Question #1
A PM has identified all the resources involved in a project. The next step is to identify which resources are responsible for which tasks.
Which of the following should be used to document this information?
- A . RFI
- B . RACI
- C . WBS
- D . SOW
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
The RACI (Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Informed) matrix is used to document which resources are responsible for which tasks. The RACI matrix is a tool that helps to clarify roles and responsibilities on a project. It assigns a level of responsibility to each resource involved in the project.
Reference: CompTIA Project+ Study Guide Section 3.4.
The project manager should use a RACI matrix to document which resources are responsible for which tasks. A RACI matrix is a type of responsibility assignment matrix (RAM) that plots the roles and responsibilities of resources on a project team. RACI stands for Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, and Informed. A RACI matrix can help to clarify who does what on a project, avoid confusion and duplication of work, and improve communication and collaboration among team members.
B
Explanation:
The RACI (Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Informed) matrix is used to document which resources are responsible for which tasks. The RACI matrix is a tool that helps to clarify roles and responsibilities on a project. It assigns a level of responsibility to each resource involved in the project.
Reference: CompTIA Project+ Study Guide Section 3.4.
The project manager should use a RACI matrix to document which resources are responsible for which tasks. A RACI matrix is a type of responsibility assignment matrix (RAM) that plots the roles and responsibilities of resources on a project team. RACI stands for Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, and Informed. A RACI matrix can help to clarify who does what on a project, avoid confusion and duplication of work, and improve communication and collaboration among team members.
Question #2
A development team, which is working on a software project demonstrates software functionality 10 project stakeholder a week before the implementation date. Several stakeholders comment that the software does not meet the communicated expectations.
Which of the following tools should the project manager use to validate the functionality?
- A . Project status report
- B . Requirements Traceability Matrix
- C . Detect log
- D . Signed project charter
- E . Work breakdown structure
Correct Answer: A
Question #3
When introducing a new information asset, what is the MOST important responsibility of the asset owner?
- A . Information disposal
- B . Information classification
- C . Information access administration
- D . Information backup
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
The most important responsibility of an asset owner when introducing a new information asset is information classification. This process involves determining the level of sensitivity and the appropriate handling of the asset. Classification helps in applying the right security controls and access permissions, ensuring that the asset is protected according to its value and sensitivity.
Reference = CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide (PK0-005)
B
Explanation:
The most important responsibility of an asset owner when introducing a new information asset is information classification. This process involves determining the level of sensitivity and the appropriate handling of the asset. Classification helps in applying the right security controls and access permissions, ensuring that the asset is protected according to its value and sensitivity.
Reference = CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide (PK0-005)
Question #4
A global shipping slowdown is causing critical raw materials needed for manufacturing to be delivered late. As a result, a project’s production run will be delayed from the beginning.
Which of the following dependencies is most likely happening?
- A . Finish-to-start
- B . Start-to-start
- C . Finish-to-finish
- D . Start-to-finish
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
A Finish-to-Start dependency implies that a subsequent activity cannot start until a previous one finishes. In this scenario, the manufacturing process (subsequent activity) cannot begin until the critical raw materials (previous activity) have been delivered. This type of dependency is the most common in project schedules and is likely being affected by the global shipping slowdown, causing delays in the start of the project’s production run.
A
Explanation:
A Finish-to-Start dependency implies that a subsequent activity cannot start until a previous one finishes. In this scenario, the manufacturing process (subsequent activity) cannot begin until the critical raw materials (previous activity) have been delivered. This type of dependency is the most common in project schedules and is likely being affected by the global shipping slowdown, causing delays in the start of the project’s production run.
Question #5
A project manager is monitoring team performance by comparing committed versus completed work.
The project manager creates the following:
Which of the following most likely represents the number of items in the backlog?
- A . 23
- B . 5
- C . 10
- D . 15
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
The number of items in the backlog can be determined by looking at the "Commitment" column for each sprint in the provided chart. For Sprint 5, there is a commitment of completing 23 items, which is the highest among all sprints. This indicates that there are at least 23 items in the backlog to be worked on. This is consistent with the concept of agile project management, which allows for changes and additions to the project scope based on customer feedback and changing requirements.
Reference = CompTIA Project+ PK0-005 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 14: Agile Project Management, page 321. CompTIA Project+ Cert Guide: Exam PK0-004, Chapter 9: Agile Project Management, page 287
A
Explanation:
The number of items in the backlog can be determined by looking at the "Commitment" column for each sprint in the provided chart. For Sprint 5, there is a commitment of completing 23 items, which is the highest among all sprints. This indicates that there are at least 23 items in the backlog to be worked on. This is consistent with the concept of agile project management, which allows for changes and additions to the project scope based on customer feedback and changing requirements.
Reference = CompTIA Project+ PK0-005 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 14: Agile Project Management, page 321. CompTIA Project+ Cert Guide: Exam PK0-004, Chapter 9: Agile Project Management, page 287
Question #6
A project team is working on a document to precisely describe the success criteria that should be fulfilled by a product.
Which of the following documents is the team preparing?
- A . Project scope
- B . Quality plan
- C . Contract obligations
- D . Work breakdown structure
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
The project scope is the document that defines and describes the project objectives, deliverables, requirements, boundaries, assumptions, and constraints. It also includes the success criteria that should be fulfilled by the product or service to meet the stakeholder expectations and the business case. The success criteria are the measurable standards that indicate whether the project has achieved its intended results. The other options are not correct because:
A quality plan is the document that defines and describes the quality standards, policies, procedures, tools, and techniques that will be applied to the project to ensure that the deliverables meet the requirements and the success criteria.
Contract obligations are the terms and conditions that bind the parties involved in a contractual agreement, such as the project manager, the customer, the sponsor, and the vendor. Contract obligations specify the roles, responsibilities, deliverables, payments, and penalties of each party. A work breakdown structure (WBS) is a graphical representation of the project scope that breaks down the deliverables into smaller and manageable components. A WBS shows the hierarchy and relationship of the project elements, but does not include the success criteria.
Reference = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 6: Planning Projects, Part 2 (Scope, Quality, and Risk), pages 175-179; CompTIA Project+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 2: Project Planning, Objective 2.1: Given a scenario, create a project charter and project management plan.
A
Explanation:
The project scope is the document that defines and describes the project objectives, deliverables, requirements, boundaries, assumptions, and constraints. It also includes the success criteria that should be fulfilled by the product or service to meet the stakeholder expectations and the business case. The success criteria are the measurable standards that indicate whether the project has achieved its intended results. The other options are not correct because:
A quality plan is the document that defines and describes the quality standards, policies, procedures, tools, and techniques that will be applied to the project to ensure that the deliverables meet the requirements and the success criteria.
Contract obligations are the terms and conditions that bind the parties involved in a contractual agreement, such as the project manager, the customer, the sponsor, and the vendor. Contract obligations specify the roles, responsibilities, deliverables, payments, and penalties of each party. A work breakdown structure (WBS) is a graphical representation of the project scope that breaks down the deliverables into smaller and manageable components. A WBS shows the hierarchy and relationship of the project elements, but does not include the success criteria.
Reference = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 6: Planning Projects, Part 2 (Scope, Quality, and Risk), pages 175-179; CompTIA Project+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 2: Project Planning, Objective 2.1: Given a scenario, create a project charter and project management plan.
Question #7
A key stakeholder recommends to a senior developer that a new feature be added. The new feature is not part of the current requirement documentation.
Which of the following is MOST likely happening?
- A . Scope creep
- B . Collecting requirements
- C . Decision-making
- D . Project change
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
Scope creep is most likely happening when a key stakeholder recommends to a senior developer that a new feature be added that is not part of the current requirement documentation. Scope creep is a term that refers to the uncontrolled expansion or change of a project’s scope beyond its original boundaries or objectives. Scope creep can happen due to various reasons, such as changing customer demands, unclear or incomplete requirements, poor communication, lack of change control, or stakeholder interference. Scope creep can have negative impacts on a project, such as delays, cost overruns, quality issues, or reduced customer satisfaction12
A
Explanation:
Scope creep is most likely happening when a key stakeholder recommends to a senior developer that a new feature be added that is not part of the current requirement documentation. Scope creep is a term that refers to the uncontrolled expansion or change of a project’s scope beyond its original boundaries or objectives. Scope creep can happen due to various reasons, such as changing customer demands, unclear or incomplete requirements, poor communication, lack of change control, or stakeholder interference. Scope creep can have negative impacts on a project, such as delays, cost overruns, quality issues, or reduced customer satisfaction12
Question #8
A financial manager reports that several employees’ allocations from the past month appear to be 200% even though they are only assigned to a particular project.
Which of the following could MOST likely be the cause of this issue?
- A . A project manager assigned the wrong resources.
- B . A project manager did not release the resources
- C . A project manager did not remove the system access.
- D . A project manager did not provide the project sign-off.
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
A project manager did not release the resources. A project manager not releasing the resources could most likely be the cause of this issue where several employees’ allocations from the past month appear to be 200% even though they are only assigned to a particular project. Releasing resources is a process of freeing up or reallocating any human or material resources that were used for a project after its completion or closure. Releasing resources can help to update the resource availability and utilization records and avoid any conflicts or errors in resource allocation or reporting.
B
Explanation:
A project manager did not release the resources. A project manager not releasing the resources could most likely be the cause of this issue where several employees’ allocations from the past month appear to be 200% even though they are only assigned to a particular project. Releasing resources is a process of freeing up or reallocating any human or material resources that were used for a project after its completion or closure. Releasing resources can help to update the resource availability and utilization records and avoid any conflicts or errors in resource allocation or reporting.
Question #9
During quality analysis, different team members are identifying multiple constraints.
Which of
the following tools should the project manager adopt first to help track and prioritize a resolution?
- A . Issue log
- B . Defect log
- C . Risk register
- D . Change log
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
An issue log is a tool that records and tracks any issues that arise during the project. It helps the project manager to identify, prioritize, assign, monitor, and resolve the issues in a timely manner. An issue log can also include information such as the issue description, impact, status, owner, and resolution date1. An issue log is different from a defect log, which records and tracks the defects or errors in the project deliverables. A risk register is a tool that records and tracks the potential risks that may affect the project objectives. A change log is a tool that records and tracks the changes that are made to the project scope, schedule, budget, or quality2.
A
Explanation:
An issue log is a tool that records and tracks any issues that arise during the project. It helps the project manager to identify, prioritize, assign, monitor, and resolve the issues in a timely manner. An issue log can also include information such as the issue description, impact, status, owner, and resolution date1. An issue log is different from a defect log, which records and tracks the defects or errors in the project deliverables. A risk register is a tool that records and tracks the potential risks that may affect the project objectives. A change log is a tool that records and tracks the changes that are made to the project scope, schedule, budget, or quality2.
Question #10
A project manager wants to schedule a troubleshooting session for team members who are located in Germany and California.
Which of the following is most important for the project manager to consider when setting up the session?
- A . Cultural differences
- B . Technological factors
- C . Time zones
- D . Language barriers
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
Time zones are the most important factor to consider when setting up a troubleshooting session for team members who are located in different regions of the world. The project manager should ensure that the session is scheduled at a convenient and reasonable time for all participants, and avoid scheduling conflicts or communication delays. Time zones can also affect the availability and responsiveness of stakeholders, vendors, and customers1.
C
Explanation:
Time zones are the most important factor to consider when setting up a troubleshooting session for team members who are located in different regions of the world. The project manager should ensure that the session is scheduled at a convenient and reasonable time for all participants, and avoid scheduling conflicts or communication delays. Time zones can also affect the availability and responsiveness of stakeholders, vendors, and customers1.
Question #11
A project manager is assigned an initiative in a highly regulated industry that requires employees to safeguard certain pieces of PII.
Which of the following is the best approach for the project manager to keep the information confidential?
- A . Encryption
- B . Multifactor authentication
- C . Quality assurance
- D . Password protection
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
Encryption is the process of transforming data into an unreadable format that can only be accessed by authorized parties who have the decryption key. Encryption is the best approach for the project manager to keep the PII confidential, as it protects the data from unauthorized access during storage and transmission12.
A
Explanation:
Encryption is the process of transforming data into an unreadable format that can only be accessed by authorized parties who have the decryption key. Encryption is the best approach for the project manager to keep the PII confidential, as it protects the data from unauthorized access during storage and transmission12.
Question #12
A project manager identifies stakeholders who will be impacted when a new product is delivered to the company. The project manager notices that more stakeholders will be positively impacted than negatively impacted.
Which of the following actions should the project manager take?
- A . List both positively and negatively impacted stakeholders.
- B . Update the communication plan with the new findings.
- C . List the negatively impacted stakeholders only.
- D . List the positively impacted stakeholders only.
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
When a project manager identifies stakeholders who will be impacted by the delivery of a new product, it is important to update the communication plan to reflect these findings. This ensures that all stakeholders are informed about the project’s progress and how it may affect them, fostering transparency and managing expectations.
Reference = The answer is based on standard project management practices and the typical use of communication plans in stakeholder management. For detailed information, please refer to the CompTIA Project+ Study Guide and other official CompTIA resources.
B
Explanation:
When a project manager identifies stakeholders who will be impacted by the delivery of a new product, it is important to update the communication plan to reflect these findings. This ensures that all stakeholders are informed about the project’s progress and how it may affect them, fostering transparency and managing expectations.
Reference = The answer is based on standard project management practices and the typical use of communication plans in stakeholder management. For detailed information, please refer to the CompTIA Project+ Study Guide and other official CompTIA resources.
Question #13
By developing a project schedule, a PM has already validated the constraints, outlined the duration of the tasks and the phases, and confirmed the proper sequence and flow of the project.
Which of the following activities still needs to be performed to complete the schedule?
- A . Allocate resources.
- B . Determine the project budget
- C . Develop a communication plan.
- D . Establish baselines.
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
The next step after defining tasks, durations, resources, and costs is to establish baselines. A baseline is an approved version of a project plan that serves as a reference point for measuring progress and performance throughout the project lifecycle. A baseline typically includes scope, schedule, cost, quality, and risk parameters. Establishing baselines involves presenting the project plan to key stakeholders and obtaining their formal agreement on the project objectives and deliverables. Baseline approval can help to establish clear expectations, avoid scope creep, and facilitate change control during project execution34
D
Explanation:
The next step after defining tasks, durations, resources, and costs is to establish baselines. A baseline is an approved version of a project plan that serves as a reference point for measuring progress and performance throughout the project lifecycle. A baseline typically includes scope, schedule, cost, quality, and risk parameters. Establishing baselines involves presenting the project plan to key stakeholders and obtaining their formal agreement on the project objectives and deliverables. Baseline approval can help to establish clear expectations, avoid scope creep, and facilitate change control during project execution34
Question #14
An organization was fined due to an audit finding that revealed a third-party vendor was able to see secured project information in a recently implemented system.
Which of the following was the cause of this situation?
- A . The ticket system provided access by default without any approval.
- B . The project manager did not perform proper project planning.
- C . The system is lacking proper access controls.
- D . Sensitive data was incorrectly classified during the audit process.
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
The system is lacking proper access controls if a third-party vendor was able to see secured project information in a recently implemented system that resulted in a fine for the organization. Access controls are security mechanisms that regulate who or what can view, use, or modify data or resources in a system or network. Access controls typically involve authentication and authorization processes that verify the identity and permissions of users or devices before granting them access. Access controls can help to protect data confidentiality, integrity, and availability and prevent unauthorized access, misuse, or theft12
C
Explanation:
The system is lacking proper access controls if a third-party vendor was able to see secured project information in a recently implemented system that resulted in a fine for the organization. Access controls are security mechanisms that regulate who or what can view, use, or modify data or resources in a system or network. Access controls typically involve authentication and authorization processes that verify the identity and permissions of users or devices before granting them access. Access controls can help to protect data confidentiality, integrity, and availability and prevent unauthorized access, misuse, or theft12
Question #15
A PM is working on the preliminary scope statement and identifies that this project has the
same approach as another project that was completed last year.
Which of the following actions would the PM most likely perform?
- A . Call the previous PM for advice on risks and issues.
- B . Ask the project sponsor to provide previous final project report results.
- C . Complete the project charter using the other PM’s subject matter expertise.
- D . Use existing artifacts and accommodate based on the current project success criteria.
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
This answer is based on the best practice of using historical information and lessons learned from previous projects to improve the planning and execution of current projects12. By using existing artifacts, such as scope statements, project plans, risk registers, and change logs, the PM can leverage the knowledge and experience of the previous PM and avoid repeating the same mistakes or oversights. However, the PM should also accommodate the artifacts based on the current project success criteria, which may differ from the previous project in terms of scope, schedule, budget, quality, or stakeholder expectations34. The PM should not rely solely on the previous PM’s advice, the project sponsor’s report, or the project charter, as these sources may not provide enough detail or accuracy for the current project’s scope statement.
Reference = CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide5, CompTIA Project+ Certification Exam Objectives6, How to Use Historical Information in Project Management1, How to Use Lessons Learned to Improve Project Management2, How to Define Project Success Criteria3, How to Use Existing Artifacts in Project Management4
D
Explanation:
This answer is based on the best practice of using historical information and lessons learned from previous projects to improve the planning and execution of current projects12. By using existing artifacts, such as scope statements, project plans, risk registers, and change logs, the PM can leverage the knowledge and experience of the previous PM and avoid repeating the same mistakes or oversights. However, the PM should also accommodate the artifacts based on the current project success criteria, which may differ from the previous project in terms of scope, schedule, budget, quality, or stakeholder expectations34. The PM should not rely solely on the previous PM’s advice, the project sponsor’s report, or the project charter, as these sources may not provide enough detail or accuracy for the current project’s scope statement.
Reference = CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide5, CompTIA Project+ Certification Exam Objectives6, How to Use Historical Information in Project Management1, How to Use Lessons Learned to Improve Project Management2, How to Define Project Success Criteria3, How to Use Existing Artifacts in Project Management4
Question #16
Which of the following pieces of data are examples of Pll?
- A . Medical record and test result values
- B . IP address and email address
- C . Name and year of birth
- D . X-ray and blood type
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
Pll stands for personally identifiable information, which is any data that can be used to identify a specific individual. Examples of Pll include name, address, phone number, email address, social security number, passport number, driver’s license number, etc. IP address and email address are both Pll because they can be used to trace the identity and location of a person. Medical record and test result values, name and year of birth, and x-ray and blood type are not Pll by themselves, but they can become Pll if they are combined with other data that can link them to a specific individual.
Reference = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 10: Project Security, page 331. CompTIA Project+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 4: Project Security, Objective 4.1: Given a scenario, apply security best practices to a project, Sub-objective: Identify and classify Pll.
B
Explanation:
Pll stands for personally identifiable information, which is any data that can be used to identify a specific individual. Examples of Pll include name, address, phone number, email address, social security number, passport number, driver’s license number, etc. IP address and email address are both Pll because they can be used to trace the identity and location of a person. Medical record and test result values, name and year of birth, and x-ray and blood type are not Pll by themselves, but they can become Pll if they are combined with other data that can link them to a specific individual.
Reference = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 10: Project Security, page 331. CompTIA Project+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 4: Project Security, Objective 4.1: Given a scenario, apply security best practices to a project, Sub-objective: Identify and classify Pll.
Question #17
Which of the following criteria would favor using the agile methodology to manage an upcoming project?
- A . Strong projectized organization
- B . Medium risk
- C . Lack of resources
- D . Multiple undefined tasks
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
Multiple undefined tasks would favor using the agile methodology to manage an upcoming project. Agile methodology is a project management framework that breaks projects down into several dynamic phases, commonly known as sprints. Agile methodology is an iterative and adaptive approach that allows teams to respond to changing requirements and customer feedback quickly and effectively. Agile methodology is suitable for projects that have multiple undefined tasks, as it enables teams to prioritize and deliver the most valuable features first, and refine and improve them over time based on user input and testing12
D
Explanation:
Multiple undefined tasks would favor using the agile methodology to manage an upcoming project. Agile methodology is a project management framework that breaks projects down into several dynamic phases, commonly known as sprints. Agile methodology is an iterative and adaptive approach that allows teams to respond to changing requirements and customer feedback quickly and effectively. Agile methodology is suitable for projects that have multiple undefined tasks, as it enables teams to prioritize and deliver the most valuable features first, and refine and improve them over time based on user input and testing12
Question #18
After determining the appropriate maintenance window, which of the following should occur NEXT in the operational infrastructure change process?
- A . Implement the change.
- B . Approve the test plan.
- C . Notify customers.
- D . Develop a rollback plan.
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
The project manager should develop a rollback plan next after determining the appropriate maintenance window in the operational infrastructure change process. A rollback plan is a contingency plan that describes how to revert to the previous state of the system or infrastructure in case of a failure or disruption during the change implementation. A rollback plan can help to minimize the impact and risk of the change and ensure business continuity and stability.
D
Explanation:
The project manager should develop a rollback plan next after determining the appropriate maintenance window in the operational infrastructure change process. A rollback plan is a contingency plan that describes how to revert to the previous state of the system or infrastructure in case of a failure or disruption during the change implementation. A rollback plan can help to minimize the impact and risk of the change and ensure business continuity and stability.
Question #19
Which of the following best describes a manufacturer’s obligation to repair or change, without extra costs, any part of a product that is not functioning?
- A . Service-level agreement
- B . Functional testing
- C . Warranty period
- D . Audit
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
A warranty period is the time during which a manufacturer or seller agrees to repair or replace a product that is defective or does not meet the specified standards. A warranty period can be expressed in terms of duration (e.g., one year) or usage (e.g., 10,000 miles). A warranty period is a form of consumer protection that obliges the manufacturer or seller to bear the costs of repairing or changing any part of the product that is not functioning properly1.
C
Explanation:
A warranty period is the time during which a manufacturer or seller agrees to repair or replace a product that is defective or does not meet the specified standards. A warranty period can be expressed in terms of duration (e.g., one year) or usage (e.g., 10,000 miles). A warranty period is a form of consumer protection that obliges the manufacturer or seller to bear the costs of repairing or changing any part of the product that is not functioning properly1.
Question #20
After a migration was completed and a financial system was deployed, users have been unable to issue payment orders.
Which of the following should be implemented?
- A . Rollback plan
- B . Release plan
- C . Deployment plan
- D . Contingency plan
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
A rollback plan is a part of the project management plan that defines how to revert the system to its previous state or baseline if the change or migration fails or causes unacceptable impacts1. A rollback plan is different from a contingency plan, which is a plan to deal with a specific risk event that may or may not occur2. A release plan and a deployment plan are not relevant to the scenario, as they are used to plan and execute the delivery and installation of the system, not to undo them. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Rollback plan.
A
Explanation:
A rollback plan is a part of the project management plan that defines how to revert the system to its previous state or baseline if the change or migration fails or causes unacceptable impacts1. A rollback plan is different from a contingency plan, which is a plan to deal with a specific risk event that may or may not occur2. A release plan and a deployment plan are not relevant to the scenario, as they are used to plan and execute the delivery and installation of the system, not to undo them. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Rollback plan.
Question #21
A project manager does not have the power to reward team members when they accomplish something or penalize them when they fail to perform well. As a result, the project manager is having issues with team members.
Which of the following describes this organizational structure?
- A . Flat
- B . Projectized
- C . Weak matrix
- D . Functional
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
A weak matrix organizational structure is one where the project manager has low authority and the functional manager has high authority. The project manager is considered to be a coordinator or an escalator, and the team members are primarily loyal to their functional units. This can cause issues with team motivation, communication, and performance1
C
Explanation:
A weak matrix organizational structure is one where the project manager has low authority and the functional manager has high authority. The project manager is considered to be a coordinator or an escalator, and the team members are primarily loyal to their functional units. This can cause issues with team motivation, communication, and performance1
Question #22
A project manager queries stakeholders to identify the right communication channel to be used during the project life cycle. After reviewing the responses, the project manager reports that 70% of the stakeholders prefer email communication, and the rest prefer face-to-face communication.
The project manager should update the stakeholder register with:
- A . the preferred sponsor’s communication channel.
- B . the preferred project manager’s communication channel.
- C . the preferred reported communication channel.
- D . email communication as the preferred communication channel.
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
This answer is based on the best practice of stakeholder management, which is to identify and document the communication preferences of each stakeholder or stakeholder group12. The project manager should update the stakeholder register with the information gathered from the stakeholder analysis, which includes the preferred communication channel for each stakeholder3. The preferred reported communication channel reflects the majority preference of the stakeholders, as well as the minority preference of the face-to-face communicators. The project manager should use this information to plan and execute effective communication throughout the project life cycle4.
Reference = CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide5, CompTIA Project+ Certification Exam Objectives6, Stakeholder Register in Project Management1, What is a Stakeholder Register?2, How to Develop a Stakeholder Register3
C
Explanation:
This answer is based on the best practice of stakeholder management, which is to identify and document the communication preferences of each stakeholder or stakeholder group12. The project manager should update the stakeholder register with the information gathered from the stakeholder analysis, which includes the preferred communication channel for each stakeholder3. The preferred reported communication channel reflects the majority preference of the stakeholders, as well as the minority preference of the face-to-face communicators. The project manager should use this information to plan and execute effective communication throughout the project life cycle4.
Reference = CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide5, CompTIA Project+ Certification Exam Objectives6, Stakeholder Register in Project Management1, What is a Stakeholder Register?2, How to Develop a Stakeholder Register3
Question #23
A few weeks before a project is scheduled to be completed, the client asks to add a new feature to the product that is being developed. The project manager analyzes the project schedule and determines the feature can be implemented quite easily without affecting the completion date.
Which of the following should the project manager do first?
- A . Escalate the change to the CCB.
- B . Review the requested change.
- C . Document the change recommendations.
- D . Validate the implementation of the requested change.
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
The project manager should review the requested change first to assess its impact, feasibility, and alignment with the project objectives and scope. Reviewing the change will help the project manager to determine if the change is necessary, beneficial, and acceptable to the stakeholders. The project manager should also consider the risks, costs, and quality implications of the change before proceeding to the next steps of the change management process123.
Reference = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 9: Project Change Management, p. 323; 5 Steps in the Change Management Process | HBS Online; 8 Steps for an Effective Change Management Process – Smartsheet
B
Explanation:
The project manager should review the requested change first to assess its impact, feasibility, and alignment with the project objectives and scope. Reviewing the change will help the project manager to determine if the change is necessary, beneficial, and acceptable to the stakeholders. The project manager should also consider the risks, costs, and quality implications of the change before proceeding to the next steps of the change management process123.
Reference = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 9: Project Change Management, p. 323; 5 Steps in the Change Management Process | HBS Online; 8 Steps for an Effective Change Management Process – Smartsheet
Question #24
Which of the following is a reason to use a SOW on a project?
- A . To find out the contact information for the vendors
- B . To review the list of stakeholders
- C . To ensure the team stays within the scope of the contract
- D . To give explicit instruction on how to execute the work
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
A statement of work (SOW) is a formal document that defines the entire scope of work involved for a vendor and clarifies deliverables, costs, and timeline1. It serves as a contractual agreement between a vendor and a client, providing a comprehensive description of the work to be performed2. A reason to use a SOW on a project is to ensure the team stays within the scope of the contract, as it outlines what the team will and won’t do on a project, saving from painful client negotiations and protecting the timeline and the bottom line3.
Reference = CompTIA Project+ PK0-005 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 3: Initiating Projects Part 1, page 63; What Is a Statement of Work? Definition & Examples, Introduction and What Is a Statement of Work (SOW) In Project Management? sections; Statement Of Work Ultimate Guide: Simple Definition & Template, Introduction and What is a Statement of Work? sections; What Is a Statement of Work (SOW)? – Coursera, Introduction section.
C
Explanation:
A statement of work (SOW) is a formal document that defines the entire scope of work involved for a vendor and clarifies deliverables, costs, and timeline1. It serves as a contractual agreement between a vendor and a client, providing a comprehensive description of the work to be performed2. A reason to use a SOW on a project is to ensure the team stays within the scope of the contract, as it outlines what the team will and won’t do on a project, saving from painful client negotiations and protecting the timeline and the bottom line3.
Reference = CompTIA Project+ PK0-005 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 3: Initiating Projects Part 1, page 63; What Is a Statement of Work? Definition & Examples, Introduction and What Is a Statement of Work (SOW) In Project Management? sections; Statement Of Work Ultimate Guide: Simple Definition & Template, Introduction and What is a Statement of Work? sections; What Is a Statement of Work (SOW)? – Coursera, Introduction section.
Question #25
Defects associated with project deliverables have been reported. The project team needs to find the cause of the defects.
Which of the following tools should the project team use to find the cause?
- A . Kanban board
- B . Pareto chart
- C . Ishikawa diagram
- D . Decision tree
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
An Ishikawa diagram is a tool that the project team should use to find the cause of the defects associated with project deliverables. An Ishikawa diagram, also known as a fishbone diagram or a cause-and-effect diagram, is a graphical tool that shows the possible causes of a problem or effect using a fishbone-like structure. An Ishikawa diagram can help to identify and analyze the root causes of defects or issues and find solutions to prevent or eliminate them.
C
Explanation:
An Ishikawa diagram is a tool that the project team should use to find the cause of the defects associated with project deliverables. An Ishikawa diagram, also known as a fishbone diagram or a cause-and-effect diagram, is a graphical tool that shows the possible causes of a problem or effect using a fishbone-like structure. An Ishikawa diagram can help to identify and analyze the root causes of defects or issues and find solutions to prevent or eliminate them.
Question #26
Two project team members are assigned to set up new work areas and are disagreeing about the placement of hardware and peripherals at the end users’ desks. The requirements do not specify where to place the items, just what is needed in each space.
Which of the following should the project manager do to resolve the conflict?
- A . Send out a survey to the potential end users to gather information about the best functional setup for work productivity.
- B . Provide clear instructions based on personal preference and aesthetics for setup of the work areas.
- C . Explain to team members that the placement of the items is not too important, as long as everything is connected and working.
- D . Facilitate a meeting between team members to review the pros and cons of the different configurations so as to encourage an amicable solution.
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
This answer is based on the best practice of conflict resolution in project management, which is to use a collaborative or problem-solving approach that seeks a win-win outcome for all parties involved12. By facilitating a meeting, the project manager can help the team members communicate effectively, understand each other’s perspectives, and find a mutually acceptable solution that meets the project requirements. This way, the project manager can also maintain team morale and cohesion, and avoid imposing a decision that may cause resentment or dissatisfaction among the team members3.
Reference = CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide4, CompTIA Project+ Certification Exam Objectives5, How Do You Handle Conflict in Project Management?1, 7 Strategies for Conflict Resolution in Project Management2, The Conflict Resolution Skills Every Project Manager Needs3
D
Explanation:
This answer is based on the best practice of conflict resolution in project management, which is to use a collaborative or problem-solving approach that seeks a win-win outcome for all parties involved12. By facilitating a meeting, the project manager can help the team members communicate effectively, understand each other’s perspectives, and find a mutually acceptable solution that meets the project requirements. This way, the project manager can also maintain team morale and cohesion, and avoid imposing a decision that may cause resentment or dissatisfaction among the team members3.
Reference = CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide4, CompTIA Project+ Certification Exam Objectives5, How Do You Handle Conflict in Project Management?1, 7 Strategies for Conflict Resolution in Project Management2, The Conflict Resolution Skills Every Project Manager Needs3
Question #27
During the project initiation phase, a project team has been identified.
Which of the following is the NEXT step for the project manager?
- A . Determine budget constraints.
- B . Validate the business case.
- C . Update the project charter.
- D . Create a project schedule
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
Update the project charter. Updating the project charter would be the next step for the project manager after identifying the project team during the project initiation phase. A project charter is a document that formally authorizes a project and defines its purpose, scope, objectives, deliverables, milestones, roles and responsibilities, assumptions, constraints, risks, budget, and timeline. A project charter can help to align the expectations and interests of all stakeholders involved in a project and provide direction and guidance for planning and executing the project.
C
Explanation:
Update the project charter. Updating the project charter would be the next step for the project manager after identifying the project team during the project initiation phase. A project charter is a document that formally authorizes a project and defines its purpose, scope, objectives, deliverables, milestones, roles and responsibilities, assumptions, constraints, risks, budget, and timeline. A project charter can help to align the expectations and interests of all stakeholders involved in a project and provide direction and guidance for planning and executing the project.
Question #28
A risk management team for a software project decided to outsource the development of a specific portion of a system due to a lack of internal resources.
Which of the following risk responses does this demonstrate?
- A . Avoid
- B . Transfer
- C . Accept
- D . Share
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
Outsourcing the development of a system component due to a lack of internal resources is a risk response strategy known as ‘transfer.’ This approach shifts the risk to a third party who will now be responsible for managing that portion of the project. It is commonly used when an organization does not have the expertise or capacity to handle specific risks internally.
Reference = The answer is based on standard project management practices and the typical use of risk response strategies in the field. For detailed information, please refer to the CompTIA Project+ Study Guide and other official CompTIA resources.
B
Explanation:
Outsourcing the development of a system component due to a lack of internal resources is a risk response strategy known as ‘transfer.’ This approach shifts the risk to a third party who will now be responsible for managing that portion of the project. It is commonly used when an organization does not have the expertise or capacity to handle specific risks internally.
Reference = The answer is based on standard project management practices and the typical use of risk response strategies in the field. For detailed information, please refer to the CompTIA Project+ Study Guide and other official CompTIA resources.
Question #29
A client provides a project plan to the assigned project manager and suggests that the project manager and team just need to execute the plan.
Upon further investigation, the document contains:
* Purpose
* Scope of work
* Location of work
* Period of performance
* Deliverables schedule
* Applicable standards
* Acceptance criteria
* Special requirements
* Payment schedule
Which of the following documents did the client provide to the project manager?
- A . RFP
- B . WBS
- C . SLA
- D . SOW
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
The client provided a statement of work (SOW) to the project manager and suggested that the project manager and team just need to execute the plan. A SOW is a document that defines the scope, deliverables, schedule, and terms and conditions of a project or contract. A SOW typically includes information such as purpose, scope of work, location of work, period of performance, deliverables schedule, applicable standards, acceptance criteria, special requirements, and payment schedule. A SOW can help to establish a common understanding and agreement between the client and the service provider on what needs to be done and how it will be done.
D
Explanation:
The client provided a statement of work (SOW) to the project manager and suggested that the project manager and team just need to execute the plan. A SOW is a document that defines the scope, deliverables, schedule, and terms and conditions of a project or contract. A SOW typically includes information such as purpose, scope of work, location of work, period of performance, deliverables schedule, applicable standards, acceptance criteria, special requirements, and payment schedule. A SOW can help to establish a common understanding and agreement between the client and the service provider on what needs to be done and how it will be done.
Question #30
Government projects require that personnel submit to background screenings for certain clearance requirements.
Which of the following best describes this process?
- A . Data security
- B . Operational security
- C . Physical security
- D . Digital security
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
Operational security is the process of identifying, protecting, and controlling sensitive information and activities from unauthorized access or disclosure. Operational security includes background screenings for personnel who need to access classified or restricted information or resources, as well as implementing policies and procedures to prevent leaks, breaches, or espionage. Operational security is essential for government projects that involve national security, defense, intelligence, or law enforcement.
Operational security is different from data security, which is the process of safeguarding data from unauthorized access, use, modification, or destruction. Data security includes encryption, authentication, authorization, backup, and recovery of data. Operational security is also different from physical security, which is the process of securing physical assets, such as equipment, data, or personnel, from unauthorized access or damage. Physical security includes locks, alarms, cameras, guards, and fences. Operational security is also different from digital security, which is the process of protecting digital devices, networks, and systems from cyberattacks, malware, or hacking. Digital security includes firewalls, antivirus, VPN, and passwords.
Reference = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 9: Security Management1; CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide, 3rd Edition, Chapter 9: Security Management2; What is Operational Security (OPSEC)?3
B
Explanation:
Operational security is the process of identifying, protecting, and controlling sensitive information and activities from unauthorized access or disclosure. Operational security includes background screenings for personnel who need to access classified or restricted information or resources, as well as implementing policies and procedures to prevent leaks, breaches, or espionage. Operational security is essential for government projects that involve national security, defense, intelligence, or law enforcement.
Operational security is different from data security, which is the process of safeguarding data from unauthorized access, use, modification, or destruction. Data security includes encryption, authentication, authorization, backup, and recovery of data. Operational security is also different from physical security, which is the process of securing physical assets, such as equipment, data, or personnel, from unauthorized access or damage. Physical security includes locks, alarms, cameras, guards, and fences. Operational security is also different from digital security, which is the process of protecting digital devices, networks, and systems from cyberattacks, malware, or hacking. Digital security includes firewalls, antivirus, VPN, and passwords.
Reference = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 9: Security Management1; CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide, 3rd Edition, Chapter 9: Security Management2; What is Operational Security (OPSEC)?3
Question #31
A project manager reports that the implementation of a new system is on track to be completed under budget and ahead of the schedule. A stakeholder then asks the manager to add mobile device functionality.
Which of the following should the project manager do in response to the request?
- A . Decline because it is not included in the project scope.
- B . Assess the impact of the request and create a change request
- C . Create new functional and non-functional requirements for mobile devices.
- D . Revise the baseline of the project plan by adding the new requirements.
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
Assess the impact of the request and create a change request. The project manager should assess the impact of the request and create a change request in response to the stakeholder asking to add mobile device functionality to a project that is on track to be completed under budget and ahead of schedule. A change request is a document that formally proposes and records a modification or addition to some aspect of a project, such as scope, schedule, cost, quality, or resources. A change request can help to communicate and justify the need and rationale for the change and its implications on the project objectives and deliverables. A change request also helps to initiate the change control process, which involves reviewing, approving, implementing, and monitoring the change12
B
Explanation:
Assess the impact of the request and create a change request. The project manager should assess the impact of the request and create a change request in response to the stakeholder asking to add mobile device functionality to a project that is on track to be completed under budget and ahead of schedule. A change request is a document that formally proposes and records a modification or addition to some aspect of a project, such as scope, schedule, cost, quality, or resources. A change request can help to communicate and justify the need and rationale for the change and its implications on the project objectives and deliverables. A change request also helps to initiate the change control process, which involves reviewing, approving, implementing, and monitoring the change12
Question #32
A sponsor prefers to communicate with the team using email, phone calls, conversations in the hallway, and impromptu meetings.
Which of the following types of communication is the sponsor using?
- A . Informal communication
- B . Formal communication
- C . Synchronous communication
- D . Asynchronous communication
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
Informal communication is a type of communication that is casual, spontaneous, and unstructured. It does not follow any predefined rules, protocols, or formats. Examples of informal communication include email, phone calls, conversations in the hallway, and impromptu meetings12. The sponsor is using informal communication to communicate with the team, as these methods are convenient, flexible, and personal. However, informal communication may also have some drawbacks, such as lack of documentation, inconsistency, and potential for misunderstanding3. Therefore, the sponsor should also use formal communication when necessary, such as for official reports, contracts, and presentations4.
A
Explanation:
Informal communication is a type of communication that is casual, spontaneous, and unstructured. It does not follow any predefined rules, protocols, or formats. Examples of informal communication include email, phone calls, conversations in the hallway, and impromptu meetings12. The sponsor is using informal communication to communicate with the team, as these methods are convenient, flexible, and personal. However, informal communication may also have some drawbacks, such as lack of documentation, inconsistency, and potential for misunderstanding3. Therefore, the sponsor should also use formal communication when necessary, such as for official reports, contracts, and presentations4.
Question #33
A project team gathers weekly to review its progress.
Which of the following is the project manager MOST likely to have prepared to ensure team members who are absent remain informed about assignments?
- A . Status report
- B . Project plan
- C . Change log
- D . Meeting minutes
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
Meeting minutes should be prepared to ensure team members who are absent remain informed about assignments. Meeting minutes document what was discussed, decisions made, and assignments given during a meeting, providing a record of the team’s progress and ensuring absent members are up-to-date.
Reference: CompTIA Project+ Study Guide Section 4.2.2 The project manager should prepare meeting minutes to ensure team members who are absent remain informed about assignments. Meeting minutes are a written record of what was discussed and decided in a meeting. They usually include information such as attendees, agenda items, action items, decisions made, issues raised, and deadlines assigned. Meeting minutes can help to communicate important information to team members who could not attend the meeting and provide a reference for future follow-up.
D
Explanation:
Meeting minutes should be prepared to ensure team members who are absent remain informed about assignments. Meeting minutes document what was discussed, decisions made, and assignments given during a meeting, providing a record of the team’s progress and ensuring absent members are up-to-date.
Reference: CompTIA Project+ Study Guide Section 4.2.2 The project manager should prepare meeting minutes to ensure team members who are absent remain informed about assignments. Meeting minutes are a written record of what was discussed and decided in a meeting. They usually include information such as attendees, agenda items, action items, decisions made, issues raised, and deadlines assigned. Meeting minutes can help to communicate important information to team members who could not attend the meeting and provide a reference for future follow-up.
Question #34
A project manager and team are currently in the planning phase of a project.
Which of the following should the team do during this phase?
- A . Identify and assess stakeholders.
- B . Hold daily status meetings.
- C . Remove access and plan the project sign-off.
- D . Review assumptions and constraints for input to the risk register.
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
The project manager and team should review assumptions and constraints for input to the risk register during the planning phase of a project. Assumptions are statements that are considered to be true for the purpose of planning, but may or may not be valid in reality. Constraints are factors that limit the project scope, time, cost, quality, or resources. Both assumptions and constraints can introduce risks to the project, which are uncertain events or conditions that can have a positive or negative impact on the project objectives. The risk register is a document that records the identified risks, their causes, impacts, probabilities, responses, owners, and status. Reviewing assumptions and constraints can help the project manager and team identify, analyze, prioritize, and plan for the potential risks that may affect the project12.
The other options are not the correct activities that the team should do during the planning phase of a project. Identifying and assessing stakeholders (option A) is an activity that is done during the initiating phase of a project, not the planning phase. Stakeholders are individuals or groups that have an interest or influence in the project, and their identification and assessment is important to define the project scope, objectives, and success criteria, and to establish a communication plan12. Holding daily status meetings (option B) is an activity that is done during the executing and monitoring and controlling phases of a project, not the planning phase. Daily status meetings are short and frequent meetings where the project team members report on their progress, issues, and plans for the next day. Daily status meetings can help the project manager track the project performance, resolve problems, and communicate updates12. Removing access and planning the project sign-off (option C) is an activity that is done during the closing phase of a project, not the planning phase. Removing access is a security measure to ensure that the project resources do not have access to the project systems, data, or assets after the project is completed. Planning the project sign-off is a process to obtain the formal acceptance and approval of the project deliverables from the stakeholders and customers12.
D
Explanation:
The project manager and team should review assumptions and constraints for input to the risk register during the planning phase of a project. Assumptions are statements that are considered to be true for the purpose of planning, but may or may not be valid in reality. Constraints are factors that limit the project scope, time, cost, quality, or resources. Both assumptions and constraints can introduce risks to the project, which are uncertain events or conditions that can have a positive or negative impact on the project objectives. The risk register is a document that records the identified risks, their causes, impacts, probabilities, responses, owners, and status. Reviewing assumptions and constraints can help the project manager and team identify, analyze, prioritize, and plan for the potential risks that may affect the project12.
The other options are not the correct activities that the team should do during the planning phase of a project. Identifying and assessing stakeholders (option A) is an activity that is done during the initiating phase of a project, not the planning phase. Stakeholders are individuals or groups that have an interest or influence in the project, and their identification and assessment is important to define the project scope, objectives, and success criteria, and to establish a communication plan12. Holding daily status meetings (option B) is an activity that is done during the executing and monitoring and controlling phases of a project, not the planning phase. Daily status meetings are short and frequent meetings where the project team members report on their progress, issues, and plans for the next day. Daily status meetings can help the project manager track the project performance, resolve problems, and communicate updates12. Removing access and planning the project sign-off (option C) is an activity that is done during the closing phase of a project, not the planning phase. Removing access is a security measure to ensure that the project resources do not have access to the project systems, data, or assets after the project is completed. Planning the project sign-off is a process to obtain the formal acceptance and approval of the project deliverables from the stakeholders and customers12.
Question #35
Which of the following items must be protected as Pll? (Select TWO).
- A . Job title
- B . Home address
- C . Work phone number
- D . Time zone
- E . Date of birth
- F . Blood type
Correct Answer: B,E
B,E
Explanation:
Home address and date of birth must be protected as personally identifiable information (PII). PII is any information that can be used to identify, contact, or locate an individual person, either alone or in combination with other sources. PII can include information such as name, email address, phone number, social security number, passport number, driver’s license number, bank account number, credit card number, biometric data, medical records, etc. PII must be protected from unauthorized access, use, disclosure, modification, or destruction to prevent identity theft, fraud, or other malicious activities that may harm the individual’s privacy or security.
B,E
Explanation:
Home address and date of birth must be protected as personally identifiable information (PII). PII is any information that can be used to identify, contact, or locate an individual person, either alone or in combination with other sources. PII can include information such as name, email address, phone number, social security number, passport number, driver’s license number, bank account number, credit card number, biometric data, medical records, etc. PII must be protected from unauthorized access, use, disclosure, modification, or destruction to prevent identity theft, fraud, or other malicious activities that may harm the individual’s privacy or security.
Question #36
An opportunity emerged in the middle of a project life cycle.
Which of the following is the BEST action for the project manager to take?
- A . Exploit the risk.
- B . Accept the risk.
- C . Avoid the risk.
- D . Transfer the risk.
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
The project manager should exploit the risk after an opportunity emerged in the middle of a project life cycle. Exploit is a risk response strategy that aims to increase the probability and/or impact of a positive risk or opportunity. Exploit can involve actions such as allocating more resources, changing the scope or schedule, or adding more features or benefits to the project deliverables. Exploit can help to ensure that the opportunity is realized and that the project gains more value or advantage from it3
A
Explanation:
The project manager should exploit the risk after an opportunity emerged in the middle of a project life cycle. Exploit is a risk response strategy that aims to increase the probability and/or impact of a positive risk or opportunity. Exploit can involve actions such as allocating more resources, changing the scope or schedule, or adding more features or benefits to the project deliverables. Exploit can help to ensure that the opportunity is realized and that the project gains more value or advantage from it3
Question #37
After new capabilities were deployed in a system, issues with preexisting capabilities were reported.
Which of the following testing cycles should be used to prevent this issue?
- A . Performance testing
- B . User acceptance testing
- C . Stress testing
- D . Unit testing
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
Unit testing is a testing technique that verifies the functionality and quality of individual units or components of software, such as modules, classes, functions, etc. Unit testing can help prevent issues with preexisting capabilities by detecting and fixing errors at an early stage of development, before they affect the integration and system testing. Unit testing can also ensure that new capabilities do not break or interfere with the existing ones, by checking the compatibility and dependencies of the units. Unit testing can be performed by developers using tools and frameworks that automate the process and generate reports.
Reference = CompTIA Project+ PK0-005 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 10: Project Quality Management; CompTIA Project+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 3: Project Execution, Objective 3.2: Execute quality management activities.
D
Explanation:
Unit testing is a testing technique that verifies the functionality and quality of individual units or components of software, such as modules, classes, functions, etc. Unit testing can help prevent issues with preexisting capabilities by detecting and fixing errors at an early stage of development, before they affect the integration and system testing. Unit testing can also ensure that new capabilities do not break or interfere with the existing ones, by checking the compatibility and dependencies of the units. Unit testing can be performed by developers using tools and frameworks that automate the process and generate reports.
Reference = CompTIA Project+ PK0-005 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 10: Project Quality Management; CompTIA Project+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 3: Project Execution, Objective 3.2: Execute quality management activities.
Question #38
A contractor attended a project meeting that was exclusively for company employees.
Which of the following actions should the PM take?
- A . Escalate to vendor management.
- B . Consult the request for proposal.
- C . Review the meeting cadence.
- D . Reinforce the rules of engagement.
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
The rules of engagement are the guidelines and expectations that define the relationship between the contractor and the company. They may include topics such as communication, confidentiality, access, security, performance, and compliance. The project manager should reinforce the rules of engagement with the contractor to ensure that they understand and respect the boundaries and protocols of the company. This will help to avoid any potential conflicts, misunderstandings, or breaches of contract.
Reference = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 7: Project Stakeholder Management, p. 239; Contractor Rules of Engagement – Cox Enterprises, p. 1; Legal Considerations for Engaging Contractors | LegalVision
D
Explanation:
The rules of engagement are the guidelines and expectations that define the relationship between the contractor and the company. They may include topics such as communication, confidentiality, access, security, performance, and compliance. The project manager should reinforce the rules of engagement with the contractor to ensure that they understand and respect the boundaries and protocols of the company. This will help to avoid any potential conflicts, misunderstandings, or breaches of contract.
Reference = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 7: Project Stakeholder Management, p. 239; Contractor Rules of Engagement – Cox Enterprises, p. 1; Legal Considerations for Engaging Contractors | LegalVision
Question #39
A developer recommends modifying an existing portion of code that is not part of the scope and is causing low performance on the current solution.
Which of the following actions should the project manager most likely take?
- A . Ask a developer to create a change request.
- B . Do nothing because recommendation is scope creep.
- C . Ask a developer to implement the recommendation.
- D . Communicate the change status.
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
The project manager should ask the developer to create a change request, which is a formal document that describes the proposed change, its benefits, costs, risks, and impacts on the project scope, schedule, budget, and quality. A change request is the first step in the change control process, which involves evaluating, approving, or rejecting changes to the project baselines. The project manager should not do nothing, because ignoring the recommendation could result in poor performance and customer dissatisfaction. The project manager should not ask the developer to implement the recommendation without following the change control process, because that could cause scope creep, which is the uncontrolled expansion of the project scope without proper authorization or adjustment of the project resources and objectives. The project manager should not communicate the change status before the change request is submitted and approved, because that could create confusion and false expectations among the project stakeholders.
Reference = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 4: Project Integration Management1; CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide, 3rd Edition, Chapter 4: Project Integration Management2; What is a Change Request and How to Manage It3
A
Explanation:
The project manager should ask the developer to create a change request, which is a formal document that describes the proposed change, its benefits, costs, risks, and impacts on the project scope, schedule, budget, and quality. A change request is the first step in the change control process, which involves evaluating, approving, or rejecting changes to the project baselines. The project manager should not do nothing, because ignoring the recommendation could result in poor performance and customer dissatisfaction. The project manager should not ask the developer to implement the recommendation without following the change control process, because that could cause scope creep, which is the uncontrolled expansion of the project scope without proper authorization or adjustment of the project resources and objectives. The project manager should not communicate the change status before the change request is submitted and approved, because that could create confusion and false expectations among the project stakeholders.
Reference = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 4: Project Integration Management1; CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide, 3rd Edition, Chapter 4: Project Integration Management2; What is a Change Request and How to Manage It3
Question #40
Because the project team lacks hands-on experience, the project manager has decided to involve a third-party vendor to complete the development of a product.
Which of the following documents should the project manager expedite first?
- A . RFI
- B . RFP
- C . RFQ
- D . RFB
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
When a project team lacks hands-on experience and decides to involve a third-party vendor for product development, the first document to expedite is a Request for Proposal (RFP). An RFP outlines the project requirements and asks potential vendors to submit proposals detailing how they would meet those requirements and at what cost. This allows the project manager to evaluate the capabilities and offerings of different vendors before making a decision.
Reference = CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide (PK0-005)
B
Explanation:
When a project team lacks hands-on experience and decides to involve a third-party vendor for product development, the first document to expedite is a Request for Proposal (RFP). An RFP outlines the project requirements and asks potential vendors to submit proposals detailing how they would meet those requirements and at what cost. This allows the project manager to evaluate the capabilities and offerings of different vendors before making a decision.
Reference = CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide (PK0-005)
Question #41
A project manager has decided to outsource portions of a project and will conduct a separate procurement. In which of the following phases does this task occur?
- A . Planning
- B . Initiating
- C . Controlling
- D . Executing
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
This answer is based on the understanding that outsourcing is a form of procurement, which is one of the knowledge areas in project management. Procurement involves acquiring goods and services from external sources to support the project objectives. According to the CompTIA Project+ Study Guide1, procurement activities occur mainly in the planning phase of the project, where the project manager identifies the project needs, defines the scope of work, evaluates the potential vendors, and prepares the procurement documents.
The other options are not correct because:
Initiating is the phase where the project manager defines the project purpose, objectives, and deliverables, and obtains the project charter and stakeholder approval. Initiating does not involve procurement activities, although it may involve some preliminary research on the feasibility and availability of external resources.
Controlling is the phase where the project manager monitors and measures the project performance, compares it with the baseline, and implements corrective actions if needed. Controlling does involve some procurement activities, such as reviewing the vendor deliverables, managing the changes, and resolving the issues, but these are not the main tasks of procurement.
Executing is the phase where the project manager leads and directs the project team and other resources to complete the project work according to the plan. Executing does involve some procurement activities, such as selecting the vendor, signing the contract, and managing the relationship, but these are not the main tasks of procurement.
Reference = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 8: Planning Projects, Part 4 (Procurement and Communication), pages 243-260; CompTIA Project+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 2: Project Planning, Objective 2.5: Given a scenario, plan procurement for a project.
A
Explanation:
This answer is based on the understanding that outsourcing is a form of procurement, which is one of the knowledge areas in project management. Procurement involves acquiring goods and services from external sources to support the project objectives. According to the CompTIA Project+ Study Guide1, procurement activities occur mainly in the planning phase of the project, where the project manager identifies the project needs, defines the scope of work, evaluates the potential vendors, and prepares the procurement documents.
The other options are not correct because:
Initiating is the phase where the project manager defines the project purpose, objectives, and deliverables, and obtains the project charter and stakeholder approval. Initiating does not involve procurement activities, although it may involve some preliminary research on the feasibility and availability of external resources.
Controlling is the phase where the project manager monitors and measures the project performance, compares it with the baseline, and implements corrective actions if needed. Controlling does involve some procurement activities, such as reviewing the vendor deliverables, managing the changes, and resolving the issues, but these are not the main tasks of procurement.
Executing is the phase where the project manager leads and directs the project team and other resources to complete the project work according to the plan. Executing does involve some procurement activities, such as selecting the vendor, signing the contract, and managing the relationship, but these are not the main tasks of procurement.
Reference = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 8: Planning Projects, Part 4 (Procurement and Communication), pages 243-260; CompTIA Project+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 2: Project Planning, Objective 2.5: Given a scenario, plan procurement for a project.
Question #42
A piece of equipment has malfunctioned and is stalling the completion of a deliverable for a project.
Which of the following should the project manager do next?
- A . Buy a replacement for the faulty equipment.
- B . Get the maintenance team to resolve the issue.
- C . Escalate the issue to the project sponsor.
- D . Rate the severity of the impact the issue has on the project.
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
This answer is based on the best practice of issue management in project management, which is to identify, analyze, prioritize, and resolve issues that affect the project performance, scope, schedule, quality, or budget12. The first step in this process is to rate the severity of the impact the issue has on the project, which involves assessing the likelihood and consequences of the issue, and assigning a rating or score to the issue based on a predefined scale or criteria34. By rating the severity of the impact, the project manager can determine the urgency and importance of the issue, and decide the appropriate course of action to address the issue56.
Rating the severity of the impact is better than the other options because:
Buying a replacement for the faulty equipment may not be feasible, cost-effective, or timely, depending on the availability, price, and delivery time of the equipment. It may also require approval from the project sponsor or other stakeholders, and may affect the project budget or scope7. Getting the maintenance team to resolve the issue may not be possible, depending on the nature and extent of the malfunction, the skills and availability of the maintenance team, and the warranty or service contract of the equipment. It may also take time and resources to diagnose and fix the problem, and may cause further delays or disruptions to the project8.
Escalating the issue to the project sponsor may not be necessary, depending on the severity and complexity of the issue, and the authority and responsibility of the project manager. It may also create unnecessary alarm or confusion among the project stakeholders, and may undermine the project manager’s credibility or autonomy9.
Reference = CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide, CompTIA Project+ Certification Exam Objectives, What is Issue Management?1, Issue Management Process2, How to Assess the Severity of Project Issues3, How to Prioritize Project Issues4, How to Replace Faulty Equipment in Project Management5, How to Manage Equipment Maintenance in Project Management6, How to Escalate Issues in Project Management7
D
Explanation:
This answer is based on the best practice of issue management in project management, which is to identify, analyze, prioritize, and resolve issues that affect the project performance, scope, schedule, quality, or budget12. The first step in this process is to rate the severity of the impact the issue has on the project, which involves assessing the likelihood and consequences of the issue, and assigning a rating or score to the issue based on a predefined scale or criteria34. By rating the severity of the impact, the project manager can determine the urgency and importance of the issue, and decide the appropriate course of action to address the issue56.
Rating the severity of the impact is better than the other options because:
Buying a replacement for the faulty equipment may not be feasible, cost-effective, or timely, depending on the availability, price, and delivery time of the equipment. It may also require approval from the project sponsor or other stakeholders, and may affect the project budget or scope7. Getting the maintenance team to resolve the issue may not be possible, depending on the nature and extent of the malfunction, the skills and availability of the maintenance team, and the warranty or service contract of the equipment. It may also take time and resources to diagnose and fix the problem, and may cause further delays or disruptions to the project8.
Escalating the issue to the project sponsor may not be necessary, depending on the severity and complexity of the issue, and the authority and responsibility of the project manager. It may also create unnecessary alarm or confusion among the project stakeholders, and may undermine the project manager’s credibility or autonomy9.
Reference = CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide, CompTIA Project+ Certification Exam Objectives, What is Issue Management?1, Issue Management Process2, How to Assess the Severity of Project Issues3, How to Prioritize Project Issues4, How to Replace Faulty Equipment in Project Management5, How to Manage Equipment Maintenance in Project Management6, How to Escalate Issues in Project Management7
Question #43
A project manager receives an escalation from an external group reporting that an expected deliverable should have been available some time ago. After analysis, the project team realizes the deliverable was provided on time.
Which of the following should the project manager do next?
- A . Request a change control ticket.
- B . Review the schedule plan.
- C . Refine the project documentation.
- D . Revise the communication plan.
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
When a project manager receives an escalation about a deliverable that was actually provided on time, it indicates a communication issue. The next step should be to revise the communication plan to ensure that all stakeholders are properly informed about project progress and deliverables in the future. This helps to prevent misunderstandings and ensures that everyone has the correct information.
Reference = CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide (PK0-005)
D
Explanation:
When a project manager receives an escalation about a deliverable that was actually provided on time, it indicates a communication issue. The next step should be to revise the communication plan to ensure that all stakeholders are properly informed about project progress and deliverables in the future. This helps to prevent misunderstandings and ensures that everyone has the correct information.
Reference = CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide (PK0-005)
Question #44
During the execution phase, a new PM was assigned to a project. The PM received a request to add new functionality to the system that is being developed. While the PM was conducting a preliminary review with the team, the technical lead highlighted that this functionality request was rejected during the planning phase.
Which of the following documents is the best source for the PM to use to confirm this assertion?
- A . Issue log
- B . Scope statement
- C . Risk report
- D . Change log
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
A change log is a document that records and tracks the changes that are made to the project scope, schedule, budget, or quality. It helps the project manager to monitor and control the project performance and ensure that the changes are aligned with the project objectives and stakeholders’ expectations. A change log can also include information such as the change description, impact, status, approval, and date. A change log is the best source for the PM to use to confirm the assertion that the functionality request was rejected during the planning phase, as it would show the details and reasons for the rejection12.
D
Explanation:
A change log is a document that records and tracks the changes that are made to the project scope, schedule, budget, or quality. It helps the project manager to monitor and control the project performance and ensure that the changes are aligned with the project objectives and stakeholders’ expectations. A change log can also include information such as the change description, impact, status, approval, and date. A change log is the best source for the PM to use to confirm the assertion that the functionality request was rejected during the planning phase, as it would show the details and reasons for the rejection12.
Question #45
Which of the following activities are important parts of the closing phase? (Select two).
- A . Releasing resources
- B . Locking risks
- C . Updating stakeholder register
- D . Closing contracts
- E . Completing the work breakdown structure
- F . Negotiating the next project
Correct Answer: A,B
A,B
Explanation:
These are two of the key activities in the closing phase, as they involve finalizing the use of resources and resolving any remaining risks that may affect the project performance or quality.
Reference = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide1, Chapter 12: Closing Phase Activities
A,B
Explanation:
These are two of the key activities in the closing phase, as they involve finalizing the use of resources and resolving any remaining risks that may affect the project performance or quality.
Reference = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide1, Chapter 12: Closing Phase Activities
Question #46
A project manager has been very diligent in maintaining the version control for the documentation of requirements.
Which of the following tools is the project manager using?
- A . Multiauthoring software
- B . Word processor
- C . Real-time polling
- D . Conferencing platforms
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
The project manager is using multiauthoring software to maintain the version control for the documentation of requirements. Multiauthoring software is a type of software that allows multiple users to create, edit, and collaborate on documents simultaneously. It also provides features such as tracking changes, commenting, reviewing, and merging versions. Multiauthoring software can help to improve the quality, accuracy, and consistency of documents and facilitate communication and feedback among stakeholders. Examples of multiauthoring software include Google Docs, Microsoft Word Online, and Confluence34
A
Explanation:
The project manager is using multiauthoring software to maintain the version control for the documentation of requirements. Multiauthoring software is a type of software that allows multiple users to create, edit, and collaborate on documents simultaneously. It also provides features such as tracking changes, commenting, reviewing, and merging versions. Multiauthoring software can help to improve the quality, accuracy, and consistency of documents and facilitate communication and feedback among stakeholders. Examples of multiauthoring software include Google Docs, Microsoft Word Online, and Confluence34
Question #47
A project manager prefers to have immediate contact with team members because it allows for faster response times and more interactive discussions.
Which of the following communication methods should the project manager use?
- A . Synchronous
- B . Informal
- C . Asynchronous
- D . Formal
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
The project manager should use synchronous communication methods if they prefer to have immediate contact with team members. Synchronous communication is a type of communication that occurs in real time and allows for faster response times and more interactive discussions. Examples of synchronous communication methods include phone calls, video conferences, instant messaging, and face-to-face meetings. Synchronous communication can help to build rapport, clarify doubts, and resolve issues quickly among team members.
Synchronous communication should be used when the project manager prefers to have immediate contact with team members. Synchronous communication allows for real-time interaction and feedback, enabling faster response times and more interactive discussions.
Reference: CompTIA Project+ Study Guide Section 3.1.3
A
Explanation:
The project manager should use synchronous communication methods if they prefer to have immediate contact with team members. Synchronous communication is a type of communication that occurs in real time and allows for faster response times and more interactive discussions. Examples of synchronous communication methods include phone calls, video conferences, instant messaging, and face-to-face meetings. Synchronous communication can help to build rapport, clarify doubts, and resolve issues quickly among team members.
Synchronous communication should be used when the project manager prefers to have immediate contact with team members. Synchronous communication allows for real-time interaction and feedback, enabling faster response times and more interactive discussions.
Reference: CompTIA Project+ Study Guide Section 3.1.3
Question #48
Which of the following is a consideration when determining a project’s ESG factors?
- A . Project management methodology
- B . IT infrastructure security
- C . Proper accounting practices
- D . Corporate values compliance
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
Corporate values compliance is a consideration when determining a project’s ESG factors, because it reflects how a project aligns with the ethical standards and social responsibility of the organization. Corporate values compliance can help to enhance the reputation, trust, and loyalty of the organization among its stakeholders, as well as to avoid legal or regulatory issues that may arise from violating the values. Corporate values compliance can also influence the project scope, objectives, deliverables, and stakeholders, as well as the project management methodology, processes, and practices.
The other options are not directly related to ESG factors. Project management methodology is the approach or framework that guides how a project is planned, executed, monitored, and controlled. IT infrastructure security is the protection of the hardware, software, network, and data components of a project from unauthorized access, use, modification, or destruction. Proper accounting practices are the rules and standards that govern how financial transactions and statements are recorded, reported, and audited for a project.
Reference = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 5: Project Scope Management1; CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide, 3rd Edition, Chapter 5: Project Scope Management2; What Is Environmental, Social, and Governance (ESG) Investing
D
Explanation:
Corporate values compliance is a consideration when determining a project’s ESG factors, because it reflects how a project aligns with the ethical standards and social responsibility of the organization. Corporate values compliance can help to enhance the reputation, trust, and loyalty of the organization among its stakeholders, as well as to avoid legal or regulatory issues that may arise from violating the values. Corporate values compliance can also influence the project scope, objectives, deliverables, and stakeholders, as well as the project management methodology, processes, and practices.
The other options are not directly related to ESG factors. Project management methodology is the approach or framework that guides how a project is planned, executed, monitored, and controlled. IT infrastructure security is the protection of the hardware, software, network, and data components of a project from unauthorized access, use, modification, or destruction. Proper accounting practices are the rules and standards that govern how financial transactions and statements are recorded, reported, and audited for a project.
Reference = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 5: Project Scope Management1; CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide, 3rd Edition, Chapter 5: Project Scope Management2; What Is Environmental, Social, and Governance (ESG) Investing
Question #49
A project manager, who finished a project some time ago, keeps receiving questions from another project manager who is currently leading a similar project.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of this situation?
- A . The retrospective session feedback was not communicated properly.
- B . The project resources were released ahead of time.
- C . The documentation was not archived as per the PMO standards.
- D . The validation of deliverables is running behind schedule.
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
Archiving project documentation is an important process to ensure that the project information is stored, retrieved, and updated in a consistent and efficient manner1. It also helps to meet legal requirements, enable long-term analysis, and support new projects and team members1. If the documentation was not archived as per the PMO standards, it would be difficult for the current project manager to find the relevant documents and learn from the previous project. This would cause the current project manager to keep asking questions to the previous project manager, who may not have all the answers or may not be available. Therefore, the most likely cause of this situation is that the documentation was not archived as per the PMO standards.
Reference = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 14: Closing the Project, page 403; How to Archive a Completed Project: A Guide for PMOs, Introduction and Benefits sections.
C
Explanation:
Archiving project documentation is an important process to ensure that the project information is stored, retrieved, and updated in a consistent and efficient manner1. It also helps to meet legal requirements, enable long-term analysis, and support new projects and team members1. If the documentation was not archived as per the PMO standards, it would be difficult for the current project manager to find the relevant documents and learn from the previous project. This would cause the current project manager to keep asking questions to the previous project manager, who may not have all the answers or may not be available. Therefore, the most likely cause of this situation is that the documentation was not archived as per the PMO standards.
Reference = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 14: Closing the Project, page 403; How to Archive a Completed Project: A Guide for PMOs, Introduction and Benefits sections.
Question #50
During a status meeting, the development team reviews work and finds an unforeseen dependency on one of the critical project activities. As a result, the project will most likely be delayed.
Which of the following actions should the project manager MOST likely perform?
- A . Work with the project scheduler to update the project timeline.
- B . Communicate to the stakeholders about the updated timeline.
- C . Ask the development team to fast-track upcoming activities.
- D . Add two resources so the critical activities will finish on time.
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
Work with the project scheduler to update the project timeline. The project manager should work with the project scheduler to update the project timeline after finding an unforeseen dependency on one of the critical project activities that will most likely cause a delay. The project scheduler is a person or a tool that helps plan, schedule, monitor, and control the project activities and resources. The project scheduler can help the project manager to assess the impact of the dependency on the project schedule and identify any possible ways to mitigate or resolve it. The project scheduler can also help to update the project timeline with the revised dates and durations of the project activities and communicate them to the relevant stakeholders.
A
Explanation:
Work with the project scheduler to update the project timeline. The project manager should work with the project scheduler to update the project timeline after finding an unforeseen dependency on one of the critical project activities that will most likely cause a delay. The project scheduler is a person or a tool that helps plan, schedule, monitor, and control the project activities and resources. The project scheduler can help the project manager to assess the impact of the dependency on the project schedule and identify any possible ways to mitigate or resolve it. The project scheduler can also help to update the project timeline with the revised dates and durations of the project activities and communicate them to the relevant stakeholders.
Question #51
Which of the following PRINCE2 processes includes creating the project plan?
- A . Starting up a project
- B . Initiating a project
- C . Managing product delivery
- D . Directing a project
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
According to PRINCE2, a project management methodology, the process of initiating a project includes creating the project plan, which is a high-level plan that covers the whole project scope, schedule, budget, quality, and risks. The project plan is based on the project brief, the business case, and the product descriptions. The project plan is used to obtain the authorization from the project board to initiate and execute the project. The project plan is also refined and updated throughout the project life cycle as more information becomes available.
The other processes are not directly involved in creating the project plan. Starting up a project is a pre-project process that ensures the project is viable and worthwhile, and produces the project brief
and the initiation stage plan. Managing product delivery is a process that coordinates the delivery of products from the team managers to the project manager, and ensures that the work conforms to the quality criteria and the project plan. Directing a project is a process that enables the project board to oversee and control the project, and make key decisions and approvals.
Reference = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 5: Project Scope Management1; CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide, 3rd Edition, Chapter 5: Project Scope Management2; PRINCE2 Processes – 7 Processes Of PRINCE2 Explained3; Initiating a Project Process – This process i s the procedure which defines the product quality, Project Product, project timeline, costs, the commitment of resources, risk analysis, and assembles the Project Initiation Documentation (PID)4
B
Explanation:
According to PRINCE2, a project management methodology, the process of initiating a project includes creating the project plan, which is a high-level plan that covers the whole project scope, schedule, budget, quality, and risks. The project plan is based on the project brief, the business case, and the product descriptions. The project plan is used to obtain the authorization from the project board to initiate and execute the project. The project plan is also refined and updated throughout the project life cycle as more information becomes available.
The other processes are not directly involved in creating the project plan. Starting up a project is a pre-project process that ensures the project is viable and worthwhile, and produces the project brief
and the initiation stage plan. Managing product delivery is a process that coordinates the delivery of products from the team managers to the project manager, and ensures that the work conforms to the quality criteria and the project plan. Directing a project is a process that enables the project board to oversee and control the project, and make key decisions and approvals.
Reference = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 5: Project Scope Management1; CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide, 3rd Edition, Chapter 5: Project Scope Management2; PRINCE2 Processes – 7 Processes Of PRINCE2 Explained3; Initiating a Project Process – This process i s the procedure which defines the product quality, Project Product, project timeline, costs, the commitment of resources, risk analysis, and assembles the Project Initiation Documentation (PID)4
Question #52
An existing application that is highly utilized by clients is moving to a new release.
Which of the following environments contains this application?
- A . Development
- B . Production
- C . Testing
- D . QA
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
This is where an existing application that is highly utilized by clients is moving to a new release, as it involves deploying and operating it in a live environment.
Reference = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide1, Chapter 4: Project Environments
B
Explanation:
This is where an existing application that is highly utilized by clients is moving to a new release, as it involves deploying and operating it in a live environment.
Reference = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide1, Chapter 4: Project Environments
Question #53
A meeting agenda included the following items:
. Review the goals of the project.
. Review the progress of the project.
. Discuss if the project is ready to move forward.
Which of the following best describes this type of meeting?
- A . Stand-up
- B . Monthly status
- C . Gap analysis
- D . Gate review
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
A gate review is a type of meeting that evaluates the completion and quality of a project stage and decides whether the project can proceed to the next stage. A gate review is a formal governance step that involves reviewing the goals, progress, risks, deliverables, and benefits of the project, and discussing if the project is still aligned with the business strategy and stakeholder expectations. A gate review can have different outcomes, such as go, kill, hold, recycle, or conditional go, depending on the assessment of the project status and viability123.
Reference = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 9: Project Change Management, p. 323; Everything Project Managers Need To Know About Gate Reviews | monday.com Blog; Gate reviews: What to do and why you need them – Rebel’s Guide to Project Management; Gates and How to Operate Them – GenSight
D
Explanation:
A gate review is a type of meeting that evaluates the completion and quality of a project stage and decides whether the project can proceed to the next stage. A gate review is a formal governance step that involves reviewing the goals, progress, risks, deliverables, and benefits of the project, and discussing if the project is still aligned with the business strategy and stakeholder expectations. A gate review can have different outcomes, such as go, kill, hold, recycle, or conditional go, depending on the assessment of the project status and viability123.
Reference = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 9: Project Change Management, p. 323; Everything Project Managers Need To Know About Gate Reviews | monday.com Blog; Gate reviews: What to do and why you need them – Rebel’s Guide to Project Management; Gates and How to Operate Them – GenSight
Question #54
During the planning phase, a PM reviews the SOW from the contractor, grades the full-time
equivalents’ resumes, evaluates the titles and salaries, and estimates the number of hours for each milestone by full-time equivalents.
The PM is most likely:
- A . negotiating resources.
- B . assigning resources.
- C . assessing the resource pool.
- D . adding resources to the schedule.
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
Assessing the resource pool is the process of identifying and evaluating the availability, skills, and costs of the resources needed for the project. The PM reviews the SOW from the contractor to understand the scope and requirements of the project, grades the full-time equivalents’ resumes to determine their qualifications and suitability for the project, evaluates the titles and salaries to estimate the budget and allocation of the resources, and estimates the number of hours for each milestone by full-time equivalents to plan the schedule and workload of the project12.
C
Explanation:
Assessing the resource pool is the process of identifying and evaluating the availability, skills, and costs of the resources needed for the project. The PM reviews the SOW from the contractor to understand the scope and requirements of the project, grades the full-time equivalents’ resumes to determine their qualifications and suitability for the project, evaluates the titles and salaries to estimate the budget and allocation of the resources, and estimates the number of hours for each milestone by full-time equivalents to plan the schedule and workload of the project12.
Question #55
Following the approval of a change by the CCB, which of the following should a project manager consider next when deploying a new networking device into an existing production environment?
- A . Maintenance window
- B . Risk assessment
- C . Operational security
- D . Validation check
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
A maintenance window is a predefined period of time during which planned changes or updates can be performed on a system or network with minimal impact on the users or business operations1. A project manager should consider the maintenance window next when deploying a new networking device into an existing production environment, as it will help to reduce the risk of downtime, disruption, or errors. A maintenance window should be scheduled in advance, communicated to the stakeholders, and aligned with the change management plan2.
A
Explanation:
A maintenance window is a predefined period of time during which planned changes or updates can be performed on a system or network with minimal impact on the users or business operations1. A project manager should consider the maintenance window next when deploying a new networking device into an existing production environment, as it will help to reduce the risk of downtime, disruption, or errors. A maintenance window should be scheduled in advance, communicated to the stakeholders, and aligned with the change management plan2.
Question #56
When creating a project schedule, a project manager adds activities with zero duration.
Which of the following describes these types of activities?
- A . Critical paths
- B . Resources
- C . Milestones
- D . Work breakdown structures
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
Milestones are activities with zero duration that are added to a project schedule by a project manager. Milestones are significant events or achievements in a project that mark the completion of a phase, deliverable, or task. Milestones can help to track and measure the progress and performance of a project and communicate it to stakeholders.
C
Explanation:
Milestones are activities with zero duration that are added to a project schedule by a project manager. Milestones are significant events or achievements in a project that mark the completion of a phase, deliverable, or task. Milestones can help to track and measure the progress and performance of a project and communicate it to stakeholders.
Question #57
Which of the following is the best example of a breach of physical security?
- A . System user IDs being used by multiple individuals
- B . Printers that do not request user authentication
- C . Developers having full access to both development and production environments
- D . Project documentation that is only kept on a removable device
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
A breach of physical security is an unauthorized access or damage to physical assets, such as equipment, data, or personnel. Project documentation that is only kept on a removable device is the best example of a breach of physical security, because it exposes sensitive information to theft, loss, or corruption. If the removable device is not encrypted or protected, anyone who obtains it can access the project documentation and compromise the project integrity, confidentiality, or availability. Therefore, project documentation should be stored in a secure location, backed up regularly, and protected by access controls and encryption.
The other options are not examples of physical security breaches, but rather logical or administrative security breaches. System user IDs being used by multiple individuals is a violation of the principle of least privilege and accountability, which could lead to unauthorized access or misuse of system resources. Printers that do not request user authentication is a lack of proper access control, which could allow unauthorized printing or retrieval of confidential documents. Developers having full access to both development and production environments is a violation of the principle of separation of duties and environments, which could introduce errors, conflicts, or malicious code into the production system.
Reference = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 9: Security Management1; CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide, 3rd Edition, Chapter 9: Security Management2; Types of Security Breaches: Physical and Digital3
D
Explanation:
A breach of physical security is an unauthorized access or damage to physical assets, such as equipment, data, or personnel. Project documentation that is only kept on a removable device is the best example of a breach of physical security, because it exposes sensitive information to theft, loss, or corruption. If the removable device is not encrypted or protected, anyone who obtains it can access the project documentation and compromise the project integrity, confidentiality, or availability. Therefore, project documentation should be stored in a secure location, backed up regularly, and protected by access controls and encryption.
The other options are not examples of physical security breaches, but rather logical or administrative security breaches. System user IDs being used by multiple individuals is a violation of the principle of least privilege and accountability, which could lead to unauthorized access or misuse of system resources. Printers that do not request user authentication is a lack of proper access control, which could allow unauthorized printing or retrieval of confidential documents. Developers having full access to both development and production environments is a violation of the principle of separation of duties and environments, which could introduce errors, conflicts, or malicious code into the production system.
Reference = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 9: Security Management1; CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide, 3rd Edition, Chapter 9: Security Management2; Types of Security Breaches: Physical and Digital3
Question #58
An software engineer is applying new updates to a program in a sandbox environment.
Which of the following risk strategies best describes this practice?
- A . Transfer
- B . Mitigate
- C . Avoid
- D . Accept
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
Mitigate is a risk strategy that involves taking actions to reduce the probability or impact of a risk. By applying new updates to a program in a sandbox environment, the software engineer is testing the changes before implementing them in the actual system, thus minimizing the chance of errors or failures that could affect the project1.
B
Explanation:
Mitigate is a risk strategy that involves taking actions to reduce the probability or impact of a risk. By applying new updates to a program in a sandbox environment, the software engineer is testing the changes before implementing them in the actual system, thus minimizing the chance of errors or failures that could affect the project1.
Question #59
Which of the following requires the MOST availability from the business team?
- A . SDLC
- B . Scrum
- C . PRINCE2
- D . Waterfall
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
Scrum requires the most availability from the business team among the given options. Scrum is a popular agile framework that organizes work into short iterations called sprints, usually lasting one to four weeks. Scrum emphasizes collaboration between teams, customers, and stakeholders and encourages open communication and transparency throughout the project lifecycle. Scrum requires frequent involvement and feedback from the business team through activities such as product backlog refinement, sprint planning, sprint review, sprint retrospective, and daily scrum meetings.
B
Explanation:
Scrum requires the most availability from the business team among the given options. Scrum is a popular agile framework that organizes work into short iterations called sprints, usually lasting one to four weeks. Scrum emphasizes collaboration between teams, customers, and stakeholders and encourages open communication and transparency throughout the project lifecycle. Scrum requires frequent involvement and feedback from the business team through activities such as product backlog refinement, sprint planning, sprint review, sprint retrospective, and daily scrum meetings.
Question #60
Which of the following software programs would be BEST to use lo store information related to business transactions?
- A . Record management system
- B . Customer relationship management
- C . Enterprise resource planning
- D . Content management system
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
Customer relationship management (CRM) software would be the best to use to store information related to business transactions. CRM software is a type of software that helps businesses manage their interactions and relationships with current and potential customers. CRM software can store and organize information such as customer contact details, purchase history, preferences, feedback, complaints, etc. CRM software can help businesses improve customer service, satisfaction, loyalty, retention, and revenue1
B
Explanation:
Customer relationship management (CRM) software would be the best to use to store information related to business transactions. CRM software is a type of software that helps businesses manage their interactions and relationships with current and potential customers. CRM software can store and organize information such as customer contact details, purchase history, preferences, feedback, complaints, etc. CRM software can help businesses improve customer service, satisfaction, loyalty, retention, and revenue1
Question #61
During the execution phase, user accepted testing failed; nonetheless, the vendor PM is insisting that the program manager approve the invoice for this phase.
Which of the following actions should the Program manager take?
- A . Escalate the issue with the project sponsor and ask for assistance in managing the situation.
- B . Work with the vendor to achieve a compromise that benefits everyone.
- C . Approve the invoice to avoid damaging the relationship with the vendor.
- D . Schedule a call with the vendor PM and vendor executive to review the statement of work.
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
The program manager should schedule a call with the vendor PM and vendor executive to review the statement of work (SOW), which is a document that defines the scope, deliverables, timeline, quality, and payment terms of the project. The program manager should clarify the expectations and criteria for user acceptance testing (UAT), which is a process of verifying that the system meets the user’s requirements and expectations. The program manager should also discuss the reasons for the UAT failure and the corrective actions needed to resolve the issues. The program manager should not approve the invoice until the UAT is successfully completed, as this would compromise the quality and value of the project. The program manager should also not escalate the issue or work on a compromise without first reviewing the SOW and communicating with the vendor12.
D
Explanation:
The program manager should schedule a call with the vendor PM and vendor executive to review the statement of work (SOW), which is a document that defines the scope, deliverables, timeline, quality, and payment terms of the project. The program manager should clarify the expectations and criteria for user acceptance testing (UAT), which is a process of verifying that the system meets the user’s requirements and expectations. The program manager should also discuss the reasons for the UAT failure and the corrective actions needed to resolve the issues. The program manager should not approve the invoice until the UAT is successfully completed, as this would compromise the quality and value of the project. The program manager should also not escalate the issue or work on a compromise without first reviewing the SOW and communicating with the vendor12.
Question #62
A project sponsor asked the PM to provide a summary of the current financial status.
The PM uses the following burn up chart for the analysis:
Based on the chart, which of the following is the current status of the project?
- A . Behind schedule and over budget
- B . Behind schedule and under budget
- C . Ahead of schedule and over budget
- D . Ahead of schedule and under budget
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
The project manager can use the burn up chart to analyze the current status of the project based on its scope (value delivered), budget (cost), and schedule (time). A burn up chart is a graphical tool that shows how much work has been completed (burned up) versus how much work remains (scope) over time. It also shows how much budget has been spent (burned up) versus how much budget remains (budget) over time. A burn up chart can help to monitor and control the project progress and performance and identify any variances or deviations from the plan. The chart given shows that both scope and budget lines are above their respective target lines at any given time point. This means that less work has been completed than planned (scope variance) and more money has been spent than planned (budget variance) at any given time point. Therefore, the project is behind schedule and over budget.
A
Explanation:
The project manager can use the burn up chart to analyze the current status of the project based on its scope (value delivered), budget (cost), and schedule (time). A burn up chart is a graphical tool that shows how much work has been completed (burned up) versus how much work remains (scope) over time. It also shows how much budget has been spent (burned up) versus how much budget remains (budget) over time. A burn up chart can help to monitor and control the project progress and performance and identify any variances or deviations from the plan. The chart given shows that both scope and budget lines are above their respective target lines at any given time point. This means that less work has been completed than planned (scope variance) and more money has been spent than planned (budget variance) at any given time point. Therefore, the project is behind schedule and over budget.
Question #63
Which of the following would be MOST beneficial to do before a call to ensure all meeting items are addressed and the correct participants attend?
- A . Assign action items to attendees.
- B . Distribute an agenda.
- C . Email the minutes from the previous meeting.
- D . Schedule a convenient time.
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
The project manager should distribute an agenda before a call to ensure all meeting items are addressed and the correct participants attend. An agenda is a document that outlines the purpose, topics, and objectives of a meeting. It also includes information such as date, time, duration, location, attendees, and roles. Distributing an agenda can help to prepare the participants for the meeting, set clear expectations, and facilitate a productive and focused discussion12
B
Explanation:
The project manager should distribute an agenda before a call to ensure all meeting items are addressed and the correct participants attend. An agenda is a document that outlines the purpose, topics, and objectives of a meeting. It also includes information such as date, time, duration, location, attendees, and roles. Distributing an agenda can help to prepare the participants for the meeting, set clear expectations, and facilitate a productive and focused discussion12
Question #64
Which of the following BEST describes how an organization should coordinate management of multiple related projects?
- A . Apply the SDLC process.
- B . Establish a program.
- C . Consult the CCB.
- D . Use different frameworks
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
The BEST way to coordinate management of multiple related projects is to establish a program. A program is a group of related projects that are managed together to achieve specific strategic business objectives.
Reference: CompTIA Project+ Study Guide Section 2.2.1 The organization should establish a program to coordinate management of multiple related projects. A program is a group of related projects, subprograms, and program activities that are managed in a coordinated way to obtain benefits and control not available from managing them individually. A program can help to align multiple projects with strategic goals, optimize resources and risks, and deliver value to stakeholders.
B
Explanation:
The BEST way to coordinate management of multiple related projects is to establish a program. A program is a group of related projects that are managed together to achieve specific strategic business objectives.
Reference: CompTIA Project+ Study Guide Section 2.2.1 The organization should establish a program to coordinate management of multiple related projects. A program is a group of related projects, subprograms, and program activities that are managed in a coordinated way to obtain benefits and control not available from managing them individually. A program can help to align multiple projects with strategic goals, optimize resources and risks, and deliver value to stakeholders.
Question #65
During the testing phase of a project, the legal department rejected a deliverable due to compliance issues. The project manager reviewed the risk register and triggered the mitigation plan for this item.
Which of the following documents should the project manager update next?
- A . Schedule
- B . Status report
- C . Issue log
- D . Task board
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
An issue log is a document that records and tracks any issues that arise during a project and how they are resolved1. It is different from a risk register, which records and tracks potential risks that may or may not occur during a project2. When a risk becomes an issue, it means that it has occurred and has a negative impact on the project. Therefore, the project manager should update the issue log next to document the compliance issue, its cause, its impact, its priority, its owner, and its resolution status3. Updating the issue log will help the project manager communicate the issue to the stakeholders, monitor the progress of the mitigation plan, and prevent similar issues from happening again4.
Reference = CompTIA Project+ PK0-005 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 11: Executing Projects Part 2, page 331; Project Risk Mitigation Guide + Starter Kit | Smartsheet, Risk Register section; How to Make a Risk Management Plan (Template Included) – ProjectManager, Risk Register section; Issue Log
– Project Management Knowledge, Introduction section; Issue Log Template: Free Download | ProjectManager, Introduction and How to Use an Issue Log sections.
C
Explanation:
An issue log is a document that records and tracks any issues that arise during a project and how they are resolved1. It is different from a risk register, which records and tracks potential risks that may or may not occur during a project2. When a risk becomes an issue, it means that it has occurred and has a negative impact on the project. Therefore, the project manager should update the issue log next to document the compliance issue, its cause, its impact, its priority, its owner, and its resolution status3. Updating the issue log will help the project manager communicate the issue to the stakeholders, monitor the progress of the mitigation plan, and prevent similar issues from happening again4.
Reference = CompTIA Project+ PK0-005 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 11: Executing Projects Part 2, page 331; Project Risk Mitigation Guide + Starter Kit | Smartsheet, Risk Register section; How to Make a Risk Management Plan (Template Included) – ProjectManager, Risk Register section; Issue Log
– Project Management Knowledge, Introduction section; Issue Log Template: Free Download | ProjectManager, Introduction and How to Use an Issue Log sections.
Question #66
While working in a collaborative, online brainstorming session, team members send private messages to the facilitator about challenges understanding others when they are speaking due to accents and background noises.
Which of the following should the facilitator do to overcome the challenges?
- A . Instruct the team members to set their speakers to maximum volume and mute their microphones.
- B . Require everyone to turn on their cameras and use the same background filter.
- C . Encourage the use of the chat and use plain language when speaking.
- D . Allow one person to speak at a time after receiving acknowledgment from the facilitator.
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
Using the chat and plain language can help overcome the communication barriers caused by accents and background noises. Chat allows team members to write down their ideas and questions, which can be easier to understand than spoken words. Plain language reduces the ambiguity and complexity of the messages, making them more clear and concise. These techniques can also enhance the participation and engagement of the team members, as they can express their thoughts and opinions more comfortably and confidently.
Reference = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 4: Communication and Change Management, p. 97-98.
C
Explanation:
Using the chat and plain language can help overcome the communication barriers caused by accents and background noises. Chat allows team members to write down their ideas and questions, which can be easier to understand than spoken words. Plain language reduces the ambiguity and complexity of the messages, making them more clear and concise. These techniques can also enhance the participation and engagement of the team members, as they can express their thoughts and opinions more comfortably and confidently.
Reference = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 4: Communication and Change Management, p. 97-98.
Question #67
Given the following network diagram:
Which of the following is the critical path?
- A . A-C-G-K-M
- B . A-B-D-l-L-M
- C . A-B-E-J-L-M
- D . A-B-F-L-M
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
The critical path is the sequence of tasks that determines the minimum project duration. It is the longest path through the network diagram and has the least amount of slack or float. Based on the provided network diagram, the critical path is A-C-G-K-M, which has the longest total duration when adding up the individual task durations.
Reference = The concept of the critical path is covered in the CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide1. For more detailed information on how to calculate and identify the critical path in project management, you can refer to the study guide and other project management resources2.
A
Explanation:
The critical path is the sequence of tasks that determines the minimum project duration. It is the longest path through the network diagram and has the least amount of slack or float. Based on the provided network diagram, the critical path is A-C-G-K-M, which has the longest total duration when adding up the individual task durations.
Reference = The concept of the critical path is covered in the CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide1. For more detailed information on how to calculate and identify the critical path in project management, you can refer to the study guide and other project management resources2.
Question #68
During the execution phase of a project, the project team faced an unexpected website downtime The project manager how a brainstorming session and the team identified causes and effects tor the problem Now the project team needs to analyze and determine whether the particular cause and effect are related by using one of the following charts.
Which of the following should the team use?
A)
B)
C)
D)
- A . Option A
- B . Option B
- C . Option C
- D . Option D
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
Option A shows a cause and effect diagram, also known as a fishbone diagram or an Ishikawa diagram1. This is a tool that helps to identify and analyze the root causes of a problem by displaying the possible causes and effects in a graphical format2. A cause and effect diagram can help the project team to determine whether the particular cause and effect are related by using a systematic and logical approach, such as asking "why" questions or using the 5 Whys technique34. A cause and effect diagram is better than the other options because:
Option B shows a Gantt chart, which is a tool that helps to plan and track the tasks, dependencies, durations, and resources of a project along a timeline5. A Gantt chart does not focus on the causes and effects of a problem, but rather on the sequence and progress of the project activities.
Option C shows a pie chart, which is a tool that helps to compare and visualize the proportions of different categories or segments of data6. A pie chart does not show the relationships between the causes and effects of a problem, but rather the distribution of the data values.
Option D shows a scatter plot, which is a tool that helps to examine the correlation or association between two variables or sets of data7. A scatter plot does not show the causes and effects of a problem, but rather the pattern or trend of the data points.
Reference = CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide8, CompTIA Project+ Certification Exam Objectives9, Cause and Effect Diagrams for PMP1, Cause and Effect Analysis: Using Fishbone Diagram and 5 Whys2, How to Create a Cause and Effect Diagram3, How to Use Cause and Effect Analysis to Solve Business Problems4, What is a Gantt Chart?5, What is a Pie Chart?6, What is a Scatter Plot?7
A
Explanation:
Option A shows a cause and effect diagram, also known as a fishbone diagram or an Ishikawa diagram1. This is a tool that helps to identify and analyze the root causes of a problem by displaying the possible causes and effects in a graphical format2. A cause and effect diagram can help the project team to determine whether the particular cause and effect are related by using a systematic and logical approach, such as asking "why" questions or using the 5 Whys technique34. A cause and effect diagram is better than the other options because:
Option B shows a Gantt chart, which is a tool that helps to plan and track the tasks, dependencies, durations, and resources of a project along a timeline5. A Gantt chart does not focus on the causes and effects of a problem, but rather on the sequence and progress of the project activities.
Option C shows a pie chart, which is a tool that helps to compare and visualize the proportions of different categories or segments of data6. A pie chart does not show the relationships between the causes and effects of a problem, but rather the distribution of the data values.
Option D shows a scatter plot, which is a tool that helps to examine the correlation or association between two variables or sets of data7. A scatter plot does not show the causes and effects of a problem, but rather the pattern or trend of the data points.
Reference = CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide8, CompTIA Project+ Certification Exam Objectives9, Cause and Effect Diagrams for PMP1, Cause and Effect Analysis: Using Fishbone Diagram and 5 Whys2, How to Create a Cause and Effect Diagram3, How to Use Cause and Effect Analysis to Solve Business Problems4, What is a Gantt Chart?5, What is a Pie Chart?6, What is a Scatter Plot?7
Question #69
A visual that displays team progress was created for stand-up meetings.
Which of the following BEST describes what is being represented on the visual?
- A . Decision board
- B . Whiteboard
- C . Task board
- D . Dashboard
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
A task board is a visual tool that displays team progress for stand-up meetings. A task board usually consists of columns that represent different stages or statuses of tasks, such as to do, in progress, done, or blocked. Each task is represented by a card or sticky note that can be moved across the columns as the task progresses. A task board can help to facilitate communication, collaboration, and transparency among team members and stakeholders. It can also help to track and manage work flow, prioritize tasks, identify bottlenecks, and resolve issues3
C
Explanation:
A task board is a visual tool that displays team progress for stand-up meetings. A task board usually consists of columns that represent different stages or statuses of tasks, such as to do, in progress, done, or blocked. Each task is represented by a card or sticky note that can be moved across the columns as the task progresses. A task board can help to facilitate communication, collaboration, and transparency among team members and stakeholders. It can also help to track and manage work flow, prioritize tasks, identify bottlenecks, and resolve issues3
Question #70
During a sponsor meeting, a PM is assigned to manage a new external project for an IT consultant. The sponsor wants the PM to establish an agreement regarding the exchange of money between both parties.
Which of the following documents would the PM most likely create?
- A . Business requirement
- B . Client statement of work
- C . Formal contract
- D . Project charter
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
A formal contract is a legal document that defines the terms and conditions of the agreement between the project parties, such as the scope, schedule, budget, quality, deliverables, roles and responsibilities, payment methods, and dispute resolution mechanisms. A formal contract is essential for external projects, especially when there is an exchange of money involved, to protect the interests and rights of both parties and to ensure mutual understanding and compliance. A formal contract is different from a business requirement, which is a statement of the needs and expectations of the customer or stakeholder for the project outcome. A formal contract is also different from a client statement of work, which is a document that describes the work to be performed, the deliverables to be provided, and the acceptance criteria to be met by the project vendor or contractor. A formal contract is also different from a project charter, which is a document that authorizes the project and provides the high-level information about the project objectives, scope, stakeholders, and project manager.
Reference = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 4: Project Integration Management1; CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide, 3rd Edition, Chapter 4: Project Integration Management2; 11 Essential Documents To Use as a Project Manager3
C
Explanation:
A formal contract is a legal document that defines the terms and conditions of the agreement between the project parties, such as the scope, schedule, budget, quality, deliverables, roles and responsibilities, payment methods, and dispute resolution mechanisms. A formal contract is essential for external projects, especially when there is an exchange of money involved, to protect the interests and rights of both parties and to ensure mutual understanding and compliance. A formal contract is different from a business requirement, which is a statement of the needs and expectations of the customer or stakeholder for the project outcome. A formal contract is also different from a client statement of work, which is a document that describes the work to be performed, the deliverables to be provided, and the acceptance criteria to be met by the project vendor or contractor. A formal contract is also different from a project charter, which is a document that authorizes the project and provides the high-level information about the project objectives, scope, stakeholders, and project manager.
Reference = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 4: Project Integration Management1; CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide, 3rd Edition, Chapter 4: Project Integration Management2; 11 Essential Documents To Use as a Project Manager3
Question #71
As part of the planning phase, a PM has defined tasks, durations, resources, and costs.
Which of the following is the NEXT step in the process?
- A . Update the work breakdown structure.
- B . Review the backlog.
- C . Seek baseline approval.
- D . Establish the resource pool.
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
The next step in the process after defining tasks, durations, resources, and costs is to seek baseline approval. A baseline is an approved version of a project plan that serves as a reference point for measuring progress and performance throughout the project lifecycle. A baseline typically includes scope, schedule, cost, quality, and risk parameters. Seeking baseline approval involves presenting the project plan to key stakeholders and obtaining their formal agreement on the project objectives and deliverables. Baseline approval can help to establish clear expectations, avoid scope creep, and facilitate change control during project execution.
The NEXT step after defining tasks, durations, resources, and costs during the planning phase is to seek baseline approval. Baseline approval involves finalizing the project plan and gaining approval from stakeholders, establishing the plan as the baseline for the project’s performance.
Reference: CompTIA Project+ Study Guide Section 3.4.1
C
Explanation:
The next step in the process after defining tasks, durations, resources, and costs is to seek baseline approval. A baseline is an approved version of a project plan that serves as a reference point for measuring progress and performance throughout the project lifecycle. A baseline typically includes scope, schedule, cost, quality, and risk parameters. Seeking baseline approval involves presenting the project plan to key stakeholders and obtaining their formal agreement on the project objectives and deliverables. Baseline approval can help to establish clear expectations, avoid scope creep, and facilitate change control during project execution.
The NEXT step after defining tasks, durations, resources, and costs during the planning phase is to seek baseline approval. Baseline approval involves finalizing the project plan and gaining approval from stakeholders, establishing the plan as the baseline for the project’s performance.
Reference: CompTIA Project+ Study Guide Section 3.4.1
Question #72
The high-level technical requirements for a new application state that the application should be suitable to support enterprise-level client-server solutions.
Which of the following meets these requirements?
- A . Data warehouse
- B . SQL database
- C . Multitier architecture
- D . Content management system
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
Multitier architecture is a type of software architecture that is suitable to support enterprise-level client-server solutions. Multitier architecture divides an application into logical layers or tiers that are distributed among different servers or machines. Each tier performs a specific function or role and communicates with other tiers through well-defined interfaces. Multitier architecture can provide benefits such as scalability, performance, security, maintainability, and reusability for complex and large-scale applications.
C
Explanation:
Multitier architecture is a type of software architecture that is suitable to support enterprise-level client-server solutions. Multitier architecture divides an application into logical layers or tiers that are distributed among different servers or machines. Each tier performs a specific function or role and communicates with other tiers through well-defined interfaces. Multitier architecture can provide benefits such as scalability, performance, security, maintainability, and reusability for complex and large-scale applications.
Question #73
A project manager needs to update the project sponsor and senior stakeholders about the progress of a project.
Which of the following tools will the project manager MOST likely use?
- A . Dashboard
- B . Gantt chart
- C . Work breakdown structure
- D . Requirements Traceability Matrix
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
A dashboard is a tool that the project manager will most likely use to update the project sponsor and senior stakeholders about the progress of a project. A dashboard is a graphical tool that displays key performance indicators (KPIs), metrics, and data related to a project using charts, graphs, tables, or other visual elements. A dashboard can help to provide a quick and easy overview of the project status and performance and highlight any issues or risks that need attention.
A
Explanation:
A dashboard is a tool that the project manager will most likely use to update the project sponsor and senior stakeholders about the progress of a project. A dashboard is a graphical tool that displays key performance indicators (KPIs), metrics, and data related to a project using charts, graphs, tables, or other visual elements. A dashboard can help to provide a quick and easy overview of the project status and performance and highlight any issues or risks that need attention.
Question #74
A project manager is organizing and running a project closure meeting.
Which of the following best describes the objective of this meeting?
- A . To move the system to a production environment
- B . To obtain project sign-off
- C . To formalize the end of the contract
- D . To release resources
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
A project closure meeting is a formal gathering held at the end of a project timeline. Its chief purpose is to evaluate the project’s performance, identify and discuss the achieved outcomes, successes, and challenges, and confirm that all predefined tasks and objectives have been completed successfully1.
The project closure meeting also involves obtaining project sign-off from all necessary parties, such as the project sponsor, the client, the stakeholders, and the team members. Project sign-off is the
official approval that the project has met the agreed-upon criteria and quality standards, and that the project is formally closed2.
B
Explanation:
A project closure meeting is a formal gathering held at the end of a project timeline. Its chief purpose is to evaluate the project’s performance, identify and discuss the achieved outcomes, successes, and challenges, and confirm that all predefined tasks and objectives have been completed successfully1.
The project closure meeting also involves obtaining project sign-off from all necessary parties, such as the project sponsor, the client, the stakeholders, and the team members. Project sign-off is the
official approval that the project has met the agreed-upon criteria and quality standards, and that the project is formally closed2.
Question #75
A project manager sent equipment to a global project team for testing purposes. Only 70% of the project team received the equipment for testing.
Which of the following considerations is impacting the rest of the team?
- A . Quality assurance
- B . Organizational branding restrictions
- C . State privacy acts
- D . Country legal regulations
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
Country legal regulations. Country legal regulations are impacting the rest of the team that did not receive the equipment for testing. Country legal regulations are rules and laws that govern how businesses operate in different countries. They may include aspects such as customs, tariffs, taxes, import and export restrictions, data protection, intellectual property rights, and environmental standards. Country legal regulations can affect the delivery and use of equipment for a global project team and may require compliance with different procedures and documentation3
D
Explanation:
Country legal regulations. Country legal regulations are impacting the rest of the team that did not receive the equipment for testing. Country legal regulations are rules and laws that govern how businesses operate in different countries. They may include aspects such as customs, tariffs, taxes, import and export restrictions, data protection, intellectual property rights, and environmental standards. Country legal regulations can affect the delivery and use of equipment for a global project team and may require compliance with different procedures and documentation3
Question #76
After a release, the project sponsor received an escalation from an executive about the extension of the downtime after the scheduled window.
Which of the following should be added to the issue log?
- A . Continuous integration
- B . Rollback plan
- C . Customer notification
- D . Automated testing
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
Customer notification should be added to the issue log after receiving an escalation from an executive about the extension of the downtime after the scheduled window. Customer notification is a communication activity that informs the customers about any issues or changes that may affect their satisfaction or expectations. Customer notification can help to maintain trust, transparency, and goodwill with the customers and prevent any negative impacts on their business operations or experience.
C
Explanation:
Customer notification should be added to the issue log after receiving an escalation from an executive about the extension of the downtime after the scheduled window. Customer notification is a communication activity that informs the customers about any issues or changes that may affect their satisfaction or expectations. Customer notification can help to maintain trust, transparency, and goodwill with the customers and prevent any negative impacts on their business operations or experience.
Question #77
After a product is released for production, a tester performs a test to ensure its basic functionality is working as expected.
Which of the following is the tester performing?
- A . Smoke test
- B . Stress test
- C . Penetration test
- D . Regression test
Correct Answer: A
Question #78
A project manager is in the process of evaluating the probability and impact of a risk by assigning numbers such as a monetary value.
Which of the following is the project manager using?
- A . Monte Carlo simulation
- B . Root cause analysis
- C . Quantitative risk analysis
- D . Risk response analysis
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
Quantitative risk analysis involves numerically analyzing the effect of identified risks on overall project objectives. It often includes assigning monetary values to risks to understand their impact in financial terms, helping in prioritizing risks based on their potential cost or impact on the project. This contrasts with qualitative risk analysis, which assesses risks based on their probability and impact but does not assign numerical values.
C
Explanation:
Quantitative risk analysis involves numerically analyzing the effect of identified risks on overall project objectives. It often includes assigning monetary values to risks to understand their impact in financial terms, helping in prioritizing risks based on their potential cost or impact on the project. This contrasts with qualitative risk analysis, which assesses risks based on their probability and impact but does not assign numerical values.
Question #79
During the testing phase of a project, the regression test fails due to a specific item that is disrupting the entire system.
Which of the following documents should the project manager use to identify who requested this item?
- A . Issue log
- B . Risk register
- C . Defect log
- D . Traceability matrix
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
A traceability matrix is a document that maps the requirements of a project to the deliverables, test cases, and changes that are produced to meet those requirements. It helps the project manager to track the origin, status, and impact of each requirement throughout the project life cycle. A traceability matrix can also identify who requested or approved each requirement. Therefore, the project manager can use the traceability matrix to identify who requested the specific item that caused the regression test to fail12.
D
Explanation:
A traceability matrix is a document that maps the requirements of a project to the deliverables, test cases, and changes that are produced to meet those requirements. It helps the project manager to track the origin, status, and impact of each requirement throughout the project life cycle. A traceability matrix can also identify who requested or approved each requirement. Therefore, the project manager can use the traceability matrix to identify who requested the specific item that caused the regression test to fail12.
Question #80
Two stakeholders, who have a history of animosity toward one another, are in disagreement during a project. The project’s timeline depends on the stakeholders accomplishing their tasks.
Which of the following conflict resolution methods would be best to utilize?
- A . Smoothing
- B . Confronting
- C . Forcing
- D . Compromising
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
Confronting, also known as problem-solving or collaborating, is a method of conflict resolution that involves addressing the root cause of the conflict and finding a mutually beneficial solution that satisfies both parties. Confronting is the most effective method when the stakes are high and the relationship is important, as it can lead to increased trust, respect, and cooperation. Confronting requires open communication, active listening, empathy, and creativity from both parties. Confronting is the best method to use in this scenario, as it can help the stakeholders overcome their personal animosity, focus on their common goals, and work together to complete their tasks on time12.
Reference = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 7: Project Stakeholder Management, p. 246; What is Conflict Resolution, and How Does It Work?
B
Explanation:
Confronting, also known as problem-solving or collaborating, is a method of conflict resolution that involves addressing the root cause of the conflict and finding a mutually beneficial solution that satisfies both parties. Confronting is the most effective method when the stakes are high and the relationship is important, as it can lead to increased trust, respect, and cooperation. Confronting requires open communication, active listening, empathy, and creativity from both parties. Confronting is the best method to use in this scenario, as it can help the stakeholders overcome their personal animosity, focus on their common goals, and work together to complete their tasks on time12.
Reference = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 7: Project Stakeholder Management, p. 246; What is Conflict Resolution, and How Does It Work?
Question #81
Which of the following should occur when implementing an IT infrastructure change that takes risks into consideration?
- A . Approving the change request
- B . Developing a rollback plan
- C . Gathering necessary resources
- D . Defining requirements
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
When implementing an IT infrastructure change that takes risks into consideration, the project manager should develop a rollback plan. A rollback plan is a contingency plan that outlines the steps that need to be taken in case the change does not work as expected. It includes a plan to roll back the changes and restore the system to its previous state.
Reference: CompTIA Project+ Study Guide Section 3.3.
The project manager should develop a rollback plan when implementing an IT infrastructure change that takes risks into consideration. A rollback plan is a contingency plan that describes how to revert back to the previous state of the system in case of a failure or disruption during the change implementation. A rollback plan can help to minimize the impact of the change on the system performance and availability and ensure business continuity and data integrity.
B
Explanation:
When implementing an IT infrastructure change that takes risks into consideration, the project manager should develop a rollback plan. A rollback plan is a contingency plan that outlines the steps that need to be taken in case the change does not work as expected. It includes a plan to roll back the changes and restore the system to its previous state.
Reference: CompTIA Project+ Study Guide Section 3.3.
The project manager should develop a rollback plan when implementing an IT infrastructure change that takes risks into consideration. A rollback plan is a contingency plan that describes how to revert back to the previous state of the system in case of a failure or disruption during the change implementation. A rollback plan can help to minimize the impact of the change on the system performance and availability and ensure business continuity and data integrity.
Question #82
A project team needs a tool to store information that is captured throughout the life cycle of a project. The information should be stored in a centralized location that is easily accessible to all stakeholders and will provide search functionality.
Which of the following tools should be used?
- A . Secure folder
- B . Real-time, multiauthoring editing software
- C . Digital whiteboard
- D . Wiki knowledge base
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
A wiki knowledge base is a tool that allows the project team to store, organize, and share information that is captured throughout the life cycle of a project. A wiki knowledge base is stored in a centralized location that is easily accessible to all stakeholders via a web browser. A wiki knowledge base also provides search functionality that enables the users to find the information they need quickly and easily. A wiki knowledge base can help the project team to document the project requirements, scope, schedule, budget, quality, risks, issues, lessons learned, and best practices.
A wiki knowledge base is different from a secure folder, which is a tool that protects the files and folders from unauthorized access or modification. A secure folder may not be easily accessible to all stakeholders, and may not provide search functionality or collaboration features. A wiki knowledge base is also different from a real-time, multiauthoring editing software, which is a tool that allows the project team to create and edit documents simultaneously and synchronously. A real-time, multiauthoring editing software may not be suitable for storing large amounts of information, and may not provide the same level of organization and structure as a wiki knowledge base. A wiki knowledge base is also different from a digital whiteboard, which is a tool that allows the project team to brainstorm, visualize, and communicate ideas. A digital whiteboard is not designed for storing information, and may not provide the same level of search functionality or security as a wiki knowledge base.
Reference = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 3: Project Communications Management1; CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide, 3rd Edition, Chapter 3: Project Communications Management2; The 15 best collaboration tools for productive teams3
D
Explanation:
A wiki knowledge base is a tool that allows the project team to store, organize, and share information that is captured throughout the life cycle of a project. A wiki knowledge base is stored in a centralized location that is easily accessible to all stakeholders via a web browser. A wiki knowledge base also provides search functionality that enables the users to find the information they need quickly and easily. A wiki knowledge base can help the project team to document the project requirements, scope, schedule, budget, quality, risks, issues, lessons learned, and best practices.
A wiki knowledge base is different from a secure folder, which is a tool that protects the files and folders from unauthorized access or modification. A secure folder may not be easily accessible to all stakeholders, and may not provide search functionality or collaboration features. A wiki knowledge base is also different from a real-time, multiauthoring editing software, which is a tool that allows the project team to create and edit documents simultaneously and synchronously. A real-time, multiauthoring editing software may not be suitable for storing large amounts of information, and may not provide the same level of organization and structure as a wiki knowledge base. A wiki knowledge base is also different from a digital whiteboard, which is a tool that allows the project team to brainstorm, visualize, and communicate ideas. A digital whiteboard is not designed for storing information, and may not provide the same level of search functionality or security as a wiki knowledge base.
Reference = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 3: Project Communications Management1; CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide, 3rd Edition, Chapter 3: Project Communications Management2; The 15 best collaboration tools for productive teams3
Question #82
A project team needs a tool to store information that is captured throughout the life cycle of a project. The information should be stored in a centralized location that is easily accessible to all stakeholders and will provide search functionality.
Which of the following tools should be used?
- A . Secure folder
- B . Real-time, multiauthoring editing software
- C . Digital whiteboard
- D . Wiki knowledge base
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
A wiki knowledge base is a tool that allows the project team to store, organize, and share information that is captured throughout the life cycle of a project. A wiki knowledge base is stored in a centralized location that is easily accessible to all stakeholders via a web browser. A wiki knowledge base also provides search functionality that enables the users to find the information they need quickly and easily. A wiki knowledge base can help the project team to document the project requirements, scope, schedule, budget, quality, risks, issues, lessons learned, and best practices.
A wiki knowledge base is different from a secure folder, which is a tool that protects the files and folders from unauthorized access or modification. A secure folder may not be easily accessible to all stakeholders, and may not provide search functionality or collaboration features. A wiki knowledge base is also different from a real-time, multiauthoring editing software, which is a tool that allows the project team to create and edit documents simultaneously and synchronously. A real-time, multiauthoring editing software may not be suitable for storing large amounts of information, and may not provide the same level of organization and structure as a wiki knowledge base. A wiki knowledge base is also different from a digital whiteboard, which is a tool that allows the project team to brainstorm, visualize, and communicate ideas. A digital whiteboard is not designed for storing information, and may not provide the same level of search functionality or security as a wiki knowledge base.
Reference = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 3: Project Communications Management1; CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide, 3rd Edition, Chapter 3: Project Communications Management2; The 15 best collaboration tools for productive teams3
D
Explanation:
A wiki knowledge base is a tool that allows the project team to store, organize, and share information that is captured throughout the life cycle of a project. A wiki knowledge base is stored in a centralized location that is easily accessible to all stakeholders via a web browser. A wiki knowledge base also provides search functionality that enables the users to find the information they need quickly and easily. A wiki knowledge base can help the project team to document the project requirements, scope, schedule, budget, quality, risks, issues, lessons learned, and best practices.
A wiki knowledge base is different from a secure folder, which is a tool that protects the files and folders from unauthorized access or modification. A secure folder may not be easily accessible to all stakeholders, and may not provide search functionality or collaboration features. A wiki knowledge base is also different from a real-time, multiauthoring editing software, which is a tool that allows the project team to create and edit documents simultaneously and synchronously. A real-time, multiauthoring editing software may not be suitable for storing large amounts of information, and may not provide the same level of organization and structure as a wiki knowledge base. A wiki knowledge base is also different from a digital whiteboard, which is a tool that allows the project team to brainstorm, visualize, and communicate ideas. A digital whiteboard is not designed for storing information, and may not provide the same level of search functionality or security as a wiki knowledge base.
Reference = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 3: Project Communications Management1; CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide, 3rd Edition, Chapter 3: Project Communications Management2; The 15 best collaboration tools for productive teams3
Question #82
A project team needs a tool to store information that is captured throughout the life cycle of a project. The information should be stored in a centralized location that is easily accessible to all stakeholders and will provide search functionality.
Which of the following tools should be used?
- A . Secure folder
- B . Real-time, multiauthoring editing software
- C . Digital whiteboard
- D . Wiki knowledge base
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
A wiki knowledge base is a tool that allows the project team to store, organize, and share information that is captured throughout the life cycle of a project. A wiki knowledge base is stored in a centralized location that is easily accessible to all stakeholders via a web browser. A wiki knowledge base also provides search functionality that enables the users to find the information they need quickly and easily. A wiki knowledge base can help the project team to document the project requirements, scope, schedule, budget, quality, risks, issues, lessons learned, and best practices.
A wiki knowledge base is different from a secure folder, which is a tool that protects the files and folders from unauthorized access or modification. A secure folder may not be easily accessible to all stakeholders, and may not provide search functionality or collaboration features. A wiki knowledge base is also different from a real-time, multiauthoring editing software, which is a tool that allows the project team to create and edit documents simultaneously and synchronously. A real-time, multiauthoring editing software may not be suitable for storing large amounts of information, and may not provide the same level of organization and structure as a wiki knowledge base. A wiki knowledge base is also different from a digital whiteboard, which is a tool that allows the project team to brainstorm, visualize, and communicate ideas. A digital whiteboard is not designed for storing information, and may not provide the same level of search functionality or security as a wiki knowledge base.
Reference = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 3: Project Communications Management1; CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide, 3rd Edition, Chapter 3: Project Communications Management2; The 15 best collaboration tools for productive teams3
D
Explanation:
A wiki knowledge base is a tool that allows the project team to store, organize, and share information that is captured throughout the life cycle of a project. A wiki knowledge base is stored in a centralized location that is easily accessible to all stakeholders via a web browser. A wiki knowledge base also provides search functionality that enables the users to find the information they need quickly and easily. A wiki knowledge base can help the project team to document the project requirements, scope, schedule, budget, quality, risks, issues, lessons learned, and best practices.
A wiki knowledge base is different from a secure folder, which is a tool that protects the files and folders from unauthorized access or modification. A secure folder may not be easily accessible to all stakeholders, and may not provide search functionality or collaboration features. A wiki knowledge base is also different from a real-time, multiauthoring editing software, which is a tool that allows the project team to create and edit documents simultaneously and synchronously. A real-time, multiauthoring editing software may not be suitable for storing large amounts of information, and may not provide the same level of organization and structure as a wiki knowledge base. A wiki knowledge base is also different from a digital whiteboard, which is a tool that allows the project team to brainstorm, visualize, and communicate ideas. A digital whiteboard is not designed for storing information, and may not provide the same level of search functionality or security as a wiki knowledge base.
Reference = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 3: Project Communications Management1; CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide, 3rd Edition, Chapter 3: Project Communications Management2; The 15 best collaboration tools for productive teams3
Question #82
A project team needs a tool to store information that is captured throughout the life cycle of a project. The information should be stored in a centralized location that is easily accessible to all stakeholders and will provide search functionality.
Which of the following tools should be used?
- A . Secure folder
- B . Real-time, multiauthoring editing software
- C . Digital whiteboard
- D . Wiki knowledge base
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
A wiki knowledge base is a tool that allows the project team to store, organize, and share information that is captured throughout the life cycle of a project. A wiki knowledge base is stored in a centralized location that is easily accessible to all stakeholders via a web browser. A wiki knowledge base also provides search functionality that enables the users to find the information they need quickly and easily. A wiki knowledge base can help the project team to document the project requirements, scope, schedule, budget, quality, risks, issues, lessons learned, and best practices.
A wiki knowledge base is different from a secure folder, which is a tool that protects the files and folders from unauthorized access or modification. A secure folder may not be easily accessible to all stakeholders, and may not provide search functionality or collaboration features. A wiki knowledge base is also different from a real-time, multiauthoring editing software, which is a tool that allows the project team to create and edit documents simultaneously and synchronously. A real-time, multiauthoring editing software may not be suitable for storing large amounts of information, and may not provide the same level of organization and structure as a wiki knowledge base. A wiki knowledge base is also different from a digital whiteboard, which is a tool that allows the project team to brainstorm, visualize, and communicate ideas. A digital whiteboard is not designed for storing information, and may not provide the same level of search functionality or security as a wiki knowledge base.
Reference = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 3: Project Communications Management1; CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide, 3rd Edition, Chapter 3: Project Communications Management2; The 15 best collaboration tools for productive teams3
D
Explanation:
A wiki knowledge base is a tool that allows the project team to store, organize, and share information that is captured throughout the life cycle of a project. A wiki knowledge base is stored in a centralized location that is easily accessible to all stakeholders via a web browser. A wiki knowledge base also provides search functionality that enables the users to find the information they need quickly and easily. A wiki knowledge base can help the project team to document the project requirements, scope, schedule, budget, quality, risks, issues, lessons learned, and best practices.
A wiki knowledge base is different from a secure folder, which is a tool that protects the files and folders from unauthorized access or modification. A secure folder may not be easily accessible to all stakeholders, and may not provide search functionality or collaboration features. A wiki knowledge base is also different from a real-time, multiauthoring editing software, which is a tool that allows the project team to create and edit documents simultaneously and synchronously. A real-time, multiauthoring editing software may not be suitable for storing large amounts of information, and may not provide the same level of organization and structure as a wiki knowledge base. A wiki knowledge base is also different from a digital whiteboard, which is a tool that allows the project team to brainstorm, visualize, and communicate ideas. A digital whiteboard is not designed for storing information, and may not provide the same level of search functionality or security as a wiki knowledge base.
Reference = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 3: Project Communications Management1; CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide, 3rd Edition, Chapter 3: Project Communications Management2; The 15 best collaboration tools for productive teams3
Question #86
Select the correct number of engineers required for the server migration phase.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
Select the Appropriate Tool:
Select the new critical path.
Option A
Option B
Option C
Correct Answer:
Question #87
Several stakeholders have declined the invitation for the kickoff of a major digital transformation protect.
Which of the following actions should the project manager take NEXT?
- A . Escalate directly to the project sponsor
- B . Push the kickoff meeting out by one week
- C . Proceed with the kickoff as planned
- D . Identity replacements for project stakeholders
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
The project sponsor is the person who provides the authority, funding, and support for the project. The project sponsor can also help to influence and engage the key stakeholders who are essential for the success of the project. If several stakeholders have declined the invitation for the kickoff meeting, which is an important event to establish the vision, scope, and expectations of the project, the project manager should escalate this issue to the project sponsor and seek their assistance to ensure the participation of the stakeholders1, p. 47
A
Explanation:
The project sponsor is the person who provides the authority, funding, and support for the project. The project sponsor can also help to influence and engage the key stakeholders who are essential for the success of the project. If several stakeholders have declined the invitation for the kickoff meeting, which is an important event to establish the vision, scope, and expectations of the project, the project manager should escalate this issue to the project sponsor and seek their assistance to ensure the participation of the stakeholders1, p. 47
Question #88
Project stakeholders have asked the team to use Scrum to run a software implementation project.
Which of the following is most likely to take place during a Scrum ceremony?
- A . Reviewing project blockers
- B . Defining roles and responsibilities
- C . Establishing a project schedule
- D . Determining a project budget
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
According to Four agile ceremonies, demystified, one of the Scrum ceremonies is the daily stand-up,
which is a short meeting to discuss progress and identify blockers. Blockers are any issues or impediments that prevent the team from completing their tasks or achieving their goals. Reviewing project blockers during the daily stand-up helps the team to resolve them quickly, collaborate effectively, and stay on track1. The other options are not likely to take place during a Scrum ceremony, as they are either part of the initial project planning or outside the scope of Scrum.
A
Explanation:
According to Four agile ceremonies, demystified, one of the Scrum ceremonies is the daily stand-up,
which is a short meeting to discuss progress and identify blockers. Blockers are any issues or impediments that prevent the team from completing their tasks or achieving their goals. Reviewing project blockers during the daily stand-up helps the team to resolve them quickly, collaborate effectively, and stay on track1. The other options are not likely to take place during a Scrum ceremony, as they are either part of the initial project planning or outside the scope of Scrum.
Question #89
A project is running over budget, and due to new legislation in the country, the company needs to release all its contractors on the project or hire them as full-time employees.
Which of the following should the PM do next to comply with the new legislation?
- A . Use only full-time employees even if the project is delayed.
- B . Hire all team members to avoid any delay in the project.
- C . Close the contract and pay the contractors cash for the remainder of the project.
- D . Look for an overseas vendor to finalize the project work.
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
In response to new legislation requiring the release of contractors or their conversion to full-time employees, the project manager should prioritize compliance with the law. This may involve using only full-time employees, even if it results in project delays. The focus should be on legal compliance and the ethical treatment of workers, rather than solely on project timelines.
Reference = The answer is based on standard project management practices and the typical response to changes in legislation affecting project staffing. For detailed information, please refer to the CompTIA Project+ Study Guide and other official CompTIA resources.
A
Explanation:
In response to new legislation requiring the release of contractors or their conversion to full-time employees, the project manager should prioritize compliance with the law. This may involve using only full-time employees, even if it results in project delays. The focus should be on legal compliance and the ethical treatment of workers, rather than solely on project timelines.
Reference = The answer is based on standard project management practices and the typical response to changes in legislation affecting project staffing. For detailed information, please refer to the CompTIA Project+ Study Guide and other official CompTIA resources.
Question #90
Which of the following tools should a project manager use to assess the activities performed, work effort applied, and the productivity of a project?
- A . Project status report
- B . Project evaluation review
- C . Project management software
- D . Requirements traceability matrix
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
A project evaluation review is a tool that helps a project manager assess the activities performed, work effort applied, and the productivity of a project. It involves collecting and analyzing data on the project’s performance, outcomes, and impacts. It also provides feedback and recommendations for improvement and learning. A project evaluation review can be done at different stages of the project life cycle, such as during or after completion.
Reference = CompTIA Project+ PK0-005 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 14: Project Evaluation and Assessment; CompTIA Project+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 4: Project Closure, Objective 4.1: Conduct project closure activities.
B
Explanation:
A project evaluation review is a tool that helps a project manager assess the activities performed, work effort applied, and the productivity of a project. It involves collecting and analyzing data on the project’s performance, outcomes, and impacts. It also provides feedback and recommendations for improvement and learning. A project evaluation review can be done at different stages of the project life cycle, such as during or after completion.
Reference = CompTIA Project+ PK0-005 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 14: Project Evaluation and Assessment; CompTIA Project+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 4: Project Closure, Objective 4.1: Conduct project closure activities.
Question #91
Which of the following is required to provide a hardware installation with a Tier 5 redundancy level?
- A . Storage project
- B . Computer services project
- C . Database project
- D . Multitiered architecture project
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
A multitiered architecture project is a type of project that involves designing and implementing a system that consists of multiple layers or tiers, such as presentation, application, and data. A multitiered architecture project can provide a high level of redundancy, scalability, and performance, as each tier can have multiple servers or components that can handle requests and failures independently. A Tier 5 redundancy level is the highest level of redundancy that requires a fully redundant, mirrored system plus one additional backup unit for every component12.
D
Explanation:
A multitiered architecture project is a type of project that involves designing and implementing a system that consists of multiple layers or tiers, such as presentation, application, and data. A multitiered architecture project can provide a high level of redundancy, scalability, and performance, as each tier can have multiple servers or components that can handle requests and failures independently. A Tier 5 redundancy level is the highest level of redundancy that requires a fully redundant, mirrored system plus one additional backup unit for every component12.
Question #92
A project manager has decided to wait until all requirements are developed to initiate testing.
Which of the following relationship dependencies is the project manager using?
- A . Start-to-finish
- B . Finish-to-finish
- C . Finish-to-start
- D . Start-to-start
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
A finish-to-start dependency is a type of relationship dependency in project management, where the start of one task depends on the finish of another task12. In this case, the project manager is using a finish-to-start dependency, because testing cannot start until requirements development is finished. This implies that testing is a successor task, and requirements development is a predecessor task. A finish-to-start dependency is the most common type of dependency in project management, and it ensures that tasks are performed in a logical sequence34.
Reference = CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide5, CompTIA Project+ Certification Exam Objectives6, Understanding Dependencies in Project Management [2023] * Asana1, Dependencies in Project Management | Smartsheet2, Understanding Task Dependencies in Project Management3, What are Dependencies in Project Management? – KnowledgeHut4
C
Explanation:
A finish-to-start dependency is a type of relationship dependency in project management, where the start of one task depends on the finish of another task12. In this case, the project manager is using a finish-to-start dependency, because testing cannot start until requirements development is finished. This implies that testing is a successor task, and requirements development is a predecessor task. A finish-to-start dependency is the most common type of dependency in project management, and it ensures that tasks are performed in a logical sequence34.
Reference = CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide5, CompTIA Project+ Certification Exam Objectives6, Understanding Dependencies in Project Management [2023] * Asana1, Dependencies in Project Management | Smartsheet2, Understanding Task Dependencies in Project Management3, What are Dependencies in Project Management? – KnowledgeHut4
Question #93
A PM wants to provide a visual representation of how a project is organized into tasks and how the tasks relate to each other.
Which of the following can the PM use?
- A . Milestone chart
- B . Gantt chart
- C . PERT chart
- D . WBS
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
A gantt chart is a visual representation of a project timeline that shows the tasks, durations, dependencies, and resources of a project in a horizontal bar chart format. A gantt chart can help a project manager to plan, monitor, and control the project progress, scope, and quality. A gantt chart is different from a milestone chart, which only shows the key events or deliverables of a project without the details of the tasks. A gantt chart is also different from a PERT chart, which is a network diagram that shows the logical relationships and sequence of tasks in a project. A gantt chart is also different from a WBS, which is a hierarchical breakdown of the project scope into smaller and manageable components.
Reference = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 6: Schedule Management1; CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide, 3rd Edition, Chapter 6: Schedule Management2; What Is a Gantt Chart? 7 Examples for Project Management3; 3 types of visual project management: Timelines, calendars, and boards (with examples)4
B
Explanation:
A gantt chart is a visual representation of a project timeline that shows the tasks, durations, dependencies, and resources of a project in a horizontal bar chart format. A gantt chart can help a project manager to plan, monitor, and control the project progress, scope, and quality. A gantt chart is different from a milestone chart, which only shows the key events or deliverables of a project without the details of the tasks. A gantt chart is also different from a PERT chart, which is a network diagram that shows the logical relationships and sequence of tasks in a project. A gantt chart is also different from a WBS, which is a hierarchical breakdown of the project scope into smaller and manageable components.
Reference = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 6: Schedule Management1; CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide, 3rd Edition, Chapter 6: Schedule Management2; What Is a Gantt Chart? 7 Examples for Project Management3; 3 types of visual project management: Timelines, calendars, and boards (with examples)4