SIMULATION
During a gate review meeting, the deliverable was rejected by the customer.
INSTRUCTIONS
Review the dashboard.
• Part 1: Drag and drop each task, placing them in the correct order based on the project change control process.
• Part 2: Select the proper document(s) to be updated.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
Part 1:
Part 2:
Explanation:
Part 1:
Change Control Process:
Consult the RACI matrix.
Define new requirements and record changes.
Assess the schedule, risk, and cost.
Perform a demonstration.
Obtain a sign off.
Update and test the deliverable.
Make an announcement on the company portal.
The change control process is a sequence of steps that helps to manage and document any changes or modifications to a project scope, schedule, cost, quality, or resources. The change control process typically involves the following steps:
Consult the RACI matrix. A RACI matrix is a tool that defines and clarifies the roles and responsibilities of each team member for each task or activity in a project. RACI stands for responsible, accountable, consulted, and informed. Consulting the RACI matrix can help to identify who needs to be involved or informed about the change request and how to communicate with them.
Define new requirements and record changes. The new requirements and changes are the details of what needs to be modified or added to the project deliverables or objectives based on the customer feedback or request. Defining and recording the new requirements and changes can help to communicate and justify the need and rationale for the change and its implications on the project scope and quality.
Assess the schedule, risk, and cost. The schedule, risk, and cost are the aspects of the project that may be affected by the change request. Assessing the schedule, risk, and cost can help to determine the impact and feasibility of the change and identify any possible alternatives or corrective actions to minimize or avoid its negative effects.
Perform a demonstration. A demonstration is a presentation or show of how the modified or updated deliverable works or meets the customer expectations or requirements. Performing a demonstration can help to validate and verify that the change request has been implemented correctly and effectively and to obtain feedback or approval from the customer or stakeholders. Obtain a sign off. A sign off is a formal acceptance and approval of the change request and its deliverables from the customer or stakeholders. Obtaining a sign off can help to confirm that the change request has been completed successfully and satisfactorily and to close the change control process.
Update and test the deliverable. The deliverable is the product or service that is produced or provided by the project. Updating and testing the deliverable can help to ensure that it meets the quality standards and criteria and that it works as expected after implementing the change request.
Make an announcement on the company portal. The company portal is a platform or channel that allows internal communication and collaboration among employees within an organization. Making an announcement on the company portal can help to inform and update other team members or departments about the change request and its outcomes and to share any lessons learned or best practices from the change control process.
Part2:
Risk register: A risk register is a document that identifies, analyzes, and records the potential risks or uncertainties that may affect a project. Updating the risk register can help to capture any new or modified risks that may arise from the change request and to plan and implement appropriate risk responses.
Schedule: A schedule is a document that shows the planned start and end dates, durations, dependencies, and progress of each task or activity in a project. Updating the schedule can help to reflect any changes or adjustments to the project timeline or milestones that may result from the change request and to monitor and control the project performance and delivery.
Statement of work: A statement of work (SOW) is a document that defines the scope, deliverables, schedule, and terms and conditions of a project or contract. Updating the SOW can help to document any changes or additions to the project scope or deliverables that may be requested or agreed upon by the customer or stakeholders and to ensure alignment and agreement on what needs to be done and how it will be done.
Change log: A change log is a document that tracks and records any changes or modifications that are made to the project scope, schedule, cost, quality, or resources during a project. Updating the change log can help to document the change request, approval, implementation, and impact of each change and ensure traceability and transparency.
A PM is responsible for implementing a new customer relationship management system and has learned that the sales organization is reluctant to utilize the new system. The organization’s reluctance could jeopardize the success of the project.
Which of the following steps should be taken to understand the adoption issues and gain organizational acceptance of the initiative? (Select TWO).
- A . Train users on the proper use of the system.
- B . Escalate the issue to the CCB
- C . Hold sessions to understand user challenges.
- D . Track system usage and report user activity.
- E . Log the issue in the project risk register.
- F . Create a memorandum of acceptable use.
CD
Explanation:
The project manager should hold sessions to understand user challenges and track system usage and report user activity. These steps will help the project manager to identify the root causes of the adoption issues and monitor the progress of the system utilization. They will also help to communicate with the sales organization and provide feedback and support12
Following a successful release, a project manager sent a survey to all stakeholders to gain an understanding of opportunity areas for the team.
Which of the following can use the survey results as an input?
- A . Daily stand-up
- B . Project momentum
- C . Performance feedback
- D . Meeting minutes
C
Explanation:
The project manager can use the survey results as an input for performance feedback for the project team members. Performance feedback is a process of providing constructive and timely information on the performance of individuals or teams in relation to project goals and expectations. Performance feedback can help to motivate, improve, and recognize project team members345
The survey results can be used as an input for performance feedback. Performance feedback involves analyzing and evaluating the performance of the project team and project management against the project plan, including identifying areas for improvement. The survey results can help identify these areas for improvement and provide feedback to the project team on their performance.
Reference: CompTIA Project+ Study Guide Section 4.1.1
Which of the following is an activity that should be used in the closing phase of a project to support the project triple constraint?
- A . Evaluating the project
- B . Releasing the resources
- C . Closing the contracts
- D . Reconciling the budget
A
Explanation:
Evaluating the project is an activity that should be used in the closing phase of a project to support the project triple constraint. This involves reviewing the project plan, deliverables, and outcomes to ensure they meet the project objectives and requirements.
Reference: CompTIA Project+ Study Guide Section 4.4.4
During a quality analysis review, the causes of several issues have been highlighted.
Which of the following should the project manager use to identify the MOST important causes?
- A . Ishikawa diagram
- B . Scatter diagram
- C . Pareto chart
- D . Decision tree
C
Explanation:
The Pareto chart should be used to identify the most important causes of issues during a quality analysis review. The Pareto chart is a graphical representation of the frequency and impact of different causes, helping to identify the most common and impactful causes.
Reference: CompTIA Project+ Study Guide Section 3.3.3
Which of the following BEST describes how an organization should coordinate management of multiple related projects?
- A . Apply the SDLC process.
- B . Establish a program.
- C . Consult the CCB.
- D . Use different frameworks
B
Explanation:
The BEST way to coordinate management of multiple related projects is to establish a program. A program is a group of related projects that are managed together to achieve specific strategic business objectives.
Reference: CompTIA Project+ Study Guide Section 2.2.1
The organization should establish a program to coordinate management of multiple related projects. A program is a group of related projects, subprograms, and program activities that are managed in a coordinated way to obtain benefits and control not available from managing them individually. A program can help to align multiple projects with strategic goals, optimize resources and risks, and deliver value to stakeholders.
A project team gathers weekly to review its progress.
Which of the following is the project manager MOST likely to have prepared to ensure team members who are absent remain informed about assignments?
- A . Status report
- B . Project plan
- C . Change log
- D . Meeting minutes
D
Explanation:
Meeting minutes should be prepared to ensure team members who are absent remain informed about assignments. Meeting minutes document what was discussed, decisions made, and assignments given during a meeting, providing a record of the team’s progress and ensuring absent members are up-to-date.
Reference: CompTIA Project+ Study Guide Section 4.2.2
The project manager should prepare meeting minutes to ensure team members who are absent remain informed about assignments. Meeting minutes are a written record of what was discussed and decided in a meeting. They usually include information such as attendees, agenda items, action items, decisions made, issues raised, and deadlines assigned. Meeting minutes can help to communicate important information to team members who could not attend the meeting and provide a reference for future follow-up.
A project manager prefers to have immediate contact with team members because it allows for faster response times and more interactive discussions.
Which of the following communication methods should the project manager use?
- A . Synchronous
- B . Informal
- C . Asynchronous
- D . Formal
A
Explanation:
The project manager should use synchronous communication methods if they prefer to have immediate contact with team members. Synchronous communication is a type of communication that occurs in real time and allows for faster response times and more interactive discussions. Examples of synchronous communication methods include phone calls, video conferences, instant messaging, and face-to-face meetings. Synchronous communication can help to build rapport, clarify doubts, and resolve issues quickly among team members.
Synchronous communication should be used when the project manager prefers to have immediate contact with team members. Synchronous communication allows for real-time interaction and feedback, enabling faster response times and more interactive discussions.
Reference: CompTIA Project+ Study Guide Section 3.1.3
As part of the planning phase, a PM has defined tasks, durations, resources, and costs.
Which of the following is the NEXT step in the process?
- A . Update the work breakdown structure.
- B . Review the backlog.
- C . Seek baseline approval.
- D . Establish the resource pool.
C
Explanation:
The next step in the process after defining tasks, durations, resources, and costs is to seek baseline approval. A baseline is an approved version of a project plan that serves as a reference point for measuring progress and performance throughout the project lifecycle. A baseline typically includes scope, schedule, cost, quality, and risk parameters. Seeking baseline approval involves presenting the project plan to key stakeholders and obtaining their formal agreement on the project objectives and deliverables. Baseline approval can help to establish clear expectations, avoid scope creep, and facilitate change control during project execution.
The NEXT step after defining tasks, durations, resources, and costs during the planning phase is to
seek baseline approval. Baseline approval involves finalizing the project plan and gaining approval from stakeholders, establishing the plan as the baseline for the project’s performance.
Reference: CompTIA Project+ Study Guide Section 3.4.1
A project manager realizes that a project will not be completed on time due to resource constraints.
Which of the following actions should the project manager take NEXT?
- A . Trigger the contingency plan and communicate with the stakeholders.
- B . Work with the functional managers to create a work-around.
- C . Submit a change request to the change control board.
- D . Transfer the risk by hiring a new vendor who was successful on a previous project.
- E . Set up an escalation meeting with the sponsor.
C
Explanation:
Submit a change request to the change control board. The project manager should submit a change request to the change control board (CCB) if they realize that the project will not be completed on time due to resource constraints. A change request is a formal proposal to modify any aspect of the project, such as scope, schedule, cost, quality, or resources. A change request must be submitted to the CCB, which is a group of stakeholders who are authorized to review and approve changes. Submitting a change request can help to document the impact of the resource constraints on the project and seek approval for any corrective actions or preventive actions12
By developing a project schedule, a PM has already validated the constraints, outlined the duration of the tasks and the phases, and confirmed the proper sequence and flow of the project.
Which of the following activities still needs to be performed to complete the schedule?
- A . Allocate resources.
- B . Determine the project budget
- C . Develop a communication plan.
- D . Establish baselines.
D
Explanation:
The next step after defining tasks, durations, resources, and costs is to establish baselines. A baseline is an approved version of a project plan that serves as a reference point for measuring progress and performance throughout the project lifecycle. A baseline typically includes scope, schedule, cost, quality, and risk parameters. Establishing baselines involves presenting the project plan to key stakeholders and obtaining their formal agreement on the project objectives and deliverables. Baseline approval can help to establish clear expectations, avoid scope creep, and facilitate change control during project execution34
A PM has identified all the resources involved in a project. The next step is to identify which resources are responsible for which tasks.
Which of the following should be used to document this information?
- A . RFI
- B . RACI
- C . WBS
- D . SOW
B
Explanation:
The RACI (Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Informed) matrix is used to document which resources are responsible for which tasks. The RACI matrix is a tool that helps to clarify roles and responsibilities on a project. It assigns a level of responsibility to each resource involved in the project.
Reference: CompTIA Project+ Study Guide Section 3.4.
The project manager should use a RACI matrix to document which resources are responsible for which tasks. A RACI matrix is a type of responsibility assignment matrix (RAM) that plots the roles and responsibilities of resources on a project team. RACI stands for Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, and Informed. A RACI matrix can help to clarify who does what on a project, avoid confusion and duplication of work, and improve communication and collaboration among team members.
During a staff meeting, a project manager voices a concern about the client billing rate for a particular engineer.
Which of the following documents would the project manager need in order to find this information?
- A . SLA
- B . TOR
- C . SOW
- D . NDA
C
Explanation:
In order to find the client billing rate for a particular engineer, the project manager would need to refer to the SOW (Statement of Work). The SOW is a document that outlines the work to be performed, the timeframe for completion, and the cost of the project. It also includes information about the resources involved in the project and their billing rates.
Reference: CompTIA Project+ Study Guide Section 2.2.
The project manager would need a statement of work (SOW) to find information about the client billing rate for a particular engineer. A SOW is a document that defines the scope of work for a project or contract. It usually includes information such as deliverables, milestones, timeline, costs, payment terms, quality standards, and acceptance criteria. A SOW can help to specify what services or products will be provided by whom, when, where, how, and for how much.
Which of the following should occur when implementing an IT infrastructure change that takes risks into consideration?
- A . Approving the change request
- B . Developing a rollback plan
- C . Gathering necessary resources
- D . Defining requirements
B
Explanation:
When implementing an IT infrastructure change that takes risks into consideration, the project manager should develop a rollback plan. A rollback plan is a contingency plan that outlines the steps that need to be taken in case the change does not work as expected. It includes a plan to roll back the changes and restore the system to its previous state.
Reference: CompTIA Project+ Study Guide Section 3.3.
The project manager should develop a rollback plan when implementing an IT infrastructure change that takes risks into consideration. A rollback plan is a contingency plan that describes how to revert back to the previous state of the system in case of a failure or disruption during the change implementation. A rollback plan can help to minimize the impact of the change on the system performance and availability and ensure business continuity and data integrity.
During the stabilization phase for recently deployed software, an end user reports a bug that is compromising data integrity.
Which of the following tools will the project manager MOST likely use?
- A . Issue log
- B . Defect log
- C . Change log
- D . Task board
B
Explanation:
During the stabilization phase of recently deployed software, the project manager will most likely use a defect log to track and manage reported bugs. A defect log is a document that contains information about the defects or issues identified during testing or after the deployment of software. It includes the severity of the defect, the steps to reproduce the problem, and the actions taken to resolve the defect.
Reference: CompTIA Project+ Study Guide Section 4.1.
The project manager will most likely use a defect log during the stabilization phase for recently deployed software to record a bug that is compromising data integrity. A defect log is a tool that tracks and documents any errors or flaws found in a software product or system during testing or operation. It usually includes information such as defect ID, description, severity, priority, status, resolution, and responsible person. A defect log can help to monitor and manage the quality of the software product or system and ensure that all defects are identified and resolved before delivery or release.
A project manager is in the closing phase of an IT asset refresh project that involves the disposal of several computers. The project sponsor notified the project manager that the company recently received a penalty as a result of disposing of some computers improperly.
Which of the following should have been considered during initial planning to prevent this situation?
- A . ESG
- B . PHI
- C . Pll
- D . ROI
A
Explanation:
The project manager should have considered environmental, social, and governance (ESG) factors during initial planning to prevent the situation of receiving a penalty for disposing of some computers improperly. ESG factors are criteria that measure the sustainability and ethical impact of an organization’s activities. They include aspects such as environmental protection, social responsibility, human rights, diversity, and corporate governance. Considering ESG factors can help to reduce risks, improve reputation, and enhance performance of an organization12
A project manager has been very diligent in maintaining the version control for the documentation of requirements.
Which of the following tools is the project manager using?
- A . Multiauthoring software
- B . Word processor
- C . Real-time polling
- D . Conferencing platforms
A
Explanation:
The project manager is using multiauthoring software to maintain the version control for the documentation of requirements. Multiauthoring software is a type of software that allows multiple users to create, edit, and collaborate on documents simultaneously. It also provides features such as tracking changes, commenting, reviewing, and merging versions. Multiauthoring software can help to improve the quality, accuracy, and consistency of documents and facilitate communication and feedback among stakeholders. Examples of multiauthoring software include Google Docs, Microsoft Word Online, and Confluence34
The project team determines that software installation can only begin after the desktops have been installed and can be powered on.
Which of the following dependencies does this represent?
- A . External
- B . Internal
- C . Mandatory
- D . Discretionary
C
Explanation:
The dependency between software installation and desktop installation is a mandatory dependency. A mandatory dependency is a type of dependency that is inherent in the nature or logic of the work and cannot be avoided or changed. It is also known as a hard dependency or a hard logic dependency. A mandatory dependency means that one task must be completed before another task can start or finish. For example, software installation can only start after desktop installation is finished5
The dependency between desktop installation and software installation represents a mandatory dependency. A mandatory dependency is a type of task dependency that is inherent in the nature of the work being performed. In this case, software installation cannot begin until desktops are installed and powered on, and therefore, the dependency is mandatory.
Reference: CompTIA Project+ Study Guide, Chapter 3: Project Integration Management, Objective 3.1: Identify the project management processes and the interactions between them.
A hurricane delays the shipment of critical equipment for a project.
Which of the following is BEST to use to document the effects of this delay?
- A . Issue log
- B . Gantt chart
- C . Milestone chart
- D . Change control log
D
Explanation:
The project manager should use a change control log to document the effects of the hurricane delay on the project. A change control log is a tool that records and tracks any changes that occur during the project lifecycle. It usually includes information such as change ID, description, impact, status, approval, and resolution. A change control log can help to monitor and manage the changes that affect the project scope, schedule, cost, quality, or resources and ensure that they are aligned with the project objectives and stakeholder expectations.
Due to budgetary and time constraints, a PM scheduled a meeting with all stakeholders during the planning phase to review the requirements and come to an agreement on the minimum viable product that would be acceptable.
Which of the following would be used to document this input?
- A . Project change management plan
- B . Project management plan
- C . Project transition plan
- D . Project communication plan
B
Explanation:
The project manager should use the project management plan to document the input from the stakeholders on the minimum viable product that would be acceptable for the project. The project management plan is a document that describes how the project will be executed, monitored, controlled, and closed. It usually includes information such as scope statement, work breakdown structure (WBS), schedule baseline, cost baseline, quality plan, risk plan, communication plan, stakeholder plan, and change management plan. The project management plan can help to define and communicate the project requirements, deliverables, assumptions, constraints, and expectations to all stakeholders involved in the project.
The project management plan would be used to document the input obtained from stakeholders during the meeting to review the requirements and agree on the minimum viable product. The project management plan is a comprehensive document that outlines the approach, scope, schedule, budget, quality, resources, and communication for a project. The document is updated throughout the project lifecycle and serves as a guide for project execution, monitoring, and control.
Reference: CompTIA Project+ Study Guide, Chapter 3: Project Integration Management, Objective 3.3: Identify the components of the project management plan.
A project team was instructed to refurbish old desktops.
The following provides the details of the issues observed:
Which of the following issues should be addressed FIRST?
- A . Replace missing peripherals because this process can be easy and less costly.
- B . An old operating system issue has the most amount of occurrences.
- C . Damage to the monitor has the highest percentage.
- D . Address each issue as discovered to avoid rework.
C
Explanation:
The project manager should address the issue of damage to the monitor first because it has the highest percentage (40%) among the issues observed. This means that it is the most frequent and severe issue that affects the quality and functionality of the refurbished desktops. Addressing this issue first can help to improve customer satisfaction, reduce rework, and avoid waste1
A project manager was not part of a contract negotiation. The project manager is concerned that stakeholders will expect the project to achieve deliverables requested in the RFP.
Which of the following documents should the project manager produce FIRST to start communication about the boundaries of the project?
- A . Milestone chart
- B . Work breakdown structure
- C . Project charter
- D . Detailed scope statement
C
Explanation:
The project manager should produce a project charter first to start communication about the boundaries of the project. A project charter is a document that formally authorizes a project and defines its high-level scope, objectives, assumptions, constraints, stakeholders, roles and responsibilities, and key deliverables. A project charter can help to communicate the project vision and expectations to all stakeholders and provide a basis for future project decisions23
In a functional organization, a project has been completed successfully.
Which of the following actions would the project manager MOST likely perform?
- A . Assemble a new project with existing resources.
- B . Obtain the final report from release management.
- C . Notify the functional manager that resources are released.
- D . Allocate resources in a different project
C
Explanation:
The project manager should notify the functional manager that resources are released after completing a project successfully in a functional organization. A functional organization is a type of organizational structure where employees are grouped by their functions or specialties, such as finance, marketing, or engineering. In a functional organization, the functional manager has more authority and control over the resources than the project manager. Therefore, the project manager should inform the functional manager when the resources are no longer needed for the project and can be reassigned to other tasks or projects.
A third party needs to perform a short-term task for which the duration cannot be accurately estimated and the cost cannot be calculated in advance.
Which of the following should the project manager put in place before work begins?
- A . Time and materials contract
- B . Master service agreement
- C . Fixed-price contract
- D . Statement of work
- E . Cost-plus agreement
A
Explanation:
The project manager should put in place a time and materials contract before work begins for a third party that needs to perform a short-term task for which the duration cannot be accurately estimated and the cost cannot be calculated in advance. A time and materials contract is a type of contract where the buyer pays the seller based on the actual time spent and materials used during the project. A time and materials contract is suitable for projects that have uncertain or variable scope, duration, or cost. A time and materials contract can provide flexibility and adaptability for both parties and allow them to adjust to changing requirements or circumstances.
Which of the following would be MOST beneficial to do before a call to ensure all meeting items are addressed and the correct participants attend?
- A . Assign action items to attendees.
- B . Distribute an agenda.
- C . Email the minutes from the previous meeting.
- D . Schedule a convenient time.
B
Explanation:
The project manager should distribute an agenda before a call to ensure all meeting items are addressed and the correct participants attend. An agenda is a document that outlines the purpose, topics, and objectives of a meeting. It also includes information such as date, time, duration, location, attendees, and roles. Distributing an agenda can help to prepare the participants for the meeting, set clear expectations, and facilitate a productive and focused discussion12
While developing a project charter, a PM discovers that some of the legal requirements have not been addressed during the project concept preparation, which could result in significant financial penalties against the organization. The PM knows that implementation of appropriate changes is costly and will exceed the budget and scope of the project.
Which of the following should the PM do FIRST?
- A . Escalate the finding to the change control board.
- B . Add a risk to the risk register for validation.
- C . Consult the RACI matrix to identify ownership of the risk.
- D . Have a meeting with the project sponsor and main stakeholders.
D
Explanation:
The project manager should have a meeting with the project sponsor and main stakeholders first after discovering that some of the legal requirements have not been addressed during the project concept preparation. The project sponsor and main stakeholders are the key decision-makers and influencers of the project. They have the authority and responsibility to approve or reject any changes to the project scope, budget, or schedule. Having a meeting with them can help to communicate the issue, assess the impact, explore alternatives, and seek guidance on how to proceed with the project34
A company that is implementing an updated version of its main product hired a new project manager to lead the project. Prior to the start of the project, the sponsor asked the project manager to prepare a report on the defects found in the previous project to avoid a decrease in production. The report shows that the two main defects are related to cosmetic and physical damage to the product.
Which of the following charts would BEST prioritize which defects to address?
- A . Pareto
- B . Run
- C . Control
- D . Histogram
A
Explanation:
The project manager should use a Pareto chart to prioritize which defects to address for the product. A Pareto chart is a type of bar chart that shows the frequency or impact of different causes of problems or defects. It also shows a cumulative line that represents the percentage of the total frequency or impact. A Pareto chart can help to prioritize the causes that have the most significant effect on the quality of the product and apply the 80/20 rule, which states that 80% of the problems are caused by 20% of the causes.
Which of the following activities would a project manager perform during the closing phase? (Select THREE).
- A . Lessons learned
- B . Risk analysis
- C . Removing resources
- D . Acquiring resources
- E . Statement of work sign-off
- F . Stakeholder analysis
- G . Removing access
ACG
Explanation:
Lessons learned, removing resources, and removing access are activities that a project manager would perform during the closing phase of a project. Lessons learned is a process of collecting and documenting the knowledge and experience gained from a project for future reference and improvement. Removing resources is a process of releasing or reallocating any human or material resources that were used for the project. Removing access is a process of revoking any permissions or privileges that were granted to the project team members or stakeholders for accessing any systems or data related to the project. These activities can help to finalize and close a project successfully and ensure that all deliverables are transferred, all documentation is approved and archived, all contracts are closed, and all stakeholders are satisfied.
Which of the following is a quality assurance tool?
- A . Defining project goals
- B . Identifying the root cause analysis
- C . Assessing employee efficiency
- D . Assessing skill gaps
B
Explanation:
Identifying the root cause analysis. Identifying the root cause analysis is a quality assurance tool that can help to find and eliminate the underlying causes of quality problems or defects. Root cause analysis is a systematic process of asking why a problem occurred and tracing it back to its source. Root cause analysis can help to prevent recurrence of the same or similar problems, improve quality performance, and reduce costs and risks12
A project manager sent equipment to a global project team for testing purposes. Only 70% of the project team received the equipment for testing.
Which of the following considerations is impacting the rest of the team?
- A . Quality assurance
- B . Organizational branding restrictions
- C . State privacy acts
- D . Country legal regulations
D
Explanation:
Country legal regulations. Country legal regulations are impacting the rest of the team that did not receive the equipment for testing. Country legal regulations are rules and laws that govern how businesses operate in different countries. They may include aspects such as customs, tariffs, taxes, import and export restrictions, data protection, intellectual property rights, and environmental standards. Country legal regulations can affect the delivery and use of equipment for a global project team and may require compliance with different procedures and documentation3
A project manager has been assigned to a new project. During the planning phase, the project manager needs to get an understanding of the purpose of the project.
Which of the following should the project manager do?
- A . Collate the lessons learned.
- B . Perform a gap analysis.
- C . Review existing artifacts.
- D . Conduct a retrospective.
C
Explanation:
The project manager should review existing artifacts to get an understanding of the purpose of the project. Existing artifacts are documents or records that provide information about the project background, context, scope, objectives, requirements, stakeholders, and deliverables. They may include documents such as project proposal, project charter, business case, feasibility study, statement of work (SOW), or contract. Reviewing existing artifacts can help to clarify the project vision and expectations and provide a basis for planning and executing the project.
Someone claiming to be from a tax agency sent an email to a team member asking for access to the project repository.
Which of the following BEST describes this scenario?
- A . Social engineering
- B . Phishing
- C . Spoofing
- D . Hacking
B
Explanation:
Phishing is a scenario where someone claiming to be from a legitimate organization sends an email or other message to a target person asking for sensitive information or access to a system or account. Phishing is a type of cyberattack that aims to trick the target into revealing personal or financial data or installing malware on their device. Phishing can compromise the security and privacy of the target and expose them to identity theft, fraud, or other malicious activities.
A stakeholder works in a remote location and has not been replying to emails. The Internet service in that location is intermittent, and the stakeholder prefers to be contacted by telephone.
Which of the following artifacts should the project manager have prepared to avoid this situation?
- A . Responsibility assignment matrix
- B . Acceptable communication channels
- C . Risk registry
- D . Staff directory
B
Explanation:
The project manager should have prepared acceptable communication channels to avoid the situation of a stakeholder not replying to emails due to intermittent Internet service. Acceptable communication channels are methods or modes of communication that are agreed upon by all parties involved in a project. They may include aspects such as email, phone call, text message, video conference, instant message, or face-to-face meeting. Acceptable communication channels can help to ensure that messages are delivered and received effectively and efficiently and that communication preferences and limitations are respected.
A project team evaluated the performance of a new reporting system and the quantity of queries to be processed during predetermined time stamps.
Which of the following is the current status of the process?
- A . Based on the rule of seven, the process is under control
- B . The amount of data is insufficient to determine if quality is low.
- C . The process is out of control and should be revised.
- D . The goal should be adjusted since most of the data points are close to the lower limit.
C
Explanation:
The process is out of control and should be revised. The project manager can use the rule of seven to determine the status of the process based on the control chart. The rule of seven states that if seven or more consecutive measurements fall on one side of the mean that there’s an assignable cause that needs investigation. In this case, the last seven data points are all below the mean, which indicates that the process is out of control and in need of adjustment12
After a release, the project sponsor received an escalation from an executive about the extension of the downtime after the scheduled window.
Which of the following should be added to the issue log?
- A . Continuous integration
- B . Rollback plan
- C . Customer notification
- D . Automated testing
C
Explanation:
Customer notification should be added to the issue log after receiving an escalation from an executive about the extension of the downtime after the scheduled window. Customer notification is a communication activity that informs the customers about any issues or changes that may affect their satisfaction or expectations. Customer notification can help to maintain trust, transparency, and goodwill with the customers and prevent any negative impacts on their business operations or experience.
Due to multiple changes, the sign-off for the project scope baseline is delayed. The project sponsor has restricted the budget for this project.
Which of the following should the project manager MOST likely do to move forward?
- A . Communicate with the affected stakeholders.
- B . Initiate a formal change request to modify the cost
- C . Adjust the scope to stay within the cost.
- D . Set a new cost using a lightweight estimation method.
A
Explanation:
The project manager should communicate with the affected stakeholders first after realizing that the sign-off for the project scope baseline is delayed due to multiple changes and that the budget for this
project is restricted by the project sponsor. The affected stakeholders are those who have an interest or influence on the project and may be impacted by any changes or delays. Communicating with them can help to explain the situation, assess the impact, seek feedback, and manage expectations.
As a result of an approved change, the project manager updates the project plan with the newest project end date.
Which of the following change control processes should the project manager complete NEXT?
- A . Document the request in the change control log.
- B . Communicate the change deployment.
- C . Conduct an impact assessment.
- D . Implement the change.
B
Explanation:
The project manager should communicate the change deployment next after updating the project plan with the newest project end date as a result of an approved change. Communicating the change deployment involves informing all relevant parties about when and how the change will be implemented and what are the expected outcomes and benefits. Communicating the change deployment can help to ensure alignment, readiness, and support for the change and avoid any confusion or resistance.
An IT intern was assigned to set up workstations as part of a project. The IT intern was very careful to do the task well and initially referred to notes while performing the task. By the end of the two-week rotation, the IT intern no longer needed the notes and completed more set-ups in less time.
Which of the following MOST likely represents the observed relationship in this scenario?
A)
B)
C)
D)
- A . Option A
- B . Option B
- C . Option C
- D . Option D
C
Explanation:
Option C shows a graph that most likely represents the observed relationship in this scenario. The graph shows a learning curve, which is a graphical representation of the relationship between a learner’s performance on a task and the number of attempts or time required to complete the task.
The learning curve theory proposes that a learner’s efficiency in a task improves over time the more the learner performs the task. In this case, the IT intern was able to complete more set-ups in less time as they gained more experience and proficiency over the two-week rotation12
An opportunity emerged in the middle of a project life cycle.
Which of the following is the BEST action for the project manager to take?
- A . Exploit the risk.
- B . Accept the risk.
- C . Avoid the risk.
- D . Transfer the risk.
A
Explanation:
The project manager should exploit the risk after an opportunity emerged in the middle of a project life cycle. Exploit is a risk response strategy that aims to increase the probability and/or impact of a positive risk or opportunity. Exploit can involve actions such as allocating more resources, changing the scope or schedule, or adding more features or benefits to the project deliverables. Exploit can help to ensure that the opportunity is realized and that the project gains more value or advantage from it3
The high-level technical requirements for a new application state that the application should be suitable to support enterprise-level client-server solutions.
Which of the following meets these requirements?
- A . Data warehouse
- B . SQL database
- C . Multitier architecture
- D . Content management system
C
Explanation:
Multitier architecture is a type of software architecture that is suitable to support enterprise-level client-server solutions. Multitier architecture divides an application into logical layers or tiers that are distributed among different servers or machines. Each tier performs a specific function or role and communicates with other tiers through well-defined interfaces. Multitier architecture can provide benefits such as scalability, performance, security, maintainability, and reusability for complex and large-scale applications.
A project manager was just assigned to a new project.
Which of the following activities should the project manager undertake after accepting the project? (Select TWO).
- A . Review the detailed plan.
- B . Develop a preliminary scope.
- C . Develop a transition plan.
- D . Develop a project management plan.
- E . Review the resource pool.
- F . Review the project objectives.
EF
Explanation:
Review the resource pool and review the project objectives are activities that the project manager should undertake after accepting a new project. Reviewing the resource pool involves identifying and evaluating the availability, skills, and competencies of the human and material resources that are needed for the project. Reviewing the project objectives involves understanding and clarifying the expected outcomes and benefits of the project and how they align with the organizational strategy and stakeholder expectations. These activities can help to plan and execute the project effectively and efficiently.
A program manager is reviewing the project portfolio and prioritizing each project based on the company’s strategic plan.
Which of the following should be considered in this evaluation? (Select TWO).
- A . Company vision
- B . Global environment
- C . Brand value
- D . Mission statement
- E . Portfolio budget
- F . Local legislation
AD
Explanation:
Company vision and mission statement should be considered in the evaluation of the project portfolio based on the company’s strategic plan. Company vision is a statement that describes the long-term aspirations and desired future state of the organization. Company mission statement is a statement that defines the core purpose and values of the organization and how it serves its customers and stakeholders. These statements provide direction and guidance for the strategic planning and decision making of the organization. They also help to align the project portfolio with the organizational goals and objectives and ensure that the projects and programs in the portfolio deliver value and benefits to the organization12
Halfway through a project, the sponsor states that the project is taking too long to complete.
Which of the following should the project manager consult?
- A . Gantt chart
- B . Maintenance window schedule
- C . Functional requirements
- D . Test results
A
Explanation:
The project manager should consult a Gantt chart after the sponsor states that the project is taking too long to complete. A Gantt chart is a graphical tool that shows the schedule of a project, including the start and end dates, durations, dependencies, milestones, and progress of each task or activity. A Gantt chart can help to monitor and control the project timeline and identify any delays, variances, or issues that may affect the project completion.
A visual that displays team progress was created for stand-up meetings.
Which of the following BEST describes what is being represented on the visual?
- A . Decision board
- B . Whiteboard
- C . Task board
- D . Dashboard
C
Explanation:
A task board is a visual tool that displays team progress for stand-up meetings. A task board usually consists of columns that represent different stages or statuses of tasks, such as to do, in progress, done, or blocked. Each task is represented by a card or sticky note that can be moved across the columns as the task progresses. A task board can help to facilitate communication, collaboration, and transparency among team members and stakeholders. It can also help to track and manage work flow, prioritize tasks, identify bottlenecks, and resolve issues3
A project manager is assigned to a multinational project with team members from different continents.
Which of the following is the MOST important aspect for the project manager to consider?
- A . Resource allocation
- B . Communication security
- C . Technological factors
- D . Cultural differences
D
Explanation:
Cultural differences are the most important aspect for the project manager to consider when assigned to a multinational project with team members from different continents. Cultural differences refer to the variations in beliefs, values, norms, behaviors, customs, and communication styles among people from different countries or regions. Cultural differences can affect how team members interact, communicate, collaborate, negotiate, make decisions, solve problems, manage conflicts, and perform tasks. The project manager should be aware of and respect the cultural differences among team members and foster a positive and inclusive team culture that leverages diversity and promotes trust and cooperation.
During a brainstorming session, a project team is elaborating on what caused the unexpected crash of the website that the team was developing.
Given the following:
Which of the following was the initial cause of the issue?
- A . Inadequate memory
- B . Incorrect configuration
- C . Lack of infrastructure
- D . Inadequate instructions
B
Explanation:
Incorrect configuration was the initial cause of the issue that caused the unexpected crash of the website that the team was developing. The diagram given is an example of a fishbone diagram or a cause-and-effect diagram that shows the possible causes of a problem or effect. The diagram has four main categories: people, process, technology, and environment. Each category has subcategories that list specific factors that may contribute to the problem or effect. The diagram shows that incorrect configuration under technology was marked as an initial cause of website crash.
Which of the following describes three-tier architecture?
- A . Conceptual, design, and implementation stages
- B . Presentation, application, and data processing
- C . Network, software, and security
- D . Development, testing, and production environment
B
Explanation:
Presentation, application, and data processing. Presentation, application, and data processing are the three logical and physical computing tiers that make up a three-tier architecture. A three-tier architecture is a type of software architecture that separates an application into three layers or tiers that run on different servers or machines. Each tier performs a specific function or role and communicates with other tiers through well-defined interfaces. The presentation tier is the user interface and communication layer of the application, where the end user interacts with the application. The application tier is the logic or middle tier of the application, where data is processed using business rules. The data processing tier is the data or back-end tier of the application, where data is stored and managed12
After determining the appropriate maintenance window, which of the following should occur NEXT in the operational infrastructure change process?
- A . Implement the change.
- B . Approve the test plan.
- C . Notify customers.
- D . Develop a rollback plan.
D
Explanation:
The project manager should develop a rollback plan next after determining the appropriate maintenance window in the operational infrastructure change process. A rollback plan is a contingency plan that describes how to revert to the previous state of the system or infrastructure in case of a failure or disruption during the change implementation. A rollback plan can help to minimize the impact and risk of the change and ensure business continuity and stability.
Which of the following offers administrators more direct control over operating systems?
- A . Infrastructure as a service
- B . Software as a service
- C . Functions as a service
- D . Platform as a service
A
Explanation:
Infrastructure as a service (IaaS) offers administrators more direct control over operating systems than other cloud service models. IaaS is a type of cloud computing service that provides virtualized computing resources such as servers, storage, network, and operating systems over the internet. IaaS allows users to rent or lease infrastructure resources on demand and pay only for what they use. IaaS gives users more flexibility and control over their infrastructure resources and enables them to configure, manage, and customize their operating systems according to their needs and preferences3
Which of the following items must be protected as Pll? (Select TWO).
- A . Job title
- B . Home address
- C . Work phone number
- D . Time zone
- E . Date of birth
- F . Blood type
BE
Explanation:
Home address and date of birth must be protected as personally identifiable information (PII). PII is any information that can be used to identify, contact, or locate an individual person, either alone or in combination with other sources. PII can include information such as name, email address, phone number, social security number, passport number, driver’s license number, bank account number, credit card number, biometric data, medical records, etc. PII must be protected from unauthorized access, use, disclosure, modification, or destruction to prevent identity theft, fraud, or other malicious activities that may harm the individual’s privacy or security.
A critical business initiative introduced new processes and technology to the organization.
Which of the following approaches should be used to ensure the deliverables are increasingly adopted and leveraged by the organization over time?
- A . Creation of a social news forum
- B . Management directives to use the new system
- C . New user kickoff meeting
- D . Monthly feedback and training sessions
D
Explanation:
Monthly feedback and training sessions are the best approach to ensure that the deliverables of a critical business initiative are increasingly adopted and leveraged by the organization over time. Feedback and training sessions are communication and learning activities that provide information and guidance on how to use and benefit from the new processes and technology introduced by the initiative. Feedback and training sessions can help to increase awareness, understanding, acceptance, and adoption of the deliverables among the organization’s employees and stakeholders. They can also help to identify and address any issues or challenges that may arise during the implementation and transition phases.
A project sponsor asked the PM to provide a summary of the current financial status.
The PM uses the following burn up chart for the analysis:
Based on the chart, which of the following is the current status of the project?
- A . Behind schedule and over budget
- B . Behind schedule and under budget
- C . Ahead of schedule and over budget
- D . Ahead of schedule and under budget
A
Explanation:
The project manager can use the burn up chart to analyze the current status of the project based on its scope (value delivered), budget (cost), and schedule (time). A burn up chart is a graphical tool that shows how much work has been completed (burned up) versus how much work remains (scope) over time. It also shows how much budget has been spent (burned up) versus how much budget remains (budget) over time. A burn up chart can help to monitor and control the project progress and performance and identify any variances or deviations from the plan. The chart given shows that both scope and budget lines are above their respective target lines at any given time point. This means that less work has been completed than planned (scope variance) and more money has been spent than planned (budget variance) at any given time point. Therefore, the project is behind schedule and over budget.
Which of the following criteria would favor using the agile methodology to manage an upcoming project?
- A . Strong projectized organization
- B . Medium risk
- C . Lack of resources
- D . Multiple undefined tasks
D
Explanation:
Multiple undefined tasks would favor using the agile methodology to manage an upcoming project. Agile methodology is a project management framework that breaks projects down into several dynamic phases, commonly known as sprints. Agile methodology is an iterative and adaptive approach that allows teams to respond to changing requirements and customer feedback quickly and effectively. Agile methodology is suitable for projects that have multiple undefined tasks, as it enables teams to prioritize and deliver the most valuable features first, and refine and improve them over time based on user input and testing12
A client provides a project plan to the assigned project manager and suggests that the project manager and team just need to execute the plan.
Upon further investigation, the document contains:
• Purpose
• Scope of work
• Location of work
• Period of performance
• Deliverables schedule
• Applicable standards
• Acceptance criteria
• Special requirements
• Payment schedule
Which of the following documents did the client provide to the project manager?
- A . RFP
- B . WBS
- C . SLA
- D . SOW
D
Explanation:
The client provided a statement of work (SOW) to the project manager and suggested that the project manager and team just need to execute the plan. A SOW is a document that defines the scope, deliverables, schedule, and terms and conditions of a project or contract. A SOW typically includes information such as purpose, scope of work, location of work, period of performance, deliverables schedule, applicable standards, acceptance criteria, special requirements, and payment schedule. A SOW can help to establish a common understanding and agreement between the client and the service provider on what needs to be done and how it will be done.
While managing a project, a PM is assigned to work on a second project. The second project becomes more complex and monopolizes the PM’s time. The PM learns that a similarly time-consuming project was executed previously in the organization.
Which of the following actions should the PM take?
- A . Perform a root cause analysis.
- B . Organize a stakeholder meeting
- C . Escalate the issue to the CCB
- D . Contact the PMO for assistance.
D
Explanation:
The project manager should contact the project management office (PMO) for assistance after learning that a similarly time-consuming project was executed previously in the organization. A PMO is a department or group within an organization that provides centralized guidance, governance, standards, best practices, resources, and oversight for project management activities. A PMO can help the project manager by providing access to historical data, lessons learned, templates, tools, methodologies, and expertise from previous projects that can be useful for planning and executing the current project.
A financial manager reports that several employees’ allocations from the past month appear to be 200% even though they are only assigned to a particular project.
Which of the following could MOST likely be the cause of this issue?
- A . A project manager assigned the wrong resources.
- B . A project manager did not release the resources
- C . A project manager did not remove the system access.
- D . A project manager did not provide the project sign-off.
B
Explanation:
A project manager did not release the resources. A project manager not releasing the resources could most likely be the cause of this issue where several employees’ allocations from the past month appear to be 200% even though they are only assigned to a particular project. Releasing resources is a process of freeing up or reallocating any human or material resources that were used for a project after its completion or closure. Releasing resources can help to update the resource availability and utilization records and avoid any conflicts or errors in resource allocation or reporting.
Which of the following requires the MOST availability from the business team?
- A . SDLC
- B . Scrum
- C . PRINCE2
- D . Waterfall
B
Explanation:
Scrum requires the most availability from the business team among the given options. Scrum is a popular agile framework that organizes work into short iterations called sprints, usually lasting one to four weeks. Scrum emphasizes collaboration between teams, customers, and stakeholders and encourages open communication and transparency throughout the project lifecycle. Scrum requires frequent involvement and feedback from the business team through activities such as product backlog refinement, sprint planning, sprint review, sprint retrospective, and daily scrum meetings.
Which of the following software programs would be BEST to use lo store information related to business transactions?
- A . Record management system
- B . Customer relationship management
- C . Enterprise resource planning
- D . Content management system
B
Explanation:
Customer relationship management (CRM) software would be the best to use to store information related to business transactions. CRM software is a type of software that helps businesses manage their interactions and relationships with current and potential customers. CRM software can store and organize information such as customer contact details, purchase history, preferences, feedback, complaints, etc. CRM software can help businesses improve customer service, satisfaction, loyalty, retention, and revenue1
During a status meeting, the development team reviews work and finds an unforeseen dependency on one of the critical project activities. As a result, the project will most likely be delayed.
Which of the following actions should the project manager MOST likely perform?
- A . Work with the project scheduler to update the project timeline.
- B . Communicate to the stakeholders about the updated timeline.
- C . Ask the development team to fast-track upcoming activities.
- D . Add two resources so the critical activities will finish on time.
A
Explanation:
Work with the project scheduler to update the project timeline. The project manager should work with the project scheduler to update the project timeline after finding an unforeseen dependency on one of the critical project activities that will most likely cause a delay. The project scheduler is a person or a tool that helps plan, schedule, monitor, and control the project activities and resources. The project scheduler can help the project manager to assess the impact of the dependency on the project schedule and identify any possible ways to mitigate or resolve it. The project scheduler can also help to update the project timeline with the revised dates and durations of the project activities and communicate them to the relevant stakeholders.
During a status meeting, the development team reviews work and finds an unforeseen dependency on one of the critical project activities. As a result, the project will most likely be delayed.
Which of the following actions should the project manager MOST likely perform?
- A . Work with the project scheduler to update the project timeline.
- B . Communicate to the stakeholders about the updated timeline.
- C . Ask the development team to fast-track upcoming activities.
- D . Add two resources so the critical activities will finish on time.
A
Explanation:
Work with the project scheduler to update the project timeline. The project manager should work with the project scheduler to update the project timeline after finding an unforeseen dependency on one of the critical project activities that will most likely cause a delay. The project scheduler is a person or a tool that helps plan, schedule, monitor, and control the project activities and resources. The project scheduler can help the project manager to assess the impact of the dependency on the project schedule and identify any possible ways to mitigate or resolve it. The project scheduler can also help to update the project timeline with the revised dates and durations of the project activities and communicate them to the relevant stakeholders.
A PM received feedback from the project sponsor that the resources involved in the project are unsure of their daily activities.
Which of the following is the MOST effective step for the PM to take to ensure clarity within the team?
- A . Create a list of tasks and share it with the team.
- B . Resend the scope of work to the team.
- C . Review the Gantt chart weekly with the team.
- D . Have the project sponsor meet with the team.
C
Explanation:
Reviewing the Gantt chart weekly with the team would be the most effective step for the project manager to take to ensure clarity within the team after receiving feedback from the project sponsor that the resources involved in the project are unsure of their daily activities. A Gantt chart is a graphical tool that shows the schedule of a project, including the start and end dates, durations, dependencies, milestones, and progress of each task or activity. Reviewing the Gantt chart weekly with the team can help to clarify their roles and responsibilities, assign tasks and deadlines, track and report their status and performance, identify and resolve any issues or risks, and keep them aligned and engaged with the project goals.VVVVVVVVVVVVVV
A project manager has been informed that the delivery of required IT equipment will be delayed.
Which of the following is the FIRST step the project manager should take?
- A . Make an impact assessment.
- B . Prepare a new purchase order.
- C . Select a new vendor.
- D . Create a risk register.
A
Explanation:
The project manager should make an impact assessment after being informed that the delivery of required IT equipment will be delayed. An impact assessment is a process of analyzing and evaluating how a change or an issue may affect the scope, schedule, cost, quality, or risks of a project. An impact assessment can help to determine the severity and implications of the delay on the project objectives and deliverables and identify any possible alternatives or corrective actions to minimize or avoid its negative effects.
Which of the following BEST identifies the intent and purpose of a project closeout report?
- A . To provide documentation of lessons learned
- B . To document variances from the initial project baseline
- C . To validate that a project has been successfully completed
- D . To release resources and terminate all access rights
C
Explanation:
To validate that a project has been successfully completed. The intent and purpose of a project closeout report is to validate that a project has been successfully completed and to summarize the goals, objectives, and outcomes of the project, as well as the lessons learned and the feedback from stakeholders. A project closeout report is a document that is submitted at the end of a project to officially conclude it and release the resources and contracts involved. It is useful for evaluating the project’s success and improving the performance of future projects12
A PM is working with stakeholders in the discovery phase and comparing the cost of the project to the cost savings the project will produce when it is complete.
The output of this exercise will produce the:
- A . ROI.
- B . SOW.
- C . RFI.
- D . RPR
A
Explanation:
The output of this exercise where the project manager is comparing the cost of the project to the cost savings the project will produce when it is complete will produce the return on investment (ROI). ROI is a financial metric that measures the profitability or efficiency of an investment by comparing its benefits or returns to its costs. ROI can help to evaluate the value or worth of a project and support decision making and prioritization. ROI is calculated by dividing the net benefits (benefits minus costs) by the total costs and multiplying by 100 to get a percentage.
A project team has just experienced an unexpected event and implemented a work-around.
Which of the following documents should be used to record the event? (Select TWO).
- A . Risk report
- B . Defect log
- C . Issue log
- D . Backlog
- E . Change log
- F . Progress report
CE
Explanation:
Issue log and change log are documents that should be used to record the event where the project team has just experienced an unexpected event and implemented a work-around. An issue log is a document that tracks and records any issues or problems that arise during a project and how they are resolved. An issue log can help to monitor and control the project performance and quality and prevent any negative impacts on the project objectives and deliverables. A change log is a document that tracks and records any changes or modifications that are made to the project scope, schedule, cost, quality, or resources during a project. A change log can help to document the change request, approval, implementation, and impact of each change and ensure traceability and transparency.
A project implementation partner and the project manager disagree about completed requirements. The project manager shows the project requirements as 70% complete. The implementation partner validates that all requirements were completed.
Which of the following would clarify what the project implementation partner was contractually expected to complete?
- A . SOW
- B . RFI
- C . RFQ
- D . WBS
A
Explanation:
The statement of work (SOW) would clarify what the project implementation partner was contractually expected to complete after disagreeing with the project manager about completed requirements. A SOW is a document that defines the scope, deliverables, schedule, and terms and conditions of a project or contract. A SOW typically includes information such as purpose, scope of work, location of work, period of performance, deliverables schedule, applicable standards, acceptance criteria, special requirements, and payment schedule. A SOW can help to establish a common understanding and agreement between the client and the service provider on what needs to be done and how it will be done.
During the project initiation phase, a project team has been identified.
Which of the following is the NEXT step for the project manager?
- A . Determine budget constraints.
- B . Validate the business case.
- C . Update the project charter.
- D . Create a project schedule
C
Explanation:
Update the project charter. Updating the project charter would be the next step for the project manager after identifying the project team during the project initiation phase. A project charter is a document that formally authorizes a project and defines its purpose, scope, objectives, deliverables, milestones, roles and responsibilities, assumptions, constraints, risks, budget, and timeline. A project charter can help to align the expectations and interests of all stakeholders involved in a project and provide direction and guidance for planning and executing the project.
A key stakeholder recommends to a senior developer that a new feature be added. The new feature is not part of the current requirement documentation.
Which of the following is MOST likely happening?
- A . Scope creep
- B . Collecting requirements
- C . Decision-making
- D . Project change
A
Explanation:
Scope creep is most likely happening when a key stakeholder recommends to a senior developer that a new feature be added that is not part of the current requirement documentation. Scope creep is a term that refers to the uncontrolled expansion or change of a project’s scope beyond its original boundaries or objectives. Scope creep can happen due to various reasons, such as changing customer demands, unclear or incomplete requirements, poor communication, lack of change control, or stakeholder interference. Scope creep can have negative impacts on a project, such as delays, cost overruns, quality issues, or reduced customer satisfaction12
Which of the following BEST illustrates how team members with different roles should interact on the team?
- A . SOW
- B . WBS
- C . RACI
- D . PERT
C
Explanation:
RACI is a tool that best illustrates how team members with different roles should interact on the team. RACI is an acronym that stands for responsible, accountable, consulted, and informed. RACI is a type of responsibility assignment matrix (RAM) that defines and clarifies the roles and responsibilities of each team member for each task or activity in a project. RACI can help to improve communication, collaboration, and accountability among team members and avoid confusion, duplication, or conflicts3
For an upcoming project kickoff. a PM is looking for a way to illustrate roles for major project activities.
Which of the following would be the MOST useful option?
- A . Resource plan
- B . Organizational chart
- C . Project charter
- D . RACI chart
D
Explanation:
A RACI chart would be the most useful option for the project manager to illustrate roles for major project activities for an upcoming project kickoff. A RACI chart is a visual representation of a RACI matrix that shows who is responsible, accountable, consulted, and informed for each task or activity in a project using a table format. A RACI chart can help to communicate and document the roles and expectations of each team member and stakeholder for the project and ensure alignment and agreement.
Defects associated with project deliverables have been reported. The project team needs to find the cause of the defects.
Which of the following tools should the project team use to find the cause?
- A . Kanban board
- B . Pareto chart
- C . Ishikawa diagram
- D . Decision tree
C
Explanation:
An Ishikawa diagram is a tool that the project team should use to find the cause of the defects associated with project deliverables. An Ishikawa diagram, also known as a fishbone diagram or a cause-and-effect diagram, is a graphical tool that shows the possible causes of a problem or effect using a fishbone-like structure. An Ishikawa diagram can help to identify and analyze the root causes of defects or issues and find solutions to prevent or eliminate them.
A project manager needs to update the project sponsor and senior stakeholders about the progress of a project.
Which of the following tools will the project manager MOST likely use?
- A . Dashboard
- B . Gantt chart
- C . Work breakdown structure
- D . Requirements Traceability Matrix
A
Explanation:
A dashboard is a tool that the project manager will most likely use to update the project sponsor and senior stakeholders about the progress of a project. A dashboard is a graphical tool that displays key performance indicators (KPIs), metrics, and data related to a project using charts, graphs, tables, or other visual elements. A dashboard can help to provide a quick and easy overview of the project status and performance and highlight any issues or risks that need attention.
When creating a project schedule, a project manager adds activities with zero duration.
Which of the following describes these types of activities?
- A . Critical paths
- B . Resources
- C . Milestones
- D . Work breakdown structures
C
Explanation:
Milestones are activities with zero duration that are added to a project schedule by a project manager. Milestones are significant events or achievements in a project that mark the completion of a phase, deliverable, or task. Milestones can help to track and measure the progress and performance of a project and communicate it to stakeholders.
A project manager reports that the implementation of a new system is on track to be completed under budget and ahead of the schedule. A stakeholder then asks the manager to add mobile device functionality.
Which of the following should the project manager do in response to the request?
- A . Decline because it is not included in the project scope.
- B . Assess the impact of the request and create a change request
- C . Create new functional and non-functional requirements for mobile devices.
- D . Revise the baseline of the project plan by adding the new requirements.
B
Explanation:
Assess the impact of the request and create a change request. The project manager should assess the impact of the request and create a change request in response to the stakeholder asking to add mobile device functionality to a project that is on track to be completed under budget and ahead of schedule. A change request is a document that formally proposes and records a modification or addition to some aspect of a project, such as scope, schedule, cost, quality, or resources. A change request can help to communicate and justify the need and rationale for the change and its implications on the project objectives and deliverables. A change request also helps to initiate the change control process, which involves reviewing, approving, implementing, and monitoring the change12
During a code implementation, a senior developer and junior tester are discussing the testing scenarios that were performed. A major malfunction resulted in an inoperative product condition. As a result, the team was forced to work until midnight to restore operations.
Which of the following should the PM have generated FIRST to alleviate the impact of this issue prior to deployment?
- A . A risk budget
- B . A risk impact
- C . A change request
- D . A contingency plan
D
Explanation:
The project manager should have generated a contingency plan first to alleviate the impact of this issue prior to deployment where a major malfunction resulted in an inoperative product condition during a code implementation. A contingency plan is a plan that outlines alternative courses of action or strategies to deal with potential problems or risks that may occur during a project. A contingency plan can help to prevent or minimize the negative impacts of unforeseen events or issues on the project objectives and deliverables and ensure business continuity and stability.
During a brainstorming meeting, a project manager identifies multiple techniques that will help the project team ensure confidence and alignment with the project scope and goals.
Which of the following plans is the project manager creating?
- A . Procurement
- B . Communication
- C . Quality assurance
- D . Risk
C
Explanation:
The project manager is creating a quality assurance plan when identifying multiple techniques that will help the project team ensure confidence and alignment with the project scope and goals during a brainstorming meeting. A quality assurance plan is a plan that defines and documents the standards, criteria, methods, activities, and tools for ensuring and verifying that the quality requirements and expectations of a project are met. A quality assurance plan can help to improve the quality of the project processes and deliverables and prevent or reduce defects or errors.
A PM learns about some communication issues with different stakeholders and team members.
Which of the following should the PM do NEXT?
- A . Escalate the communication issues.
- B . Implement a communication platform.
- C . Review the communication plan.
- D . Talk with the head of the PMO.
C
Explanation:
The project manager should review the communication plan after learning about some communication issues with different stakeholders and team members. A communication plan is a document that defines and documents the communication goals, strategies, methods, channels, frequency, roles, and responsibilities for a project. A communication plan can help to facilitate effective and timely communication among all stakeholders involved in a project and avoid confusion, misunderstanding, or conflicts.
An organization was fined due to an audit finding that revealed a third-party vendor was able to see secured project information in a recently implemented system.
Which of the following was the cause of this situation?
- A . The ticket system provided access by default without any approval.
- B . The project manager did not perform proper project planning.
- C . The system is lacking proper access controls.
- D . Sensitive data was incorrectly classified during the audit process.
C
Explanation:
The system is lacking proper access controls if a third-party vendor was able to see secured project information in a recently implemented system that resulted in a fine for the organization. Access controls are security mechanisms that regulate who or what can view, use, or modify data or resources in a system or network. Access controls typically involve authentication and authorization processes that verify the identity and permissions of users or devices before granting them access. Access controls can help to protect data confidentiality, integrity, and availability and prevent unauthorized access, misuse, or theft12
An institution wants to implement software solutions to help manage the internal flow for formally responding in writing to citizens’ complaints.
Which of the following solutions would be BEST?
- A . Enterprise resource planning and end user applications
- B . Electronic document and record management systems
- C . Customer relationship management and databases
- D . Content management and financial systems
B
Explanation:
Electronic document and record management systems would be the best software solutions to help an institution manage the internal flow for formally responding in writing to citizens’ complaints. Electronic document and record management systems are software systems that help organizations create, store, organize, manage, track, and distribute electronic documents and records. Electronic document and record management systems can help to improve efficiency, productivity, collaboration, compliance, and security of document and record management processes and workflows3
A system was implemented, and testing was successfully completed.
Which of the following should the project manager do NEXT?
- A . Validate against the scope statement and ask for sign-off.
- B . Run a control chart to ensure the quality of the deliverables.
- C . Review the risk register and close up residual risks.
- D . Start the training and handoff for the operations team.
A
Explanation:
The project manager should validate against the scope statement and ask for sign-off after a system was implemented and testing was successfully completed. The scope statement is a document that defines and documents the project scope, objectives, deliverables, requirements, assumptions, and constraints. The scope statement can help to establish a common understanding and agreement between the project manager and the stakeholders on what the project aims to achieve and deliver. Validating against the scope statement means checking whether the project deliverables meet the agreed-upon scope criteria and quality standards. Asking for sign-off means requesting formal acceptance and approval of the project deliverables from the stakeholders.
Which of the following is a test that is done on an existing system to ensure the previous functionality still works after a change has been made?
- A . Smoke testing
- B . Regression testing
- C . Unit testing
- D . User acceptance testing
B
Explanation:
Regression testing is a type of testing that is done on an existing system to ensure that the previous functionality still works after a change has been made. Regression testing is a process of retesting or verifying that a software system or application still performs as expected after it has been modified or updated with new features, bug fixes, patches, etc. Regression testing can help to detect any errors or defects that may have been introduced by the change and ensure that no functionality has been broken or degraded.
To gather requirements from stakeholders, the project manager sits down with them and allows them to discuss freely.
Which a following technique is the project manager utilizing?
- A . Process moving
- B . Brainstorming
- C . Interview
- D . Focus group
D
Explanation:
A focus group is a technique that involves bringing together a group of stakeholders and facilitating a discussion to elicit their opinions, needs, and expectations about the project. This technique can help to gather requirements from stakeholders in an interactive and collaborative way1, p. 67
Which of the following communication tools would a project manager use to broadcast information without being assured the information will be received?
- A . Telephone
- B . Videoconference
- C . Face-to-face
- D . Email
D
Explanation:
Email is a communication tool that allows the project manager to send information to one or more recipients without requiring immediate feedback or confirmation of receipt. Email can be used to broadcast information that is not urgent or critical, such as status updates, meeting minutes, or general announcements1, p. 75
Several stakeholders have declined the invitation for the kickoff of a major digital transformation protect.
Which of the following actions should the project manager take NEXT?
- A . Escalate directly to the project sponsor
- B . Push the kickoff meeting out by one week
- C . Proceed with the kickoff as planned
- D . Identity replacements for project stakeholders
A
Explanation:
The project sponsor is the person who provides the authority, funding, and support for the project. The project sponsor can also help to influence and engage the key stakeholders who are essential for the success of the project. If several stakeholders have declined the invitation for the kickoff meeting, which is an important event to establish the vision, scope, and expectations of the project, the project manager should escalate this issue to the project sponsor and seek their assistance to ensure the participation of the stakeholders1, p. 47
A development team, which is working on a software project demonstrates software functionality 10 project stakeholder a week before the implementation date. Several stakeholders comment that the software does not meet the communicated expectations.
Which of the following tools should the project manager use to validate the functionality?
- A . Project status report
- B . Requirements Traceability Matrix
- C . Detect log
- D . Signed project charter
- E . Work breakdown structure
A
Explanation:
A PM is working on a strategy to store records.
Which of the following dements must be included in this plan? (Select TWO)
- A . Data management
- B . Issue management
- C . Work breakdown structure
- D . Document management
- E . Communication management
- F . Risk management
AD
Explanation:
A strategy to store records must include data management and document management as two essential elements. Data management is the process of ensuring that the data collected, stored, and used by the project is accurate, complete, consistent, secure, and accessible. Data management helps to maintain the quality and integrity of the project data and supports the analysis and reporting of the project outcomes1, p. 4
Document management is the process of creating, organizing, storing, retrieving, and disposing of project documents in a systematic and controlled way. Document management helps to ensure that the project documents are available, reliable, usable, and authentic throughout the project life cycle and beyond. Document management also helps to comply with the legal, regulatory, and organizational requirements for records retention and disposition2, p. 3
Two project team members are assigned to set up new work areas and are disagreeing about the placement of hardware and peripherals at the end users’ desks. The requirements do not specify where to place the items, just what is needed in each space.
Which of the following should the project manager do to resolve the conflict?
- A . Send out a survey to the potential end users to gather information about the best functional setup for work productivity.
- B . Provide clear instructions based on personal preference and aesthetics for setup of the work areas.
- C . Explain to team members that the placement of the items is not too important, as long as everything is connected and working.
- D . Facilitate a meeting between team members to review the pros and cons of the different configurations so as to encourage an amicable solution.
D
Explanation:
This answer is based on the best practice of conflict resolution in project management, which is to use a collaborative or problem-solving approach that seeks a win-win outcome for all parties involved12. By facilitating a meeting, the project manager can help the team members communicate effectively, understand each other’s perspectives, and find a mutually acceptable solution that meets the project requirements. This way, the project manager can also maintain team morale and cohesion, and avoid imposing a decision that may cause resentment or dissatisfaction among the team members3.
Reference = CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide4, CompTIA Project+ Certification Exam Objectives5, How Do You Handle Conflict in Project Management?1, 7 Strategies for Conflict Resolution in Project Management2, The Conflict Resolution Skills Every Project Manager Needs3
Given the following velocity chart:
Which of the following updates on the project status should the Scrum master provide to the senior management team?
- A . The project utilized all of its available reserve.
- B . The project has scope creep.
- C . The project deviated from the critical path.
- D . The project is trending ahead of schedule.
D
Explanation:
A velocity chart is a tool used in agile project management to track the progress and performance of a project team over time. It shows the number of features or user stories completed in each iteration or sprint. The planned timeline line represents the expected or ideal velocity, while the actual effort line shows the actual or achieved velocity. By comparing the two lines, the Scrum master can identify any gaps, trends, or issues in the project delivery.
Based on the image, the most likely update that the Scrum master can provide to the senior management team is D. The project is trending ahead of schedule. This is because the actual effort line is above the planned timeline line for most of the time, indicating that the project team is completing more features than expected in each sprint. This means that the project is ahead of schedule and has a positive velocity variance.
A risk management team for a software project decided to outsource the development of a specific portion of a system due to a lack of internal resources.
Which of the following risk responses does this demonstrate?
- A . Avoid
- B . Transfer
- C . Accept
- D . Share
B
Explanation:
Outsourcing the development of a system component due to a lack of internal resources is a risk response strategy known as ‘transfer.’ This approach shifts the risk to a third party who will now be responsible for managing that portion of the project. It is commonly used when an organization does not have the expertise or capacity to handle specific risks internally.
Reference = The answer is based on standard project management practices and the typical use of risk response strategies in the field. For detailed information, please refer to the CompTIA Project+ Study Guide and other official CompTIA resources.
During a kickoff call, a project was rejected by the legal department due to the risk of violating new legislation.
Which of the following was applied?
- A . Awareness of the local environment
- B . Awareness of the brand value
- C . Awareness of the resource constraints
- D . Awareness of the company’s mission
A
Explanation:
Awareness of the local environment refers to the understanding of the external factors that may affect the project, such as legal, regulatory, social, cultural, economic, and environmental aspects1. In this case, the legal department applied this awareness to identify the potential risk of violating new legislation and rejected the project accordingly. This shows that the legal department was concerned about the compliance and reputation of the organization and the project in the local context.
Reference = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 1: Project Management Concepts, page 17; Incorporating environmentalism into project management, Abstract and Definition of Terms sections.
During the execution phase of a project, the project team faced an unexpected website downtime The project manager how a brainstorming session and the team identified causes and effects tor the problem Now the project team needs to analyze and determine whether the particular cause and effect are related by using one of the following charts.
Which of the following should the team use?
A)
B)
C)
D)
- A . Option A
- B . Option B
- C . Option C
- D . Option D
A
Explanation:
Option A shows a cause and effect diagram, also known as a fishbone diagram or an Ishikawa diagram1. This is a tool that helps to identify and analyze the root causes of a problem by displaying the possible causes and effects in a graphical format2. A cause and effect diagram can help the project team to determine whether the particular cause and effect are related by using a systematic and logical approach, such as asking “why” questions or using the 5 Whys technique34.
A cause and effect diagram is better than the other options because:
Option B shows a Gantt chart, which is a tool that helps to plan and track the tasks, dependencies, durations, and resources of a project along a timeline5. A Gantt chart does not focus on the causes and effects of a problem, but rather on the sequence and progress of the project activities.
Option C shows a pie chart, which is a tool that helps to compare and visualize the proportions of different categories or segments of data6. A pie chart does not show the relationships between the causes and effects of a problem, but rather the distribution of the data values.
Option D shows a scatter plot, which is a tool that helps to examine the correlation or association between two variables or sets of data7. A scatter plot does not show the causes and effects of a problem, but rather the pattern or trend of the data points.
Reference = CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide8, CompTIA Project+ Certification Exam Objectives9, Cause and Effect Diagrams for PMP1, Cause and Effect Analysis: Using Fishbone Diagram and 5 Whys2, How to Create a Cause and Effect Diagram3, How to Use Cause and Effect Analysis to Solve Business Problems4, What is a Gantt Chart?5, What is a Pie Chart?6, What is a Scatter Plot?7
A project manager queries stakeholders to identify the right communication channel to be used during the project life cycle. After reviewing the responses, the project manager reports that 70% of the stakeholders prefer email communication, and the rest prefer face-to-face communication.
The project manager should update the stakeholder register with:
- A . the preferred sponsor’s communication channel.
- B . the preferred project manager’s communication channel.
- C . the preferred reported communication channel.
- D . email communication as the preferred communication channel.
C
Explanation:
This answer is based on the best practice of stakeholder management, which is to identify and document the communication preferences of each stakeholder or stakeholder group12. The project manager should update the stakeholder register with the information gathered from the stakeholder analysis, which includes the preferred communication channel for each stakeholder3. The preferred reported communication channel reflects the majority preference of the stakeholders, as well as the minority preference of the face-to-face communicators. The project manager should use this information to plan and execute effective communication throughout the project life cycle4.
Reference = CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide5, CompTIA Project+ Certification Exam Objectives6, Stakeholder Register in Project Management1, What is a Stakeholder Register?2, How to Develop a Stakeholder Register3
A project manager is coordinating multiple teams of six people that will each provide feedback for a new product. The teams are recording their opinions, which may be used to define the final product that is sent to mass production.
Which of the following best describes this technique?
- A . Demonstration
- B . Workshop
- C . Brainstorming
- D . Focus group
D
Explanation:
A focus group is a technique that involves gathering a group of people who share some characteristics or interests related to a product, service, or issue, and asking them for their opinions, perceptions, or feedback. The project manager acts as a moderator or facilitator who guides the discussion and records the results. A focus group can help to collect information from a representative sample of the target population, explore ideas, identify needs and preferences, and support the completion of larger projects.
The other options are not correct because:
A demonstration is a technique that involves showing the features or capabilities of a product, service, or process to the stakeholders or customers, usually in a live or simulated environment. A demonstration can help to validate the requirements, obtain feedback, and verify the functionality of a deliverable.
A workshop is a technique that involves bringing together a group of stakeholders or experts to work on a specific topic, problem, or issue, usually in a structured and facilitated way. A workshop can help to define the scope, plan the activities, identify the risks, resolve the conflicts, and generate the solutions of a project.
Brainstorming is a technique that involves generating a large number of ideas or alternatives for a problem or opportunity, usually in a creative and spontaneous way. Brainstorming can help to enhance the creativity, diversity, and quality of the ideas, and encourage the participation and
collaboration of the team members.
Reference = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 6: Planning Projects, Part 2 (Scope, Quality, and Risk), page 191; CompTIA Project+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 2: Project Planning, Objective 2.1: Given a scenario, create a project charter and project management plan.
A project manager identifies stakeholders who will be impacted when a new product is delivered to the company. The project manager notices that more stakeholders will be positively impacted than negatively impacted.
Which of the following actions should the project manager take?
- A . List both positively and negatively impacted stakeholders.
- B . Update the communication plan with the new findings.
- C . List the negatively impacted stakeholders only.
- D . List the positively impacted stakeholders only.
B
Explanation:
When a project manager identifies stakeholders who will be impacted by the delivery of a new product, it is important to update the communication plan to reflect these findings. This ensures that all stakeholders are informed about the project’s progress and how it may affect them, fostering transparency and managing expectations.
Reference = The answer is based on standard project management practices and the typical use of communication plans in stakeholder management. For detailed information, please refer to the CompTIA Project+ Study Guide and other official CompTIA resources.
A project manager, who finished a project some time ago, keeps receiving questions from another project manager who is currently leading a similar project.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of this situation?
- A . The retrospective session feedback was not communicated properly.
- B . The project resources were released ahead of time.
- C . The documentation was not archived as per the PMO standards.
- D . The validation of deliverables is running behind schedule.
C
Explanation:
Archiving project documentation is an important process to ensure that the project information is stored, retrieved, and updated in a consistent and efficient manner1. It also helps to meet legal requirements, enable long-term analysis, and support new projects and team members1. If the documentation was not archived as per the PMO standards, it would be difficult for the current project manager to find the relevant documents and learn from the previous project. This would cause the current project manager to keep asking questions to the previous project manager, who may not have all the answers or may not be available. Therefore, the most likely cause of this situation is that the documentation was not archived as per the PMO standards.
Reference = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 14: Closing the Project, page 403; How to Archive a Completed Project: A Guide for PMOs, Introduction and Benefits sections.
A PM is working on the preliminary scope statement and identifies that this project has the same approach as another project that was completed last year.
Which of the following actions would the PM most likely perform?
- A . Call the previous PM for advice on risks and issues.
- B . Ask the project sponsor to provide previous final project report results.
- C . Complete the project charter using the other PM’s subject matter expertise.
- D . Use existing artifacts and accommodate based on the current project success criteria.
D
Explanation:
This answer is based on the best practice of using historical information and lessons learned from previous projects to improve the planning and execution of current projects12. By using existing artifacts, such as scope statements, project plans, risk registers, and change logs, the PM can leverage the knowledge and experience of the previous PM and avoid repeating the same mistakes or oversights. However, the PM should also accommodate the artifacts based on the current project success criteria, which may differ from the previous project in terms of scope, schedule, budget, quality, or stakeholder expectations34. The PM should not rely solely on the previous PM’s advice, the project sponsor’s report, or the project charter, as these sources may not provide enough detail or accuracy for the current project’s scope statement.
Reference = CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide5, CompTIA Project+ Certification Exam Objectives6, How to Use Historical Information in Project Management1, How to Use Lessons Learned to Improve Project Management2, How to Define Project Success Criteria3, How to Use Existing Artifacts in Project Management4
A project manager has decided to outsource portions of a project and will conduct a separate procurement. In which of the following phases does this task occur?
- A . Planning
- B . Initiating
- C . Controlling
- D . Executing
A
Explanation:
This answer is based on the understanding that outsourcing is a form of procurement, which is one of the knowledge areas in project management. Procurement involves acquiring goods and services from external sources to support the project objectives. According to the CompTIA Project+ Study Guide1, procurement activities occur mainly in the planning phase of the project, where the project manager identifies the project needs, defines the scope of work, evaluates the potential vendors, and prepares the procurement documents.
The other options are not correct because:
Initiating is the phase where the project manager defines the project purpose, objectives, and deliverables, and obtains the project charter and stakeholder approval. Initiating does not involve procurement activities, although it may involve some preliminary research on the feasibility and availability of external resources.
Controlling is the phase where the project manager monitors and measures the project performance, compares it with the baseline, and implements corrective actions if needed. Controlling does involve some procurement activities, such as reviewing the vendor deliverables, managing the changes, and resolving the issues, but these are not the main tasks of procurement.
Executing is the phase where the project manager leads and directs the project team and other resources to complete the project work according to the plan. Executing does involve some procurement activities, such as selecting the vendor, signing the contract, and managing the relationship, but these are not the main tasks of procurement.
Reference = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 8: Planning Projects, Part 4 (Procurement and Communication), pages 243-260; CompTIA Project+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 2: Project Planning, Objective 2.5: Given a scenario, plan procurement for a project.
Which of the following can a project manager infer from the following velocity chart?
- A . The project is on schedule.
- B . The project Is ahead of schedule.
- C . The project is behind schedule.
- D . The project is at risk.
C
Explanation:
The velocity chart typically shows the amount of work completed over time. If the “Actual Effort” line is below the “Planned Timeline,” it indicates that the project is not progressing as fast as planned, hence it is behind schedule. This is inferred by comparing the actual work completed against what was scheduled.
Reference = The answer is based on standard project management practices and the typical interpretation of velocity charts in project management. For detailed information, please refer to the CompTIA Project+ Study Guide and other official CompTIA resources.
During an agile project, a team member checked the project artifacts in order to anticipate when all the work should have been completed.
Which of the following charts was the team member most likely consulting?
- A . Pareto chart
- B . Milestone chart
- C . Burndown chart
- D . Gantt chart
C
Explanation:
A burndown chart is a visual representation of the remaining work versus the time required to complete it1. It is commonly used by agile teams to track the progress of each iteration or sprint and to forecast the project completion date2. A burndown chart shows the ideal work remaining line and the actual work remaining line, which can help the team identify any deviations or impediments and adjust accordingly1. A burndown chart is different from a Pareto chart, which shows the frequency of different causes of problems; a milestone chart, which shows the key events and deliverables of a project; and a Gantt chart, which shows the dependencies and durations of tasks in a project3.
Reference = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 6: Planning Projects Part 2, page 173; Burndown Chart: What Is It & How to Use One for Agile – ProjectManager, Introduction and Components of a Burndown Chart sections; Burndown Chart: What it is, How to Use it, Example [2023] • Asana, Introduction and What is a burndown chart? sections.
A project coordinator has started a new project and is reviewing the following characteristics provided by the customer:
• Two developers
• High uncertainty about existing systems
• Risk of frequent requirement changes
• Tight deadlines
Which of the following project methodologies would be best to use in this situation?
- A . PRINCE2
- B . Scrum
- C . SAFe
- D . XP
B
Explanation:
This answer is based on the best practice of choosing a project management methodology that suits the project characteristics and environment12. Scrum is an agile framework that is designed to handle complex and uncertain projects with frequent changes and tight deadlines34. Scrum involves a small, cross-functional team that works in short iterations called sprints, delivering incremental and potentially shippable products at the end of each sprint5. Scrum also allows for continuous feedback and improvement through daily stand-up meetings, sprint reviews, and retrospectives6. Scrum is suitable for this project because it can accommodate the high uncertainty, the risk of requirement changes, and the tight deadlines, while also enabling the two developers to collaborate effectively and deliver value to the customer.
Reference = CompTIA Project+ Certification
Study Guide7, CompTIA Project+ Certification Exam Objectives8, Project Management
Methodologies Comparison (11 PM Methods)6, Project Management Methodologies: 12 Best
Frameworks [2023]7, What is Scrum?5, Scrum Methodology: The Ultimate Guide6