the public Internet and can be used within an enterprise without any risk of conflict or overlap with other networks.
These ranges are:
A systems administrator is setting up a server on a LAN that uses an address space that follows the RFC 1918 standard.
Which of the following IP addresses should the administrator use to be in compliance with the standard?
- A . 11.251.196.241
- B . 171.245.198.241
- C . 172.16.19.241
- D . 193.168.145.241
C
Explanation:
The administrator should use 172.16.19.241 as an IP address to be in compliance with RFC 1918 standard. RFC 1918 defines three ranges of IP addresses that are reserved for private internets, meaning they are not globally routable on the public Internet and can be used within an enterprise without any risk of conflict or overlap with other networks.
These ranges are:
An administrator needs to perform bare-metal maintenance on a server in a remote datacenter.
Which of the following should the administrator use to access the server’s console?
- A . IP KVM
- B . VNC
- C . A crash cart
- D . RDP
- E . SSH
A
Explanation:
The administrator should use an IP KVM to access the server’s console remotely for bare-metal maintenance. An IP KVM stands for Internet Protocol Keyboard Video Mouse, which is a device that allows remote control of a server’s keyboard, video, and mouse over a network connection, such as LAN or Internet. An IP KVM enables an administrator to perform tasks such as BIOS configuration, boot sequence selection, operating system installation, etc., without being physically present at the server location.
The other options are not suitable for bare-metal maintenance because they require either physical access to the server (a crash cart) or an operating system running on the server (VNC, RDP, SSH). A crash cart is a mobile unit that contains a monitor, keyboard, mouse, and cables that can be plugged into a server for direct access to its console. VNC stands for Virtual Network Computing, which is a software that allows remote desktop sharing and control over a network connection using a graphical user interface (GUI). RDP stands for Remote Desktop Protocol, which is a protocol that allows remote desktop access and control over a network connection using a GUI or command-line interface (CLI). SSH stands for Secure Shell, which is a protocol that allows secure remote login and command execution over a network connection using a CLI.
A technician needs to provide a VM with high availability.
Which of the following actions should the technician take to complete this task as efficiently as possible?
- A . Take a snapshot of the original VM
- B . Clone the original VM
- C . Convert the original VM to use dynamic disks
- D . Perform a P2V of the original VM
B
Explanation:
Cloning the original VM is the most efficient way to provide a VM with high availability. Cloning is the process of creating an exact copy of a VM, including its configuration, operating system, applications, and data. A cloned VM can be used as a backup or a replica of the original VM, and can be powered on and run independently. Cloning can be done quickly and easily using vSphere tools or other third-party software. By cloning the original VM and placing it on a different host server or availability zone, the technician can ensure that if the original VM fails, the cloned VM can take over its role and provide uninterrupted service to the users and applications.
A server administrator receives a report that Ann, a new user, is unable to save a file to her home directory on a server.
The administrator checks Ann’s home directory permissions and discovers the following: dr-xr-xr– /home/Ann
Which of the following commands should the administrator use to resolve the issue without granting unnecessary permissions?
- A . chmod 777 /home/Ann
- B . chmod 666 /home/Ann
- C . chmod 711 /home/Ann
- D . chmod 754 /home/Ann
D
Explanation:
The administrator should use the command chmod 754 /home/Ann to resolve the issue without granting unnecessary permissions. The chmod command is used to change the permissions of files and directories on a Linux server. The permissions are represented by three numbers, each ranging from 0 to 7, that correspond to the read ®, write (w), and execute (x) permissions for the owner, group, and others respectively. The numbers are calculated by adding up the values of each permission: r = 4, w = 2, x = 1. For example, 7 means rwx (4 + 2 + 1), 6 means rw- (4 + 2), 5 means r-x (4 + 1), etc. In this case, Ann’s home directory has the permissions dr-xr-xrC, which means that only the owner (d) can read ® and execute (x) the directory, and the group and others can only read ® and execute (x) but not write (w) to it. This prevents Ann from saving files to her home directory. To fix this issue, the administrator should grant write permission to the owner by using chmod 754 /home/Ann, which means that the owner can read ®, write (w), and execute (x) the directory, the group can read ® and execute (x) but not write (w) to it, and others can only read ® but not write (w) or execute (x) it. This way, Ann can save files to her home directory without giving unnecessary permissions to others.
Reference: https://linuxize.com/post/what-does-chmod-777-mean/
Which of the following documents would be useful when trying to restore IT infrastructure operations after a non-planned interruption?
- A . Service-level agreement
- B . Disaster recovery plan
- C . Business impact analysis
- D . Business continuity plan
B
Explanation:
A disaster recovery plan would be useful when trying to restore IT infrastructure operations after a non-planned interruption. A disaster recovery plan is a document that outlines the steps and procedures to recover from a major disruption of IT services caused by natural or man-made disasters, such as fire, flood, earthquake, cyberattack, etc.
A disaster recovery plan typically includes:
A list of critical IT assets and resources that need to be protected and restored
A list of roles and responsibilities of IT staff and stakeholders involved in the recovery process
A list of backup and recovery strategies and tools for data, applications, servers, networks, etc.
A list of communication channels and methods for notifying users, customers, vendors, etc. A list of testing and validation methods for ensuring the functionality and integrity of restored systems
A list of metrics and criteria for measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of the recovery process
A disaster recovery plan helps IT organizations to minimize downtime, data loss, and financial impact of a disaster, as well as to resume normal operations as quickly as possible.
A systems administrator is setting up a new server that will be used as a DHCP server. The administrator installs the OS but is then unable to log on using Active Directory credentials. The administrator logs on using the local administrator account and verifies the server has the correct IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway. The administrator then gets on another server and can ping the new server.
Which of the following is causing the issue?
- A . Port 443 is not open on the firewall
- B . The server is experiencing a downstream failure
- C . The local hosts file is blank
- D . The server is not joined to the domain
D
Explanation:
The server is not joined to the domain is causing the issue. A domain is a logical grouping of computers that share a common directory database and security policy on a network. Active Directory is a Microsoft technology that provides domain services for Windows-based computers. To use Active Directory credentials to log on to a server, the server must be joined to the domain that hosts Active Directory. If the server is not joined to the domain, it will not be able to authenticate with Active Directory and will only accept local accounts for logon. To join a server to a domain, the administrator must have a valid domain account with sufficient privileges and must know the name of the domain controller that hosts Active Directory.
A systems administrator is preparing to install two servers in a single rack. The administrator is concerned that having both servers in one rack will increase the chance of power issues due to the increased load.
Which of the following should the administrator implement FIRST to address the issue?
- A . Separate circuits
- B . An uninterruptible power supply
- C . Increased PDU capacity
- D . Redundant power supplies
A
Explanation:
The administrator should implement separate circuits first to address the issue of power issues due to the increased load. Separate circuits are electrical wiring systems that provide independent power sources for different devices or groups of devices. By using separate circuits, the administrator can avoid overloading a single circuit with too many servers and reduce the risk of power outages, surges, or fires. Separate circuits also provide redundancy and fault tolerance, as a failure in one circuit will not affect the other circuit.
Which of the following is a method that is used to prevent motor vehicles from getting too close to building entrances and exits?
- A . Bollards
- B . Reflective glass
- C . Security guards
- D . Security cameras
A
Explanation:
Bollards are an example of a method that is used to prevent motor vehicles from getting too close to building entrances and exits. Bollards are short, sturdy posts that are installed on sidewalks, parking lots, or roads to create physical barriers and control traffic flow. Bollards can be used to protect pedestrians, buildings, or other structures from vehicle collisions or attacks. Bollards can be made of various materials, such as metal, concrete, or plastic, and can be fixed, removable, or retractable.
Reference: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bollard
A technician is installing a variety of servers in a rack.
Which of the following is the BEST course of action for the technician to take while loading the rack?
- A . Alternate the direction of the airflow
- B . Install the heaviest server at the bottom of the rack
- C . Place a UPS at the top of the rack
- D . Leave 1U of space between each server
B
Explanation:
The technician should install the heaviest server at the bottom of the rack to load the rack properly. Installing the heaviest server at the bottom of the rack helps to balance the weight distribution and prevent the rack from tipping over or collapsing. Installing the heaviest server at the bottom of the rack also makes it easier to access and service the server without lifting or moving it. Installing the heaviest server at any other position in the rack could create instability and safety hazards.
A technician is configuring a server that requires secure remote access.
Which of the following ports should the technician use?
- A . 21
- B . 22
- C . 23
- D . 443
B
Explanation:
The technician should use port 22 to configure a server that requires secure remote access. Port 22 is the default port for Secure Shell (SSH), which is a protocol that allows secure remote login and command execution over a network connection using a command-line interface (CLI). SSH encrypts both the authentication and data transmission between the client and the server, preventing eavesdropping, tampering, or spoofing. SSH can be used to perform various tasks on a server remotely, such as configuration, administration, maintenance, troubleshooting, etc.
A server administrator is using remote access to update a server. The administrator notices numerous error messages when using YUM to update the applications on a server.
Which of the following should the administrator check FIRST?
- A . Network connectivity on the server
- B . LVM status on the server
- C . Disk space in the /var directory
- D . YUM dependencies
C
Explanation:
The administrator should check disk space in the /var directory first when using YUM to update applications on a server. YUM stands for Yellow dog Updater Modified, which is a software package manager for Linux systems that use RPM (Red Hat Package Manager) packages. YUM downloads and installs packages from online repositories and resolves dependencies automatically. YUM stores its cache files in the /var/cache/yum directory by default. These cache files include metadata and package data for each repository that YUM uses. If there is not enough disk space in the /var directory, YUM may fail to update applications and generate error messages.
Which of the following is an example of load balancing?
- A . Round robin
- B . Active-active
- C . Active-passive
- D . Failover
A
Explanation:
Round robin is an example of load balancing. Load balancing is the method of distributing network traffic equally across a pool of resources that support an application. Load balancing improves application availability, scalability, security, and performance by preventing any single resource from being overloaded or unavailable. Round robin is a simple load balancing algorithm that assigns each incoming request to the next available resource in a circular order. For example, if there are three servers (A, B, C) in a load balancer pool, round robin will send the first request to server A, the second request to server B, the third request to server C, the fourth request to server A again, and so on.
Reference: https://simplicable.com/new/load-balancing
Which of the following is the MOST appropriate scripting language to use for a logon script for a Linux box?
- A . VBS
- B . Shell
- C . Java
- D . PowerShell
- E . Batch
B
Explanation:
Shell is the most appropriate scripting language to use for a logon script for a Linux box. Shell is a generic term for a command-line interpreter that allows users to interact with the operating system by typing commands and executing scripts. Shell scripts are files that contain a series of commands and instructions that can be executed by a shell. Shell scripts are commonly used for automating tasks, such as logon scripts that run when a user logs on to a system. There are different types of shells available for Linux systems, such as Bash, Ksh, Zsh, etc., but they all share a similar syntax and functionality.
Which of the following tools will analyze network logs in real time to report on suspicious log events?
- A . Syslog
- B . DLP
- C . SIEM
- D . HIPS
C
Explanation:
SIEM is the tool that will analyze network logs in real time to report on suspicious log events. SIEM stands for Security Information and Event Management, which is a software solution that collects, analyzes, and correlates log data from various sources, such as servers, firewalls, routers, antivirus software, etc. SIEM can detect anomalies, patterns, trends, and threats in the log data and generate alerts or reports for security monitoring and incident response. SIEM can also provide historical analysis and compliance reporting for audit purposes.
Reference: https://www.manageengine.com/products/eventlog/syslog-server.html
Which of the following will correctly map a script to a home directory for a user based on username?
- A . \serverusers$username
- B . \server%username%
- C . \serverFirstInitialLastName
- D . \server$username$
B
Explanation:
The administrator should use server%username% to correctly map a script to a home directory for a user based on username. %username% is an environment variable that represents the current user’s name on a Windows system. By using this variable in the path of the script, the administrator can dynamically map the script to the user’s home directory on the server. For example, if the user’s name is John, the script will be mapped to serverJohn.
Reference: https://social.technet.microsoft.com/Forums/windows/en-US/07cfcb73-796d-48aa-96a9-08280a1ef25a/mapping-home-directory-with-username-variable?forum=w7itprogeneral
A server that recently received hardware upgrades has begun to experience random BSOD conditions.
Which of the following are likely causes of the issue? (Choose two.)
- A . Faulty memory
- B . Data partition error
- C . Incorrectly seated memory
- D . Incompatible disk speed
- E . Uninitialized disk
- F . Overallocated memory
AC
Explanation:
Faulty memory and incorrectly seated memory are likely causes of the random BSOD conditions on the server. Memory is one of the most common hardware components that can cause BSOD (Blue Screen of Death) errors on Windows systems. BSOD errors occur when the system encounters a fatal error that prevents it from continuing to operate normally. Memory errors can be caused by faulty or incompatible memory modules that have physical defects or manufacturing flaws. Memory errors can also be caused by incorrectly seated memory modules that are not properly inserted or locked into the memory slots on the motherboard. This can result in loose or poor connections between the memory modules and the motherboard.
A server administrator has configured a web server.
Which of the following does the administrator need to install to make the website trusted?
- A . PKI
- B . SSL
- C . LDAP
- D . DNS
B
Explanation:
The administrator needs to install SSL to make the website trusted. SSL stands for Secure Sockets Layer, which is an encryption-based Internet security protocol that ensures privacy, authentication, and data integrity in web communications. SSL enables HTTPS (Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure), which is a secure version of HTTP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol) that encrypts the data exchanged between a web browser and a web server. SSL also uses digital certificates to verify the identity of the web server and establish trust with the web browser. A web server that implements SSL has HTTPS in its URL instead of HTTP and displays a padlock icon or a green bar in the browser’s address bar.
A technician is attempting to update a server’s firmware. After inserting the media for the firmware and restarting the server, the machine starts normally into the OS.
Which of the following should the technician do NEXT to install the firmware?
- A . Press F8 to enter safe mode
- B . Boot from the media
- C . Enable HIDS on the server
- D . Log in with an administrative account
B
Explanation:
The technician should boot from the media to install the firmware on the server. Firmware is a type of software that controls the low-level functions of hardware devices, such as BIOS (Basic Input/Output System), RAID controllers, network cards, etc. Firmware updates are often provided by hardware manufacturers to fix bugs, improve performance, or add new features to their devices. To install firmware updates on a server, the technician needs to boot from a media device (such as a CD-ROM, DVD-ROM, USB flash drive, etc.) that contains the firmware files and installation program. The technician cannot install firmware updates from within the operating system because firmware updates often require restarting or resetting the hardware devices.
A server administrator mounted a new hard disk on a Linux system with a mount point of /newdisk.
It was later determined that users were unable to create directories or files on the new mount point.
Which of the following commands would successfully mount the drive with the required parameters?
- A . echo /newdisk >> /etc/fstab
- B . net use /newdisk
- C . mount Co remount, rw /newdisk
- D . mount Ca
C
Explanation:
The administrator should use the command mount Co remount,rw /newdisk to successfully mount the drive with the required parameters. The mount command is used to mount file systems on Linux systems. The Co option specifies options for mounting file systems. The remount option re-mounts an already mounted file system with different options. The rw option mounts a file system with read-write permissions. In this case, /newdisk is a mount point for a new hard disk that was mounted with read-only permissions by default. To allow users to create directories or files on /newdisk, the administrator needs to re-mount /
Reference: https://unix.stackexchange.com/
A server administrator mounted a new hard disk on a Linux system with a mount point of /newdisk. It was later determined that users were unable to create directories or files on the new mount point.
Which of the following commands would successfully mount the drive with the required parameters?
- A . echo /newdisk >> /etc/fstab
- B . net use /newdisk
- C . mount Co remount, rw /newdisk
- D . mount Ca
C
Explanation:
The administrator should use the command mount Co remount,rw /newdisk to successfully mount the drive with the required parameters. The mount command is used to mount file systems on Linux systems. The Co option specifies options for mounting file systems. The remount option re-mounts an already mounted file system with different options. The rw option mounts a file system with read-write permissions. In this case, /newdisk is a mount point for a new hard disk that was mounted with read-only permissions by default. To allow users to create directories or files on /newdisk, the administrator needs to re-mount /
Reference: https://unix.stackexchange.com/
Which of the following BEST describes the concept of right to downgrade?
- A . It allows for the return of a new OS license if the newer OS is not compatible with the currently installed software and is returning to the previously used OS
- B . It allows a server to run on fewer resources than what is outlined in the minimum requirements document without purchasing a license
- C . It allows for a previous version of an OS to be deployed in a test environment for each current license that is purchased
- D . It allows a previous version of an OS to be installed and covered by the same license as the newer version
D
Explanation:
The concept of right to downgrade allows a previous version of an OS to be installed and covered by the same license as the newer version. For example, if a customer has a license for Windows 10 Pro, they can choose to install Windows 8.1 Pro or Windows 7 Professional instead and still be compliant with the license terms. Downgrade rights are granted by Microsoft for certain products and programs, such as Windows and Windows Server software acquired through Commercial Licensing, OEM, or retail channels. Downgrade rights are intended to provide customers with flexibility and compatibility when using Microsoft software.
A server administrator needs to harden a server by only allowing secure traffic and DNS inquiries.
A port scan reports the following ports are open:
- A . 21
- B . 22
- C . 23
- D . 53
- E . 443
- F . 636
D
Explanation:
The administrator should only allow secure traffic and DNS inquiries on the server, which means that only ports 22, 53, and 443 should be open. Port 22 is used for SSH (Secure Shell), which is a protocol that allows secure remote login and command execution over a network connection using a command-line interface (CLI). Port 53 is used for DNS (Domain Name System), which is a service that translates domain names into IP addresses and vice versa. Port 443 is used for HTTPS (Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure), which is a secure version of HTTP that encrypts the data exchanged between a web browser and a web server.
Reference: https://tools.cisco.com/security/center/resources/dns_best_practices
Which of the following open ports should be closed to secure the server properly? (Choose two.)
- A . 21
- B . 22
- C . 23
- D . 53
- E . 443
- F . 636
AC
Explanation:
The administrator should close ports 21 and 23 to secure the server properly. Port 21 is used for FTP (File Transfer Protocol), which is an unsecure protocol that allows file transfer between a client and a server over a network connection. FTP does not encrypt the data or the credentials that are transmitted, making them vulnerable to interception or modification by attackers. Port 23 is used for Telnet, which is an unsecure protocol that allows remote login and command execution over a network connection using a CLI. Telnet does not encrypt the data or the credentials that are transmitted, making them vulnerable to interception or modification by attackers.
Reference: https://www.csoonline.com/article/3191531/securing-risky-network-ports.html
Which of the following must a server administrator do to ensure data on the SAN is not compromised if it is leaked?
- A . Encrypt the data that is leaving the SAN
- B . Encrypt the data at rest
- C . Encrypt the host servers
- D . Encrypt all the network traffic
B
Explanation:
The administrator must encrypt the data at rest to ensure data on the SAN is not compromised if it is leaked. Data at rest refers to data that is stored on a device or a medium, such as a hard drive, a flash drive, or a SAN (Storage Area Network). Data at rest can be leaked if the device or the medium is lost, stolen, or accessed by unauthorized parties. Encrypting data at rest means applying an algorithm that transforms the data into an unreadable format that can only be decrypted with a key. Encryption protects data at rest from being exposed or misused by attackers who may obtain the device or the medium.
A server technician has been asked to upload a few files from the internal web server to the internal FTP server. The technician logs in to the web server using PuTTY, but the connection to the FTP server fails. However, the FTP connection from the technician’s workstation is suсcessful. To troubleshoot the issue, the technician executes the following command on both the web server and the workstation: ping ftp.acme.local
The IP address in the command output is different on each machine.
Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for the connection failure?
- A . A misconfigured firewall
- B . A misconfigured hosts.deny file
- C . A misconfigured hosts file
- D . A misconfigured hosts.allow file
D
Explanation:
A misconfigured hosts file can cause name resolution issues on a server. A hosts file is a text file that maps hostnames to IP addresses on a local system. It can be used to override DNS settings or provide custom name resolution for testing purposes. However, if the hosts file contains incorrect or outdated entries, it can prevent the system from resolving hostnames properly and cause connectivity problems. To fix this issue, the administrator should check and edit the hosts file accordingly.
A company deploys antivirus, anti-malware, and firewalls that can be assumed to be functioning properly.
Which of the following is the MOST likely system vulnerability?
- A . Insider threat
- B . Worms
- C . Ransomware
- D . Open ports
- E . Two-person integrity
A
Explanation:
Insider threat is the most likely system vulnerability in a company that deploys antivirus, anti-malware, and firewalls that can be assumed to be functioning properly. An insider threat is a malicious or negligent act by an authorized user of a system or network that compromises the security or integrity of the system or network. An insider threat can include data theft, sabotage, espionage, fraud, or other types of attacks. Antivirus, anti-malware, and firewalls are security tools that can protect a system or network from external threats, such as viruses, worms, ransomware, or open ports. However, these tools cannot prevent an insider threat from exploiting their access privileges or credentials to harm the system or network.
A security analyst suspects a remote server is running vulnerable network applications. The analyst does not have administrative credentials for the server.
Which of the following would MOST likely help the analyst determine if the applications are running?
- A . User account control
- B . Anti-malware
- C . A sniffer
- D . A port scanner
D
Explanation:
A port scanner is the tool that would most likely help the analyst determine if the applications are running on a remote server. A port scanner is a software tool that scans a network device for open ports. Ports are logical endpoints for network communication that are associated with specific applications or services. By scanning the ports on a remote server, the analyst can identify what applications or services are running on that server and what protocols they are using. A port scanner can also help detect potential vulnerabilities or misconfigurations on a server.
A server is performing slowly, and users are reporting issues connecting to the application on that
server. Upon investigation, the server administrator notices several unauthorized services running on
that server that are successfully communicating to an external site.
Which of the following are MOST likely causing the issue? (Choose two.)
- A . Adware is installed on the users’ devices
- B . The firewall rule for the server is misconfigured
- C . The server is infected with a virus
- D . Intrusion detection is enabled on the network
- E . Unnecessary services are disabled on the server
- F . SELinux is enabled on the server
CF
Explanation:
The server is infected with a virus and SELinux is enabled on the server are most likely causing the issue of unauthorized services running on the server. A virus is a type of malicious software that infects a system and performs unwanted or harmful actions, such as creating, modifying, deleting, or executing files. A virus can also create backdoors or open ports on a system to allow remote access or communication with external sites. SELinux (Security-Enhanced Linux) is a security module for Linux systems that enforces mandatory access control policies on processes and files. SELinux can prevent unauthorized services from running on a server by restricting their access to resources based on their security context. However, SELinux can also cause problems if it is not configured properly or if it conflicts with other security tools.
A server technician is configuring the IP address on a newly installed server. The documented configuration specifies using an IP address of 10.20.10.15 and a default gateway of 10.20.10.254.
Which of the following subnet masks would be appropriate for this setup?
- A . 255.255.255.0
- B . 255.255.255.128
- C . 255.255.255.240
- D . 255.255.255.254
A
Explanation:
The administrator should use a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0 for this setup. A subnet mask is a binary number that defines how many bits of an IP address are used for the network portion and how many bits are used for the host portion. The network portion identifies the specific network that the IP address belongs to, while the host portion identifies the specific device within that network. The subnet mask is usually written in dotted decimal notation, where each octet represents eight bits of the binary number. A 1 in the binary number means that the corresponding bit in the IP address is part of the network portion, while a 0 means that it is part of the host portion. For example, a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0 means that the first 24 bits (three octets) of the IP address are used for the network portion and the last 8 bits (one octet) are used for the host portion. This subnet mask allows up to 254 hosts per network (2^8 – 2). In this case, the IP address of 10.20.10.15 and the default gateway of 10.20.10.254 belong to the same network of 10.20.10.0/24 (where /24 indicates the number of bits used for the network portion), which can be defined by using a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0.
A storage administrator is investigating an issue with a failed hard drive. A technician replaced the drive in the storage array; however, there is still an issue with the logical volume.
Which of the following best describes the NEXT step that should be completed to restore the volume?
- A . Initialize the volume
- B . Format the volume
- C . Replace the volume
- D . Rebuild the volume
D
Explanation:
The administrator should rebuild the volume to restore it after replacing the failed hard drive. A volume is a logical unit of storage that can span across multiple physical disks. A volume can be configured with different levels of RAID (Redundant Array of Independent Disks) to provide fault tolerance and performance enhancement. When a hard drive in a RAID volume fails, the data on that drive can be reconstructed from the remaining drives using parity or mirroring techniques. However, this process requires a new hard drive to replace the failed one and a rebuild operation to copy the data from the existing drives to the new one. Rebuilding a volume can take a long time depending on the size and speed of the drives and the RAID level.
A large number of connections to port 80 is discovered while reviewing the log files on a server. The server is not functioning as a web server.
Which of the following represent the BEST immediate actions to prevent unauthorized server access? (Choose two.)
- A . Audit all group privileges and permissions
- B . Run a checksum tool against all the files on the server
- C . Stop all unneeded services and block the ports on the firewall
- D . Initialize a port scan on the server to identify open ports
- E . Enable port forwarding on port 80
- F . Install a NIDS on the server to prevent network intrusions
CF
Explanation:
The best immediate actions to prevent unauthorized server access are to stop all unneeded services and block the ports on the firewall. Stopping unneeded services reduces the attack surface of the server by eliminating potential entry points for attackers. For example, if the server is not functioning as a web server, there is no need to run a web service on port 80. Blocking ports on the firewall prevents unauthorized network traffic from reaching the server. For example, if port 80 is not needed for any legitimate purpose, it can be blocked on the firewall to deny any connection attempts on that port.
A company is running an application on a file server. A security scan reports the application has a known vulnerability.
Which of the following would be the company’s BEST course of action?
- A . Upgrade the application package
- B . Tighten the rules on the firewall
- C . Install antivirus software
- D . Patch the server OS
A
Explanation:
The best course of action for the company is to upgrade the application package to fix the known vulnerability. A vulnerability is a weakness or flaw in an application that can be exploited by an attacker to compromise the security or functionality of the system. Upgrading the application package means installing a newer version of the application that has patched or resolved the vulnerability. This way, the company can prevent potential attacks that may exploit the vulnerability and cause damage or loss.
A technician runs top on a dual-core server and notes the following conditions:
top C- 14:32:27, 364 days, 14 users load average 60.5 12.4 13.6
Which of the following actions should the administrator take?
- A . Schedule a mandatory reboot of the server
- B . Wait for the load average to come back down on its own
- C . Identify the runaway process or processes
- D . Request that users log off the server
C
Explanation:
The administrator should identify the runaway process or processes that are causing high load average on the server. Load average is a metric that indicates how many processes are either running on or waiting for the CPU at any given time. A high load average means that there are more processes than available CPU cores, resulting in poor performance and slow response time. A runaway process is a process that consumes excessive CPU resources without terminating or releasing them. A runaway process can be caused by various factors, such as programming errors, infinite loops, memory leaks, etc. To identify a runaway process, the administrator can use tools such as top, ps, or htop to monitor CPU usage and process status. To stop a runaway process, the administrator can use commands such as kill, pkill, or killall to send signals to terminate it.
A technician needs to set up a server backup method for some systems. The company’s management team wants to have quick restores but minimize the amount of backup media required.
Which of the following are the BEST backup methods to use to support the management’s priorities? (Choose two.)
- A . Differential
- B . Synthetic full
- C . Archive
- D . Full
- E . Incremental
- F . Open file
AE
Explanation:
The best backup methods to use to support the management’s priorities are differential and incremental. A backup is a process of copying data from a source to a destination for the purpose of restoring it in case of data loss or corruption. There are different types of backup methods that vary in terms of speed, efficiency, and storage requirements. Differential and incremental backups are two types of partial backups that only copy the data that has changed since the last full backup. A full backup is a type of backup that copies all the data from the source to the destination. A full backup provides the most complete and reliable restore option, but it also takes the longest time and requires the most storage space. A differential backup copies only the data that has changed since the last full backup. A differential backup provides a faster restore option than an incremental backup, but it also takes more time and requires more storage space than an incremental backup. An incremental backup copies only the data that has changed since the last backup, whether it was a full or an incremental backup. An incremental backup provides the fastest and most efficient backup option, but it also requires multiple backups to restore the data completely.
Ann, an administrator, is configuring a two-node cluster that will be deployed. To check the cluster’s functionality, she shuts down the active node. Cluster behavior is as expected, and the passive node is now active. Ann powers on the server again and wants to return to the original configuration.
Which of the following cluster features will allow Ann to complete this task?
- A . Heartbeat
- B . Failback
- C . Redundancy
- D . Load balancing
B
Explanation:
The cluster feature that will allow Ann to complete her task is failback. A cluster is a group of servers that work together to provide high availability, scalability, and load balancing for applications or services. A cluster can have different nodes or members that have different roles or states. An active node is a node that is currently running an application or service and serving requests from clients. A passive node is a node that is on standby and ready to take over if the active node fails. A failover is a process of switching from a failed or unavailable node to another node in a cluster. A failback is a process of switching back from a failover node to the original node after it becomes available again. Failback can be automatic or manual depending on the cluster configuration.
Which of the following policies would be BEST to deter a brute-force login attack?
- A . Password complexity
- B . Password reuse
- C . Account age threshold
- D . Account lockout threshold
D
Explanation:
The best policy to deter a brute-force login attack is account lockout threshold. A brute-force login attack is a type of attack that tries to guess a user’s password by trying different combinations of characters until it finds the correct one. This attack can be performed manually or with automated tools that use dictionaries, wordlists, or algorithms. An account lockout threshold is a policy that specifies how many failed login attempts are allowed before an account is locked out temporarily or permanently. This policy prevents an attacker from trying unlimited password guesses and reduces the chances of finding the correct password.
A technician needs to install a Type 1 hypervisor on a server. The server has SD card slots, a SAS controller, and a SATA controller, and it is attached to a NAS.
On which of the following drive types should the technician install the hypervisor?
- A . SD card
- B . NAS drive
- C . SATA drive
- D . SAS drive
D
Explanation:
The technician should install the Type 1 hypervisor on a SAS drive. A Type 1 hypervisor is a layer of software that runs directly on top of the physical hardware and creates virtual machines that share the hardware resources. A Type 1 hypervisor requires fast and reliable storage for optimal performance and stability. A SAS drive is a type of hard disk drive that uses Serial Attached SCSI (SAS) as its interface protocol. SAS drives offer high speed, low latency, and high reliability compared to other types of drives, such as SD cards, NAS drives, or SATA drives. SD cards are flash memory cards that offer low cost and portability but have low speed, low capacity, and low durability. NAS drives are network-attached storage devices that offer high capacity and easy access but have high latency and low reliability due to network dependency. SATA drives are hard disk drives that use Serial ATA (SATA) as their interface protocol. SATA drives offer moderate speed, moderate cost, and moderate reliability but have lower performance and durability than SAS drives.
A technician is trying to determine the reason why a Linux server is not communicating on a network.
The returned network configuration is as follows:
eth0: flags=4163<UP, BROADCAST, RUNNING, MULTICAST> mtu 1500 inet 127.0.0.1 network 255.255.0.0 broadcast 127.0.0.1
Which of the following BEST describes what is happening?
- A . The server is configured to use DHCP on a network that has multiple scope options
- B . The server is configured to use DHCP, but the DHCP server is sending an incorrect subnet mask
- C . The server is configured to use DHCP on a network that does not have a DHCP server
- D . The server is configured to use DHCP, but the DHCP server is sending an incorrect MTU setting
C
Explanation:
The reason why the Linux server is not communicating on a network is that it is configured to use DHCP on a network that does not have a DHCP server. DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) is a protocol that allows a client device to obtain an IP address and other network configuration parameters from a DHCP server automatically. However, if there is no DHCP server on the network, the client device will not be able to obtain a valid IP address and will assign itself a link-local address instead. A link-local address is an IP address that is only valid within a local network segment and cannot be used for communication outside of it. A link-local address has a prefix of 169.254/16 in IPv4 or fe80::/10 in IPv6. In this case, the Linux server has assigned itself a link-local address of 127.0.0.1, which is also known as the loopback address. The loopback address is used for testing and troubleshooting purposes and refers to the device itself. It cannot be used for communication with other devices on the network.
A server technician is deploying a server with eight hard drives. The server specifications call for a RAID configuration that can handle up to two drive failures but also allow for the least amount of drive space lost to RAID overhead.
Which of the following RAID levels should the technician configure for this drive array?
- A . RAID 0
- B . RAID 5
- C . RAID 6
- D . RAID 10
C
Explanation:
The technician should configure RAID 6 for this drive array to meet the server specifications. RAID 6 is a type of RAID level that provides fault tolerance and performance enhancement by using striping and dual parity. Striping means dividing data into blocks and distributing them across multiple disks to increase speed and capacity. Parity means calculating and storing extra information that can be used to reconstruct data in case of disk failure. RAID 6 uses two sets of parity information for each stripe, which are stored on different disks. This way, RAID 6 can handle up to two disk failures without losing any data or functionality. RAID 6 also allows for the least amount of drive space lost to RAID overhead compared to other RAID levels that can handle two disk failures, such as RAID 1+0 or RAID 0+1.
Reference: https://www.booleanworld.com/raid-levels-explained/
Which of the following should an administrator use to transfer log files from a Linux server to a Windows workstation?
- A . Telnet
- B . Robocopy
- C . XCOPY
- D . SCP
D
Explanation:
The administrator should use SCP to transfer log files from a Linux server to a Windows workstation. SCP (Secure Copy Protocol) is a protocol that allows secure file transfer between two devices using SSH (Secure Shell) encryption. SCP can transfer files between different operating systems, such as Linux and Windows, as long as both devices have an SSH client installed. SCP can also preserve file attributes, such as permissions and timestamps, during the transfer.
Users in an office lost access to a file server following a short power outage. The server administrator noticed the server was powered off.
Which of the following should the administrator do to prevent this situation in the future?
- A . Connect the server to a KVM
- B . Use cable management
- C . Connect the server to a redundant network
- D . Connect the server to a UPS
D
Explanation:
The administrator should connect the server to a UPS to prevent this situation in the future. A UPS (Uninterruptible Power Supply) is a device that provides backup power to a server or other device in case of a power outage or surge. A UPS typically consists of one or more batteries and an inverter that converts the battery power into AC power that the server can use. A UPS can also protect the server from power fluctuations that can damage its components or cause data corruption. By connecting the server to a UPS, the administrator can ensure that the server will continue to run or shut down gracefully during a power failure.
Which of the following describes the installation of an OS contained entirely within another OS installation?
- A . Host
- B . Bridge
- C . Hypervisor
- D . Guest
D
Explanation:
The installation of an OS contained entirely within another OS installation is described as a guest. A guest is a term that refers to a virtual machine (VM) that runs on top of a host operating system (OS) using a hypervisor or a virtualization software. A guest can have a different OS than the host, and can run multiple applications or services independently from the host. A guest can also be isolated from the host and other guests for security or testing purposes.
A server technician is installing a Windows server OS on a physical server. The specifications for the installation call for a 4TB data volume.
To ensure the partition is available to the OS, the technician must verify the:
- A . hardware is UEFI compliant
- B . volume is formatted as GPT
- C . volume is formatted as MBR
- D . volume is spanned across multiple physical disk drives
B
Explanation:
To ensure the partition is available to the OS, the technician must verify that the volume is formatted as GPT. GPT (GUID Partition Table) is a partitioning scheme that defines how data is organized on a hard disk drive (HDD) or a solid state drive (SSD). GPT uses globally unique identifiers (GUIDs) to identify partitions and supports up to 128 primary partitions per disk. GPT also supports disks larger than 2 TB and has a backup copy of the partition table at the end of the disk for data recovery. GPT is required for installing Windows on UEFI-based PCs, which offer faster boot time and better security than legacy BIOS-based PCs.
An administrator is configuring a server that will host a high-performance financial application.
Which of the following disk types will serve this purpose?
- A . SAS SSD
- B . SATA SSD
- C . SAS drive with 10000rpm
- D . SATA drive with 15000rpm
A
Explanation:
The best disk type for a high-performance financial application is a SAS SSD. A SAS SSD (Serial Attached SCSI Solid State Drive) is a type of storage device that uses flash memory chips to store data and has a SAS interface to connect to a server or a storage array. A SAS SSD offers high speed, low latency, high reliability, and high durability compared to other types of disks, such as SATA SSDs, SAS HDDs, or SATA HDDs. A SAS SSD can handle high I/O workloads and deliver consistent performance for applications that require fast data access and processing.
Reference: https://www.hp.com/us-en/shop/tech-takes/sas-vs-sata
Which of the following DR testing scenarios is described as verbally walking through each step of the DR plan in the context of a meeting?
- A . Live failover
- B . Simulated failover
- C . Asynchronous
- D . Tabletop
D
Explanation:
The DR testing scenario that is described as verbally walking through each step of the DR plan in the context of a meeting is tabletop. A tabletop test is a type of disaster recovery (DR) test that involves discussing and reviewing the DR plan with key stakeholders and participants in a simulated scenario. A tabletop test does not involve any actual execution of the DR plan or any disruption of the normal operations. A tabletop test can help identify gaps, issues, or inconsistencies in the DR plan and improve communication and coordination among the DR team members.
When configuring networking on a VM, which of the following methods would allow multiple VMs to share the same host IP address?
- A . Bridged
- B . NAT
- C . Host only
- D . vSwitch
B
Explanation:
The method that would allow multiple VMs to share the same host IP address is NAT. NAT (Network Address Translation) is a technique that allows multiple devices to use a single public IP address by mapping their private IP addresses to different port numbers. NAT can be used for VM networking to enable multiple VMs on the same host to access the internet or other networks using the host’s IP address. NAT can also provide security benefits by hiding the VMs’ private IP addresses from external networks.
Reference: https://www.virtualbox.org/manual/ch06.html
A technician recently upgraded several pieces of firmware on a server. Ever since the technician rebooted the server, it no longer communicates with the network.
Which of the following should the technician do FIRST to return the server to service as soon as possible?
- A . Replace the NIC
- B . Make sure the NIC is on the HCL
- C . Reseat the NIC
- D . Downgrade the NIC firmware
D
Explanation:
The first thing that the technician should do to return the server to service as soon as possible is downgrade the NIC firmware. Firmware is a type of software that controls the basic functions of hardware devices, such as network interface cards (NICs). Firmware updates can provide bug fixes, performance improvements, or new features for hardware devices. However, firmware updates can also cause compatibility issues, configuration errors, or functionality failures if they are not installed properly or if they are not compatible with the device model or driver version. Downgrading the firmware means reverting to an older version of firmware that was previously working fine on the device. Downgrading the firmware can help resolve any problems caused by a faulty firmware update and restore normal operation of the device.
A server administrator has noticed that the storage utilization on a file server is growing faster than planned. The administrator wants to ensure that, in the future, there is a more direct relationship between the number of users using the server and the amount of space that might be used.
Which of the following would BEST enable this correlation?
- A . Partitioning
- B . Deduplication
- C . Disk quotas
- D . Compression
C
Explanation:
The best way to ensure that there is a more direct relationship between the number of users using the server and the amount of space that might be used is to implement disk quotas. Disk quotas are a feature that allows a server administrator to limit the amount of disk space that each user or group can use on a file server. Disk quotas can help manage storage utilization, prevent disk space exhaustion, and enforce fair usage policies. Disk quotas can also provide reports and alerts on disk space usage and quota status.
A server administrator needs to keep a copy of an important fileshare that can be used to restore the share as quickly as possible.
Which of the following is the BEST solution?
- A . Copy the fileshare to an LTO-4 tape drive
- B . Configure a new incremental backup job for the fileshare
- C . Create an additional partition and move a copy of the fileshare
- D . Create a snapshot of the fileshare
D
Explanation:
The best solution to keep a copy of an important fileshare that can be used to restore the share as quickly as possible is to create a snapshot of the fileshare. A snapshot is a point-in-time copy of a file system or a volume that captures the state and data of the fileshare at a specific moment. A snapshot can be created instantly and with minimal overhead, as it only stores the changes made to the fileshare after the snapshot was taken. A snapshot can be used to restore the fileshare to its previous state in case of data loss or corruption.
Which of the following can be BEST described as the amount of time a company can afford to be down during recovery from an outage?
- A . SLA
- B . MTBF
- C . RTO
- D . MTTR
C
Explanation:
The term that best describes the amount of time a company can afford to be down during recovery from an outage is RTO. RTO (Recovery Time Objective) is a metric that defines the maximum acceptable downtime for an application, system, or process after a disaster or disruption. RTO helps determine the level of urgency and resources required for restoring normal business operations. RTO is usually measured in minutes, hours, or days, depending on the criticality and impact of the service.
Reference: https://whatis.techtarget.com/definition/recovery-time-objective-RTO
Which of the following actions should a server administrator take once a new backup scheme has been configured?
- A . Overwrite the backups
- B . Clone the configuration
- C . Run a restore test
- D . Check the media integrity
C
Explanation:
The action that the server administrator should take once a new backup scheme has been configured is to run a restore test. A restore test is a process of verifying that the backup data can be successfully recovered and restored to its original location or a different location. A restore test can help ensure that the backup scheme is working properly, that the backup data is valid and consistent, and that there are no errors or issues during the recovery process. A restore test should be performed periodically and after any changes to the backup configuration or environment.
A systems administrator is performing maintenance on 12 Windows servers that are in different racks at a large datacenter.
Which of the following would allow the administrator to perform maintenance on all 12 servers without having to physically be at each server? (Choose two.)
- A . Remote desktop
- B . IP KVM
- C . A console connection
- D . A virtual administration console
- E . Remote drive access
- F . A crash cart
AB
Explanation:
The methods that would allow the administrator to perform maintenance on all 12 servers without having to physically be at each server are remote desktop and IP KVM. Remote desktop is a feature that allows a user to access and control another computer over a network using a graphical user interface (GUI). Remote desktop can enable remote administration, troubleshooting, and maintenance of servers without requiring physical presence at the server location. IP KVM (Internet Protocol Keyboard Video Mouse) is a device that allows a user to access and control multiple servers over a network using a single keyboard, monitor, and mouse. IP KVM can provide remote access to servers regardless of their operating system or power state, and can also support virtual media and serial console functions.
Reference: https://www.blackbox.be/en-be/page/27559/Resources/Technical-Resources/Black-Box-Explains/kvm/ Benefits-of-using-KVM-over-IP
A server administrator is experiencing difficulty configuring MySQL on a Linux server. The administrator issues the getenforce command and receives the following output: ># Enforcing
Which of the following commands should the administrator issue to configure MySQL successfully?
- A . setenforce 0
- B . setenforce permissive
- C . setenforce 1
- D . setenforce disabled
A
Explanation:
The command that the administrator should issue to configure MySQL successfully is setenforce 0. This command sets the SELinux (Security-Enhanced Linux) mode to permissive, which means that SELinux will not enforce its security policies and will only log any violations. SELinux is a feature that provides mandatory access control (MAC) for Linux systems, which can enhance the security and prevent unauthorized access or modification of files and processes. However, SELinux can also interfere with some applications or services that require specific permissions or ports that are not allowed by SELinux by default. In this case, MySQL may not be able to run properly due to SELinux restrictions. To resolve this issue, the administrator can either disable SELinux temporarily by using setenforce 0, or permanently by editing the /etc/selinux/config file and setting SELINUX=disabled. Alternatively, the administrator can configure SELinux to allow MySQL to run by using commands such as semanage or setsebool.
Reference: https://blogs.oracle.com/mysql/selinux-and-mysql-v2
Which of the following backup types only records changes to the data blocks on a virtual machine?
- A . Differential
- B . Snapshot
- C . Incremental
- D . Synthetic full
B
Explanation:
The backup type that only records changes to the data blocks on a virtual machine is snapshot. A snapshot is a point-in-time copy of a virtual machine (VM) that captures the state and data of the VM at a specific moment. A snapshot can be created instantly and with minimal overhead, as it only stores the changes made to the VM after the snapshot was taken. A snapshot can be used to restore the VM to its previous state in case of data loss or corruption.
Which of the following server types would benefit MOST from the use of a load balancer?
- A . DNS server
- B . File server
- C . DHCP server
- D . Web server
D
Explanation:
The server type that would benefit most from the use of a load balancer is web server. A web server is a server that hosts web applications or websites and responds to requests from web browsers or clients. A load balancer is a device or software that distributes network traffic across multiple servers based on various criteria, such as availability, capacity, or performance. A load balancer can improve the scalability, reliability, and performance of web servers by balancing the workload and preventing any single server from being overloaded or unavailable.
Reference: https://www.dnsstuff.com/what-is-server-load-balancing
A company uses a hot-site, disaster-recovery model.
Which of the following types of data replication is required?
- A . Asynchronous
- B . Incremental
- C . Application consistent
- D . Constant
D
Explanation:
The type of data replication that is required for a hot-site disaster recovery model is constant. A hot site is a type of disaster recovery site that has fully operational IT infrastructure and equipment that can take over the primary site’s functions immediately in case of a disaster or disruption. A hot site requires constant data replication between the primary site and the hot site to ensure that the data is up-to-date and consistent. Constant data replication means that any changes made to the data at the primary site are immediately copied to the hot site without any delay or lag.
A technician is unable to access a server’s package repository internally or externally.
Which of the following are the MOST likely reasons? (Choose two.)
- A . The server has an architecture mismatch
- B . The system time is not synchronized
- C . The technician does not have sufficient privileges
- D . The external firewall is blocking access
- E . The default gateway is incorrect
- F . The local system log file is full
DE
Explanation:
The most likely reasons why the technician is unable to access a server’s package repository internally or externally are that the external firewall is blocking access and that the default gateway is incorrect. A package repository is a source of software packages that can be installed or updated on a server using a package manager tool. A package repository can be accessed over a network using a URL or an IP address. However, if there are any network issues or misconfigurations, the access to the package repository can be blocked or failed. An external firewall is a device or software that controls the incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predefined rules or policies. An external firewall can block access to a package repository if it does not allow traffic on certain ports or protocols that are used by the package manager tool. A default gateway is a device or address that routes network traffic from one network to another network. A default gateway can be incorrect if it does not match the actual device or address that connects the server’s network to other networks, such as the internet. An incorrect default gateway can prevent the server from reaching the package repository over other networks.
A server administrator was asked to build a storage array with the highest possible capacity.
Which of the following RAID levels should the administrator choose?
- A . RAID 0
- B . RAID 1
- C . RAID 5
- D . RAID 6
A
Explanation:
The RAID level that provides the highest possible capacity for a storage array is RAID 0. RAID 0 is a type of RAID level that provides performance enhancement by using striping. Striping means dividing data into blocks and distributing them across multiple disks to increase speed and capacity. RAID 0 does not provide any fault tolerance or redundancy, as it does not use any parity or mirroring techniques. RAID 0 uses all of the available disk space for data storage, without losing any space for overhead. Therefore, RAID 0 provides the highest possible capacity for a storage array, but also has the highest risk of data loss.
Reference: https://www.thinkmate.com/inside/articles/what-is-raid
A server administrator was asked to build a storage array with the highest possible capacity.
Which of the following RAID levels should the administrator choose?
- A . RAID 0
- B . RAID 1
- C . RAID 5
- D . RAID 6
A
Explanation:
The RAID level that provides the highest possible capacity for a storage array is RAID 0. RAID 0 is a type of RAID level that provides performance enhancement by using striping. Striping means dividing data into blocks and distributing them across multiple disks to increase speed and capacity. RAID 0 does not provide any fault tolerance or redundancy, as it does not use any parity or mirroring techniques. RAID 0 uses all of the available disk space for data storage, without losing any space for overhead. Therefore, RAID 0 provides the highest possible capacity for a storage array, but also has the highest risk of data loss.
Reference: https://www.thinkmate.com/inside/articles/what-is-raid
A technician needs to deploy an operating system that would optimize server resources.
Which of the following server installation methods would BEST meet this requirement?
- A . Full
- B . Bare metal
- C . Core
- D . GUI
C
Explanation:
The server installation method that would optimize server resources is core. Core is a minimal installation option that is available for some operating systems, such as Windows Server and Linux. Core installs only the essential components and features of the operating system, without any graphical user interface (GUI) or other unnecessary services or applications. Core reduces the disk footprint, memory usage, CPU consumption, and attack surface of the server, making it more efficient and secure. Core can be managed remotely using command-line tools, PowerShell, or GUI tools.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/administration/performance-tuning/hardware/
A company’s IDS has identified outbound traffic from one of the web servers coming over port 389 to an outside address. This server only hosts websites. The company’s SOC administrator has asked a technician to harden this server.
Which of the following would be the BEST way to complete this request?
- A . Disable port 389 on the server
- B . Move traffic from port 389 to port 443
- C . Move traffic from port 389 to port 637
- D . Enable port 389 for web traffic
A
Explanation:
The best way to complete the request to harden the server is to disable port 389 on the server. Port 389 is the default port used by LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol), which is a protocol that allows access and modification of directory services over a network. LDAP can be used for authentication, authorization, or information retrieval purposes. However, LDAP does not encrypt its data by default, which can expose sensitive information or credentials to attackers who can intercept or modify the network traffic. Therefore, port 389 should be disabled on a web server that only hosts websites and does not need LDAP functionality. Alternatively, port 636 can be used instead of port 389 to enable LDAPS (LDAP over SSL/TLS), which encrypts the data using SSL/TLS certificates.
Which of the following would be BEST to help protect an organization against social engineering?
- A . More complex passwords
- B . Recurring training and support
- C . Single sign-on
- D . An updated code of conduct to enforce social media
B
Explanation:
The best way to protect an organization against social engineering is to provide recurring training and support. Social engineering is a type of attack that exploits human psychology and behavior to manipulate people into divulging confidential information or performing malicious actions. Social engineering can take various forms, such as phishing emails, phone calls, impersonation, baiting, or quid pro quo. The best defense against social engineering is to educate and empower the employees to recognize and avoid common social engineering techniques and report any suspicious activities or incidents. Recurring training and support can help raise awareness and reinforce best practices among the employees.
A technician is connecting a server’s secondary NIC to a separate network. The technician connects the cable to the switch but then does not see any link lights on the NIC. The technician confirms there is nothing wrong on the network or with the physical connection.
Which of the following should the technician perform NEXT?
- A . Restart the server
- B . Configure the network on the server
- C . Enable the port on the server
- D . Check the DHCP configuration
C
Explanation:
The next thing that the technician should perform is to enable the port on the server. A port is a logical endpoint that identifies a specific service or application on a network device. A port can be enabled or disabled depending on whether the service or application is running or not. If a port is disabled on a server, it means that the server cannot send or receive any network traffic on that port, which can prevent communication with other devices or services that use that port. In this case, if port 389 is disabled on the server, it means that the server cannot use LDAP to access or modify directory services over a network. To resolve this issue, the technician should enable port 389 on the server using commands such as netsh or iptables.
Which of the following would MOST likely be part of the user authentication process when implementing SAML across multiple applications?
- A . SSO
- B . LDAP
- C . TACACS
- D . MFA
A
Explanation:
The term that is most likely part of the user authentication process when implementing SAML across multiple applications is SSO. SSO (Single Sign-On) is a way for users to be authenticated for multiple applications and services at once. With SSO, a user signs in at a single login screen and can then use a number of apps without having to enter their credentials again. SSO improves user experience and security by reducing password fatigue and phishing risks. SAML (Security Assertion Markup Language) is a protocol that enables SSO by providing a standardized way to exchange authentication and authorization data between an identity provider (IdP) and a service provider (SP). SAML uses XML-based messages called assertions to communicate user identity and attributes between parties.
Reference: https://www.onelogin.com/learn/how-single-sign-on-works
A server administrator needs to check remotely for unnecessary running services across 12 servers.
Which of the following tools should the administrator use?
- A . DLP
- B . A port scanner
- C . Anti-malware
- D . A sniffer
B
Explanation:
The tool that the administrator should use to check for unnecessary running services across 12 servers is a port scanner. A port scanner is a tool that scans a network device for open ports and identifies the services or applications that are running on those ports. A port scanner can help detect any unauthorized or unwanted services that may pose a security risk or consume network resources. A port scanner can also help troubleshoot network connectivity issues or verify firewall rules.
Reference: https://www.getsafeonline.org/business/articles/unnecessary-services/
A company is building a new datacenter next to a busy parking lot.
Which of the following is the BEST strategy to ensure wayward vehicle traffic does not interfere with datacenter operations?
- A . Install security cameras
- B . Utilize security guards
- C . Install bollards
- D . Install a mantrap
C
Explanation:
The best strategy to ensure wayward vehicle traffic does not interfere with datacenter operations is to install bollards. Bollards are sturdy posts that are installed around a perimeter to prevent vehicles from entering or crashing into a protected area. Bollards can provide physical security and deterrence for datacenters that are located near busy roads or parking lots. Bollards can also prevent accidental damage or injury caused by vehicles that lose control or have faulty brakes.
A technician has been asked to check on a SAN. Upon arrival, the technician notices the red LED indicator shows a disk has failed.
Which of the following should the technician do NEXT, given the disk is hot swappable?
- A . Stop sharing the volume
- B . Replace the disk
- C . Shut down the SAN
- D . Stop all connections to the volume
B
Explanation:
The next thing that the technician should do, given the disk is hot swappable, is to replace the disk. A hot swappable disk is a disk that can be removed and replaced without shutting down the system or affecting its operation. A hot swappable disk is typically used in a storage array that has RAID (Redundant Array of Independent Disks) configuration that provides fault tolerance and redundancy. If a disk fails in a RAID array, it can be replaced by a new disk without interrupting the service or losing any data. The new disk will automatically rebuild itself using the data from the other disks in the array.
Network connectivity to a server was lost when it was pulled from the rack during maintenance.
Which of the following should the server administrator use to prevent this situation in the future?
- A . Cable management
- B . Rail kits
- C . A wireless connection
- D . A power distribution unit
A
Explanation:
The server administrator should use cable management to prevent network connectivity loss when pulling a server from the rack during maintenance. Cable management is a practice of organizing and securing the cables that connect various devices and components in a system. Cable management can help improve airflow, reduce clutter, prevent tangling, and avoid accidental disconnection or damage of cables. Cable management can be done using various tools and techniques, such as cable ties, cable trays, cable labels, cable organizers, or cable ducts.
Which of the following access control methodologies can be described BEST as allowing a user the least access based on the jobs the user needs to perform?
- A . Scope-based
- B . Role-based
- C . Location-based
- D . Rule-based
B
Explanation:
The access control methodology that can be described best as allowing a user the least access based on the jobs the user needs to perform is role-based access control (RBAC). RBAC is an access control method that assigns permissions to users based on their roles or functions within an organization.
RBAC provides fine-grained and manageable access control by defining what actions each role can perform and what resources each role can access. RBAC follows the principle of least privilege, which means that users are only granted the minimum level of access required to perform their tasks. RBAC can reduce security risks, simplify administration, and enforce compliance policies.
A datacenter technician is attempting to troubleshoot a server that keeps crashing. The server runs normally for approximately five minutes, but then it crashes. After restoring the server to operation, the same cycle repeats. The technician confirms none of the configurations have changed, and the load on the server is steady from power-on until the crash.
Which of the following will MOST likely resolve the issue?
- A . Reseating any expansion cards in the server
- B . Replacing the failing hard drive
- C . Reinstalling the heat sink with new thermal paste
- D . Restoring the server from the latest full backup
C
Explanation:
The most likely solution to resolve the issue of the server crashing after running normally for approximately five minutes is to reinstall the heat sink with new thermal paste. A heat sink is a device that dissipates heat from a component, such as a processor or a graphics card, by transferring it to a cooling medium, such as air or liquid. A heat sink is usually attached to the component using thermal paste, which is a substance that fills the gaps between the heat sink and the component and improves thermal conductivity. Thermal paste can degrade over time and lose its effectiveness, resulting in overheating and performance issues. If a server crashes after running for a short period of time, it may indicate that the processor is overheating due to insufficient cooling. To resolve this issue, the technician should remove the heat sink, clean the old thermal paste, apply new thermal paste, and reinstall the heat sink.
A server administrator is exporting Windows system files before patching and saving them to the following location: \server1ITDept
Which of the following is a storage protocol that the administrator is MOST likely using to save this data?
- A . eSATA
- B . FCoE
- C . CIFS
- D . SAS
C
Explanation:
The storage protocol that the administrator is most likely using to save data to the location server1ITDept is CIFS. CIFS (Common Internet File System) is a protocol that allows file sharing and remote access over a network. CIFS is based on SMB (Server Message Block), which is a protocol that enables communication between devices on a network. CIFS uses UNC (Universal Naming Convention) paths to identify network resources, such as files or folders. A UNC path has the format servernamesharenamepathfilename. In this case, server1 is the name of the server, ITDept is the name of the shared folder, and is the path within the shared folder.
A server technician has received reports of database update errors. The technician checks the server logs and determines the database is experiencing synchronization errors.
To attempt to correct the errors, the technician should FIRST ensure:
- A . the correct firewall zone is active
- B . the latest firmware was applied
- C . NTP is running on the database system
- D . the correct dependencies are installed
C
Explanation:
The first thing that the technician should ensure to correct the database synchronization errors is that NTP is running on the database system. NTP (Network Time Protocol) is a protocol that synchronizes the clocks of network devices with a reference time source, such as an atomic clock or a GPS receiver. NTP ensures that all devices on a network have accurate and consistent time settings, which can affect various functions and applications. Database synchronization is a process of maintaining data consistency and integrity across multiple database servers or instances. Database synchronization can depend on accurate time settings, as time stamps are often used to determine which data is newer or older, and which data should be updated or overwritten. If NTP is not running on the database system, it may cause time drift or discrepancy between different database servers or instances, which can result in synchronization errors or data conflicts.
A technician is connecting a Linux server to a share on a NAS.
Which of the following is the MOST appropriate native protocol to use for this task?
- A . CIFS
- B . FTP
- C . SFTP
- D . NFS
D
Explanation:
The most appropriate native protocol to use for connecting a Linux server to a share on a NAS is NFS. NFS (Network File System) is a protocol that allows file sharing and remote access over a network. NFS is designed for Unix-like operating systems, such as Linux, and supports features such as symbolic links, hard links, file locking, and file permissions. NFS uses mount points to attach remote file systems to local file systems, making them appear as if they are part of the local file system. NFS can provide fast and reliable access to files stored on a NAS (Network Attached Storage), which is a device that provides centralized storage for network devices.
A server in a remote datacenter is no longer responsive.
Which of the following is the BEST solution to investigate this failure?
- A . Remote desktop
- B . Access via a crash cart
- C . Out-of-band management
- D . A Secure Shell connection
C
Explanation:
The best solution to investigate the failure of a server in a remote datacenter is out-of-band management. Out-of-band management is a method of accessing and controlling a server or a device using a dedicated channel that is separate from its normal network connection. Out-of-band management can use various technologies, such as serial ports, modems, KVM switches, or dedicated management cards or interfaces. Out-of-band management can provide remote access to servers or devices even when they are powered off, unresponsive, or disconnected from the network. Out-of-band management can enable troubleshooting, configuration, maintenance, or recovery tasks without requiring physical presence at the server location.
Reference: https://www.lantronix.com/wp-content/uploads/pdf/Data_Center_Mgmt_WP.pdf
A server is reporting a hard drive S.M.A.R.T. error. When a technician checks on the drive, however, it appears that all drives in the server are functioning normally.
Which of the following is the reason for this issue?
- A . A S.M.A.R.T. error is a predictive failure notice. The drive will fail in the near future and should be replaced at the next earliest time possible
- B . A S.M.A.R.T. error is a write operation error. It has detected that the write sent to the drive was incorrectly formatted and has requested a retransmission of the write from the controller
- C . A S.M.A.R.T. error is simply a bad sector. The drive has marked the sector as bad and will continue to function properly
- D . A S.M.A.R.T. error is an ECC error. Due to error checking and correcting, the drive has corrected the missing bit and completed the write operation correctly.
A
Explanation:
A S.M.A.R.T. error is a predictive failure notice. The drive will fail in the near future and should be replaced at the next earliest time possible. S.M.A.R.T. (Self-Monitoring, Analysis and Reporting Technology) is a feature that monitors the health and performance of hard drives and alerts the user of any potential problems or failures. S.M.A.R.T. can detect various indicators of drive degradation, such as bad sectors, read/write errors, temperature, or spin-up time. If a S.M.A.R.T. error is reported, it means that the drive has exceeded a predefined threshold of acceptable operation and is likely to fail soon. The drive may still function normally for a while, but it is recommended to back up the data and replace the drive as soon as possible to avoid data loss or system downtime.
A server administrator has been creating new VMs one by one. The administrator notices the system requirements are very similar, even with different applications.
Which of the following would help the administrator accomplish this task in the SHORTEST amount of time and meet the system requirements?
- A . Snapshot
- B . Deduplication
- C . System Restore
- D . Template
D
Explanation:
The method that would help the administrator accomplish the task of creating new VMs in the shortest amount of time and meet the system requirements is template. A template is a preconfigured virtual machine image that contains an operating system, applications, settings, and other components. A template can be used to create multiple identical or customized VMs quickly and easily, without having to install and configure each VM from scratch. A template can save time and ensure consistency across VMs.
Which of the following steps in the troubleshooting theory should be performed after a solution has been implemented? (Choose two.)
- A . Perform a root cause analysis
- B . Develop a plan of action
- C . Document the findings
- D . Escalate the issue
- E . Scope the issue
- F . Notify the users
CF
Explanation:
The steps in the troubleshooting theory that should be performed after a solution has been implemented are document the findings and notify the users. The troubleshooting theory is a systematic process of identifying and resolving problems or issues with a system or device.
The troubleshooting theory consists of several steps that can be summarized as follows:
Identify the problem: Gather information, scope the issue, establish a theory of probable cause.
Establish a plan of action: Test the theory, determine next steps, escalate if necessary.
Implement the solution: Execute the plan, verify functionality, prevent recurrence.
Document the findings: Record actions taken, outcomes achieved, lessons learned. Notify the users: Communicate resolution status, confirm satisfaction, provide follow-up. Documenting the findings is an important step that helps create a record of what was done and why, what worked and what didn’t, and what can be improved or avoided in the future. Documenting the findings can also help with reporting, auditing, compliance, or training purposes. Notifying the users is another important step that helps inform the affected parties of what was done and how it was resolved, confirm that the problem is fixed and that they are satisfied with the outcome, and provide any follow-up instructions or recommendations.
Which of the following allows for a connection of devices to both sides inside of a blade enclosure?
- A . Midplane
- B . Active backplane
- C . Passive backplane
- D . Management module
A
Explanation:
The component that allows for a connection of devices to both sides inside of a blade enclosure is midplane. A midplane is a board or panel that connects two sets of connectors or devices in parallel with each other. A midplane is typically used in blade enclosures or chassis to provide power and data connections between blade servers on one side and power supplies, cooling fans, switches, or management modules on the other side. A midplane can also act as a backplane by providing bus signals or communication channels between devices.
A snapshot is a feature that can be used in hypervisors to:
- A . roll back firmware updates.
- B . restore to a previous version.
- C . roll back application drivers.
- D . perform a backup restore.
B
Explanation:
A snapshot is a feature that can be used in hypervisors to restore to a previous version. A snapshot is a point-in-time copy of a virtual machine (VM) that captures the state and data of the VM at a specific moment. A snapshot can be created instantly and with minimal overhead, as it only stores the changes made to the VM after the snapshot was taken. A snapshot can be used to restore the VM to its previous state in case of data loss or corruption.
A server administrator needs to deploy five VMs, all of which must have the same type of configuration.
Which of the following would be the MOST efficient way to perform this task?
- A . Snapshot a VM.
- B . Use a physical host.
- C . Perform a P2V conversion.
- D . Use a VM template.
D
Explanation:
Deploying a virtual machine from a template creates a virtual machine that is a copy of the template. The new virtual machine has the virtual hardware, installed software, and other properties that are configured for the template.
Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-vSphere/6.7/com.vmware.vsphere.vm_admin.doc/GUID-8254CD05-CC06-491D-BA56-A773A32A8130.html
The most efficient way to perform the task of deploying five VMs with the same type of configuration is to use a VM template. A template is a preconfigured virtual machine image that contains an operating system, applications, settings, and other components. A template can be used to create multiple identical or customized VMs quickly and easily, without having to install and configure each VM from scratch. A template can save time and ensure consistency across VMs.
A global organization keeps personnel application servers that are local to each country. However, a security audit shows these application servers are accessible from sites in other countries.
Which of the following hardening techniques should the organization use to restrict access to only sites that are in the same country?
- A . Configure a firewall
- B . Close the unneeded ports
- C . Install a HIDS
- D . Disable unneeded services.
A
Explanation:
Monitors Network Traffic
Reference: https://www.fortinet.com/resources/cyberglossary/benefits-of-firewall
The Chief Information Officer (CIO) of a datacenter is concerned that transmissions from the building can be detected from the outside.
Which of the following would resolve this concern? (Choose two.)
- A . RFID
- B . Proximity readers
- C . Signal blocking
- D . Camouflage
- E . Reflective glass
- F . Bollards
C, E
Explanation:
The best solutions to resolve the concern of transmissions from the building being detected from outside are signal blocking and reflective glass. Signal blocking is a method of preventing or interfering with electromagnetic signals from escaping or entering a certain area. Signal blocking can be achieved by using various materials or devices that create physical barriers or generate noise or jamming signals. Signal blocking can protect data transmissions from being intercepted or eavesdropped by unauthorized parties. Reflective glass is a type of glass that has a coating or film that reflects light and heat. Reflective glass can reduce glare and solar radiation, as well as prevent visual observation from outside. Reflective glass can enhance privacy and security for datacenter operations.
A server administrator is configuring the IP address on a newly provisioned server in the testing environment.
The network VLANs are configured as follows:
The administrator configures the IP address for the new server as follows:
IP address: 192.168.1.1/24
Default gateway: 192.168.10.1
A ping sent to the default gateway is not successful.
Which of the following IP address/default gateway combinations should the administrator have used for the new server?
- A . IP address: 192.168.10.2/24
Default gateway: 192.168.10.1 - B . IP address: 192.168.1.2/24
Default gateway: 192.168.10.1 - C . IP address: 192.168.10.3/24
Default gateway: 192.168.20.1 - D . IP address: 192.168.10.24/24
Default gateway: 192.168.30.1
A
Explanation:
The IP address/default gateway combination that the administrator should have used for the new server is IP address: 192.168.10.2/24 and Default gateway: 192.168.10.1. The IP address and the default gateway of a device must be in the same subnet to communicate with each other. A subnet is a logical division of a network that allows devices to share a common prefix of their IP addresses. The subnet mask determines how many bits of the IP address are used for the network prefix and how many bits are used for the host identifier. A /24 subnet mask means that the first 24 bits of the IP address are used for the network prefix and the last 8 bits are used for the host identifier. Therefore, any IP address that has the same first 24 bits as the default gateway belongs to the same subnet. In this case, the default gateway has an IP address of 192.168.10.1/24, which means that any IP address that starts with 192.168.10.x/24 belongs to the same subnet. The new server has an IP address of 192.168.1.1/24, which does not match the first 24 bits of the default gateway, so it belongs to a different subnet and cannot communicate with the default gateway. To fix this issue, the administrator should change the IP address of the new server to an unused IP address that starts with 192.168.10.x/24, such as 192.168.10.2/24.
A server administrator is configuring a new server that will hold large amounts of information. The server will need to be accessed by multiple users at the same time.
Which of the following server roles will the administrator MOST likely need to install?
- A . Messaging
- B . Application
- C . Print
- D . Database
D
Explanation:
Few people are expected to use the database at the same time and users don’t need to customize the design of the database.
Reference: https://support.microsoft.com/en-us/office/ways-to-share-an-access-desktop-database-03822632-da43-4d8f-ba2a-68da245a0446
The server role that the administrator will most likely need to install for a server that will hold large amounts of information and will need to be accessed by multiple users at the same time is database. A database is a collection of structured data that can be stored, queried, manipulated, and analyzed using various methods and tools. A database server is a server that hosts one or more databases and provides access to them over a network. A database server can handle large amounts of information and support concurrent requests from multiple users or applications.
Users at a company work with highly sensitive data. The security department implemented an administrative and technical control to enforce least-privilege access assigned to files. However, the security department has discovered unauthorized data exfiltration.
Which of the following is the BEST way to protect the data from leaking?
- A . Utilize privacy screens.
- B . Implement disk quotas.
- C . Install a DLP solution.
- D . Enforce the lock-screen feature.
C
Explanation:
Components of a Data Loss Solution
Reference: https://www.imperva.com/learn/data-security/data-loss-prevention-dlp/
The best way to protect the data from leaking is to install a DLP solution. A DLP (Data Loss Prevention) solution is a software that helps businesses prevent confidential data from being leaked or stolen by unauthorized parties. A DLP solution can identify, monitor, and protect data as it moves across networks and devices, such as endpoints, email, web, cloud applications, or removable media. A DLP solution can also enforce security policies based on content and context for data in use, in motion, and at rest. A DLP solution can detect and prevent data breaches by using various techniques, such as content inspection, contextual analysis, encryption, blocking, alerting, warning, quarantining, or other remediation actions.
A server administrator needs to create a new folder on a file server that only specific users can access.
Which of the following BEST describes how the server administrator can accomplish this task?
- A . Create a group that includes all users and assign it to an ACL.
- B . Assign individual permissions on the folder to each user.
- C . Create a group that includes all users and assign the proper permissions.
- D . Assign ownership on the folder for each user.
C
Explanation:
The top portion of the dialog box lists the users and/or groups that have access to the file or folder.
Reference: https://www.uwec.edu/kb/article/drives-establishing-windows-file-and-folder-level-permissions/
A technician has received multiple reports of issues with a server. The server occasionally has a BSOD, powers off unexpectedly, and has fans that run continuously.
Which of the following BEST represents what the technician should investigate during troubleshooting?
- A . Firmware incompatibility
- B . CPU overheating
- C . LED indicators
- D . ESD issues
B
Explanation:
Unexpected shutdowns. If the system is randomly shutting down or rebooting, the most likely cause is a heat problem.
Reference: https://www.microsoftpressstore.com/articles/article.aspx?p=2224043&seqNum=3
Which of the following would a systems administrator implement to ensure all web traffic is secure?
- A . SSH
- B . SSL
- C . SMTP
- D . PGP
B
Explanation:
Secure Sockets Layer (SSL): SSL and its successor Transport Layer Security (TLS) enable client and server computers to establish a secure connection session and manage encryption and decryption activities.
Reference: https://paginas.fe.up.pt/~als/mis10e/ch8/chpt8-4bullettext.htm
An administrator is configuring a server to communicate with a new storage array. To do so, the administrator enters the WWPN of the new array in the server’s storage configuration.
Which of the following technologies is the new connection using?
- A . iSCSI
- B . eSATA
- C . NFS
- D . FcoE
A
Explanation:
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E26996_01/E18549/html/BABHBFHA.html
An administrator is configuring a server to communicate with a new storage array. To do so, the administrator enters the WWPN of the new array in the server’s storage configuration.
Which of the following technologies is the new connection using?
- A . iSCSI
- B . eSATA
- C . NFS
- D . FcoE
A
Explanation:
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E26996_01/E18549/html/BABHBFHA.html
An administrator is configuring a server to communicate with a new storage array. To do so, the administrator enters the WWPN of the new array in the server’s storage configuration.
Which of the following technologies is the new connection using?
- A . iSCSI
- B . eSATA
- C . NFS
- D . FcoE
A
Explanation:
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E26996_01/E18549/html/BABHBFHA.html
Modify the appropriate route entries to resolve the Internet connectivity issue.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
Modify the appropriate route entries to resolve the Internet connectivity issue.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
Modify the appropriate route entries to resolve the Internet connectivity issue.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
Modify the appropriate route entries to resolve the Internet connectivity issue.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
Data availability is a high priority, even in the case of multiple hard drive failures.
Which of the following are the BEST options to comply with the user requirements? (Choose three.)
- A . Install the OS on a RAID 0 array.
- B . Install the OS on a RAID 1 array.
- C . Configure RAID 1 for the application data.
- D . Configure RAID 5 for the application data.
- E . Use SSD hard drives for the data application array.
- F . Use SATA hard drives for the data application array.
- G . Use a single JBOD for OS and application data.
BDE
Explanation:
To comply with the user requirements, the best options are to install the OS on a RAID 1 array, configure RAID 5 for the application data, and use SSD hard drives for the data application array.
Here is why:
RAID 1 is a mirroring technique that creates an exact copy of data on two disks. This provides redundancy and fault tolerance in case of hard drive failure. RAID 1 also improves read performance since either disk can be read at the same time. Therefore, installing the OS on a RAID 1 array meets the first requirement of separating the OS from the application data and protecting it from hard drive failure.
RAID 5 is a striping technique with parity that distributes data and parity blocks across three or more disks. This provides improved performance and storage efficiency compared to RAID 1, as well as fault tolerance in case of a single disk failure. Therefore, configuring RAID 5 for the application data meets the second and third requirements of providing high IOPS performance and data availability.
SSD hard drives are solid-state drives that use flash memory to store data. They have no moving parts and offer faster read and write speeds, lower latency, and lower power consumption than traditional HDDs. Therefore, using SSD hard drives for the data application array meets the second requirement of providing high IOPS performance.
Reference:
https://phoenixnap.com/kb/raid-levels-and-types
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Standard_RAID_levels
A server technician installs a new NIC on a server and configures the NIC for IP connectivity. The technician then tests the connection using the ping command.
Given the following partial output of the ping and ipconfig commands:
Which of the following caused the issue?
- A . Duplicate IP address
- B . Incorrect default gateway
- C . DHCP misconfiguration
- D . Incorrect routing table
A
Explanation:
The ping command output shows that the NIC has an IP address of 192.168.1.100 and a default gateway of 192.168.1.1. However, when the technician tries to ping the default gateway, the reply comes from another IP address: 192.168.1.101. This means that there is another device on the network that has the same IP address as the default gateway, and it is responding to the ping request instead of the intended destination.
A duplicate IP address can cause network connectivity problems, such as packet loss, routing errors, or unreachable hosts. To resolve this issue, the technician should either change the IP address of the
default gateway or the device that is conflicting with it, or use DHCP to assign IP addresses automatically and avoid conflicts.
The other options are not correct because they do not explain the ping output. An incorrect default gateway would cause no reply or a destination unreachable message, not a reply from a different IP address. A DHCP misconfiguration would cause an invalid or no IP address on the NIC, not a duplicate IP address on the network. An incorrect routing table would cause routing errors or unreachable destinations, not a reply from a different IP address.
Reference:
https://askleo.com/what_is_ping_and_what_does_its_output_tell_me/
https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/administration/windows-commands/ping
A server administrator is swapping out the GPU card inside a server.
Which of the following actions should the administrator take FIRST?
- A . Inspect the GPU that is being installed.
- B . Ensure the GPU meets HCL guidelines.
- C . Shut down the server.
- D . Disconnect the power from the rack.
C
Explanation:
The first action that the administrator should take before swapping out the GPU card inside a server is to shut down the server. This is to ensure that the server is not running any processes that might be using the GPU card, and to prevent any damage to the hardware or data loss due to sudden power loss. Shutting down the server also reduces the risk of electrostatic discharge (ESD) that might harm the components.
Reference: https://pcgearhead.com/installing-a-new-gpu/
A server administrator must respond to tickets within a certain amount of time.
The server administrator needs to adhere to the:
- A . BIA.
- B . RTO.
- C . MTTR.
- D . SLA.
D
Explanation:
The server administrator needs to adhere to the Service Level Agreement (SLA) when responding to tickets within a certain amount of time. An SLA is a contract between a service provider and a customer that defines the quality, availability, and responsibilities of the service. An SLA may specify the response time for tickets, as well as other metrics such as uptime, performance, security, and backup frequency.
Reference: https://www.ibm.com/cloud/learn/service-level-agreements