A security analyst discovered requests associated with IP addresses known for born legitimate 3nd bot-related traffic .
Which of the following should the analyst use to determine whether the requests are malicious?
- A . User-agent string
- B . Byte length of the request
- C . Web application headers
- D . HTML encoding field
A
Explanation:
The user-agent string can provide valuable information to distinguish between legitimate and bot-related traffic. It contains details about the browser, device, and sometimes the operating system of the client making the request.
Why Use User-Agent String?
Identify Patterns: User-agent strings can help identify patterns that are typical of bots or legitimate users.
Block Malicious Bots: Many bots use known user-agent strings, and identifying these can help block malicious requests.
Anomalies Detection: Anomalous user-agent strings can indicate spoofing attempts or malicious activity.
Other options provide useful information but may not be as effective for initial determination of the nature of the request:
B. Byte length of the request: This can indicate anomalies but does not provide detailed information about the client.
C. Web application headers: While useful, they may not provide enough distinction between legitimate and bot traffic.
D. HTML encoding field: This is not typically used for identifying the nature of the request.
References:
CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide
"User-Agent Analysis for Security," OWASP
NIST Special Publication 800-94, "Guide to Intrusion Detection and Prevention Systems (IDPS)"
A user reports application access issues to the help desk.
The help desk reviews the logs for the user
Which of the following is most likely The reason for the issue?
- A . The user inadvertently tripped the impossible travel security rule in the SSO system.
- B . A threat actor has compromised the user’s account and attempted to lop, m
- C . The user is not allowed to access the human resources system outside of business hours
- D . The user did not attempt to connect from an approved subnet
A
Explanation:
Based on the provided logs, the user has accessed various applications from different geographic locations within a very short timeframe. This pattern is indicative of the "impossible travel" security rule, a common feature in Single Sign-On (SSO) systems designed to detect and prevent fraudulent access attempts.
Analysis of Logs:
At 8:47 p.m., the user accessed a VPN from Toronto.
At 8:48 p.m., the user accessed email from Los Angeles.
At 8:48 p.m., the user accessed the human resources system from Los Angeles.
At 8:49 p.m., the user accessed email again from Los Angeles.
At 8:52 p.m., the user attempted to access the human resources system from Toronto, which was denied.
These rapid changes in location are physically impossible and typically trigger security measures to prevent unauthorized access. The SSO system detected these inconsistencies and likely flagged the activity as suspicious, resulting in access denial.
References:
CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide
NIST Special Publication 800-63B, "Digital Identity Guidelines"
"Impossible Travel Detection," Microsoft Documentation
A company wants to invest in research capabilities with the goal to operationalize the research output .
Which of the following is the best option for a security architect to recommend?
- A . Dark web monitoring
- B . Threat intelligence platform
- C . Honeypots
- D . Continuous adversary emulation
B
Explanation:
Investing in a threat intelligence platform is the best option for a company looking to operationalize research output. A threat intelligence platform helps in collecting, processing, and analyzing threat data to provide actionable insights. These platforms integrate data from various sources, including dark web monitoring, honeypots, and other security tools, to offer a comprehensive view of the threat landscape.
Why a Threat Intelligence Platform?
Data Integration: It consolidates data from multiple sources, including dark web monitoring and honeypots, making it easier to analyze and derive actionable insights.
Actionable Insights: Provides real-time alerts and reports on potential threats, helping the organization take proactive measures.
Operational Efficiency: Streamlines the process of threat detection and response, allowing the security team to focus on critical issues.
Research and Development: Facilitates the operationalization of research output by providing a platform for continuous monitoring and analysis of emerging threats.
Other options, while valuable, do not offer the same level of integration and operationalization capabilities:
A security configure is building a solution to disable weak CBC configuration for remote access connections lo Linux systems .
Which of the following should the security engineer modify?
- A . The /etc/openssl.conf file, updating the virtual site parameter
- B . The /etc/nsswith.conf file, updating the name server
- C . The /etc/hosts file, updating the IP parameter
- D . The /etc/etc/sshd, configure file updating the ciphers
D
Explanation:
The sshd_config file is the main configuration file for the OpenSSH server. To disable weak CBC (Cipher Block Chaining) ciphers for SSH connections, the security engineer should modify the sshd_config file to update the list of allowed ciphers. This file typically contains settings for the SSH daemon, including which encryption algorithms are allowed.
By editing the /etc/ssh/sshd_config file and updating the Ciphers directive, weak ciphers can be removed, and only strong ciphers can be allowed. This change ensures that the SSH server does not use insecure encryption methods.
References:
CompTIA Security+ Study Guide
OpenSSH manual pages (man sshd_config)
CIS Benchmarks for Linux
A software company deployed a new application based on its internal code repository Several customers are reporting anti-malware alerts on workstations used to test the application.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of the alerts?
- A . Misconfigured code commit
- B . Unsecure bundled libraries
- C . Invalid code signing certificate
- D . Data leakage
B
Explanation:
The most likely cause of the anti-malware alerts on customer workstations is unsecure bundled libraries. When developing and deploying new applications, it is common for developers to use third-party libraries. If these libraries are not properly vetted for security, they can introduce vulnerabilities or malicious code.
Why Unsecure Bundled Libraries?
Third-Party Risks: Using libraries that are not secure can lead to malware infections if the libraries contain malicious code or vulnerabilities.
Code Dependencies: Libraries may have dependencies that are not secure, leading to potential security risks.
Common Issue: This is a frequent issue in software development where libraries are used for convenience but not properly vetted for security.
Other options, while relevant, are less likely to cause widespread anti-malware alerts:
A security engineer wants to reduce the attack surface of a public-facing containerized application.
Which of the following will best reduce the application’s privilege escalation attack surface?
- A . Implementing the following commands in the Dockerfile: RUN echo user:x:1000:1000iuser:/home/user:/dew/null > /ete/passwd
- B . Installing an EDR on the container’s host with reporting configured to log to a centralized SIFM and Implementing the following alerting rules TF PBOCESS_USEB=rooC ALERT_TYPE=critical
- C . Designing a muiticontainer solution, with one set of containers that runs the mam application, and another set oi containers that perform automatic remediation by replacing compromised containers or disabling compromised accounts
- D . Running the container in an isolated network and placing a load balancer in a public-facing network. Adding the following ACL to the load balancer: PZRKZI HTTES from 0-0.0.0.0/0 pert 443
A
Explanation:
Implementing the given commands in the Dockerfile ensures that the container runs with non-root user privileges. Running applications as a non-root user reduces the risk of privilege escalation attacks because even if an attacker compromises the application, they would have limited privileges and would not be able to perform actions that require root access.
A systems engineer is configuring a system baseline for servers that will provide email services.
As part of the architecture design, the engineer needs to improve performance of the systems by using an access vector cache, facilitating mandatory access control and protecting against:
• Unauthorized reading and modification of data and programs
• Bypassing application security mechanisms
• Privilege escalation
• interference with other processes
Which of the following is the most appropriate for the engineer to deploy?
- A . SELinux
- B . Privileged access management
- C . Self-encrypting disks
- D . NIPS
A
Explanation:
The most appropriate solution for the systems engineer to deploy is SELinux (Security-Enhanced Linux).
Here’s why:
Mandatory Access Control (MAC): SELinux enforces MAC policies, ensuring that only authorized users and processes can access specific resources. This helps in preventing unauthorized reading and modification of data and programs.
Access Vector Cache: SELinux utilizes an access vector cache (AVC) to improve performance. The AVC caches access decisions, reducing the need for repetitive policy lookups and thus improving system efficiency.
Security Mechanisms: SELinux provides a robust framework to enforce security policies and prevent bypassing of application security mechanisms. It controls access based on defined policies, ensuring that security measures are consistently applied.
Privilege Escalation and Process Interference: SELinux limits the ability of processes to escalate privileges and interfere with each other by enforcing strict access controls. This containment helps in isolating processes and minimizing the risk of privilege escalation attacks.
References:
CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide by Mike Chapple and David Seidl
NSA’s Guide to the Secure Configuration of Red Hat Enterprise Linux 5 (SELinux)
NIST Special Publication 800-53: Security and Privacy Controls for Information Systems and Organizations
A global manufacturing company has an internal application mat is critical to making products This application cannot be updated and must Be available in the production area A security architect is implementing security for the application .
Which of the following best describes the action the architect should take-?
- A . Disallow wireless access to the application.
- B . Deploy Intrusion detection capabilities using a network tap
- C . Create an acceptable use policy for the use of the application
- D . Create a separate network for users who need access to the application
D
Explanation:
Creating a separate network for users who need access to the application is the best action to secure an internal application that is critical to the production area and cannot be updated.
Why Separate Network?
Network Segmentation: Isolates the critical application from the rest of the network, reducing the risk of compromise and limiting the potential impact of any security incidents.
Controlled Access: Ensures that only authorized users have access to the application, enhancing security and reducing the attack surface.
Minimized Risk: Segmentation helps in protecting the application from vulnerabilities that could be exploited from other parts of the network.
Other options, while beneficial, do not provide the same level of security for a critical application:
The identity and access management team is sending logs to the SIEM for continuous monitoring. The deployed log collector is forwarding logs to the SIEM. However, only false positive alerts are being generated .
Which of the following is the most likely reason for the inaccurate alerts?
- A . The compute resources are insufficient to support the SIEM
- B . The SIEM indexes are 100 large
- C . The data is not being properly parsed
- D . The retention policy is not property configured
C
Explanation:
Proper parsing of data is crucial for the SIEM to accurately interpret and analyze the logs being forwarded by the log collector. If the data is not parsed correctly, the SIEM may misinterpret the logs, leading to false positives and inaccurate alerts. Ensuring that the log data is correctly parsed allows the SIEM to correlate and analyze the logs effectively, which is essential for accurate alerting and monitoring.
The identity and access management team is sending logs to the SIEM for continuous monitoring. The deployed log collector is forwarding logs to the SIEM. However, only false positive alerts are being generated .
Which of the following is the most likely reason for the inaccurate alerts?
- A . The compute resources are insufficient to support the SIEM
- B . The SIEM indexes are 100 large
- C . The data is not being properly parsed
- D . The retention policy is not property configured
C
Explanation:
Proper parsing of data is crucial for the SIEM to accurately interpret and analyze the logs being forwarded by the log collector. If the data is not parsed correctly, the SIEM may misinterpret the logs, leading to false positives and inaccurate alerts. Ensuring that the log data is correctly parsed allows the SIEM to correlate and analyze the logs effectively, which is essential for accurate alerting and monitoring.
A company is having issues with its vulnerability management program New devices/lPs are added and dropped regularly, making the vulnerability report inconsistent.
Which of the following actions should the company lake to most likely improve the vulnerability management process?
- A . Request a weekly report with all new assets deployed and decommissioned
- B . Extend the DHCP lease lime to allow the devices to remain with the same address for a longer period.
- C . Implement a shadow IT detection process to avoid rogue devices on the network
- D . Perform regular discovery scanning throughout the 11 landscape using the vulnerability management tool
D
Explanation:
To improve the vulnerability management process in an environment where new devices/IPs are added and dropped regularly, the company should perform regular discovery scanning throughout the IT landscape using the vulnerability management tool.
Here’s why:
Accurate Asset Inventory: Regular discovery scans help maintain an up-to-date inventory of all assets, ensuring that the vulnerability management process includes all relevant devices and IPs.
Consistency in Reporting: By continuously discovering and scanning new and existing assets, the company can generate consistent and comprehensive vulnerability reports that reflect the current state of the network.
Proactive Management: Regular scans enable the organization to proactively identify and address vulnerabilities on new and existing assets, reducing the window of exposure to potential threats.
References:
CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide by Mike Chapple and David Seidl
NIST Special Publication 800-40: Guide to Enterprise Patch Management Technologies
CIS Controls: Control 1 – Inventory and Control of Hardware Assets
After remote desktop capabilities were deployed in the environment, various vulnerabilities were noticed.
• Exfiltration of intellectual property
• Unencrypted files
• Weak user passwords
Which of the following is the best way to mitigate these vulnerabilities? (Select two).
- A . Implementing data loss prevention
- B . Deploying file integrity monitoring
- C . Restricting access to critical file services only
- D . Deploying directory-based group policies
- E . Enabling modem authentication that supports MFA
- F . Implementing a version control system
- G . Implementing a CMDB platform
A E
Explanation:
To mitigate the identified vulnerabilities, the following solutions are most appropriate:
An organization is planning for disaster recovery and continuity of operations.
INSTRUCTIONS
Review the following scenarios and instructions. Match each relevant finding to the affected host.
After associating scenario 3 with the appropriate host(s), click the host to select the appropriate corrective action for that finding.
Each finding may be used more than once.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
Explanation:
A computer screen shot of a diagram Description automatically generated
A screenshot of a computer error Description automatically generated
A financial services organization is using Al lo fully automate the process of deciding client loan rates.
Which of the following should the organization be most concerned about from a privacy perspective?
- A . Model explainability
- B . Credential Theft
- C . Possible prompt Injections
- D . Exposure to social engineering
A
Explanation:
When using AI to fully automate the process of deciding client loan rates, the primary concern from a privacy perspective is model explainability.
Why Model Explainability is Critical:
Transparency: It ensures that the decision-making process of the AI model can be understood and explained to stakeholders, including clients.
Accountability: Helps in identifying biases and errors in the model, ensuring that the AI is making fair and unbiased decisions.
Regulatory Compliance: Various regulations require that decisions, especially those affecting individuals’ financial status, can be explained and justified.
Trust: Builds trust among users and stakeholders by demonstrating that the AI decisions are transparent and justifiable.
Other options, such as credential theft, prompt injections, and social engineering, are significant concerns but do not directly address the privacy and fairness implications of automated decision-making.
References:
CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide
"The Importance of Explainability in AI," IEEE Xplore
GDPR Article 22, "Automated Individual Decision-Making, Including Profiling"
A security analyst received a report that an internal web page is down after a company-wide update to the web browser Given the following error message:
Which of the following is the b«« way to fix this issue?
- A . Rewriting any legacy web functions
- B . Disabling all deprecated ciphers
- C . Blocking all non-essential pons
- D . Discontinuing the use of self-signed certificates
D
Explanation:
The error message "NET::ERR_CERT_WEAK_SIGNATURE_ALGORITHM" indicates that the web browser is rejecting the certificate because it uses a weak signature algorithm. This commonly happens with self-signed certificates, which often use outdated or insecure algorithms.
Why Discontinue Self-Signed Certificates?
Security Compliance: Modern browsers enforce strict security standards and may reject certificates that do not comply with these standards.
Trusted Certificates: Using certificates from a trusted Certificate Authority (CA) ensures compliance with security standards and is less likely to be flagged as insecure.
Weak Signature Algorithm: Self-signed certificates might use weak algorithms like MD5 or SHA-1, which are considered insecure.
Other options do not address the specific cause of the certificate error:
An organization is implementing Zero Trust architecture A systems administrator must increase the effectiveness of the organization’s context-aware access system .
Which of the following is the best way to improve the effectiveness of the system?
- A . Secure zone architecture
- B . Always-on VPN
- C . Accurate asset inventory
- D . Microsegmentation
D
Explanation:
Microsegmentation is a critical strategy within Zero Trust architecture that enhances context-aware access systems by dividing the network into smaller, isolated segments. This reduces the attack surface and limits lateral movement of attackers within the network. It ensures that even if one segment is compromised, the attacker cannot easily access other segments. This granular approach to network security is essential for enforcing strict access controls and monitoring within Zero Trust environments.
A central bank implements strict risk mitigations for the hardware supply chain, including an allow list for specific countries of origin .
Which of the following best describes the cyberthreat to the bank?
- A . Ability to obtain components during wartime
- B . Fragility and other availability attacks
- C . Physical Implants and tampering
- D . Non-conformance to accepted manufacturing standards
C
Explanation:
The best description of the cyber threat to a central bank implementing strict risk mitigations for the hardware supply chain, including an allow list for specific countries of origin, is the risk of physical implants and tampering.
Here’s why:
Supply Chain Security: The supply chain is a critical vector for hardware tampering and physical implants, which can compromise the integrity and security of hardware components before they reach the organization.
Targeted Attacks: Banks and financial institutions are high-value targets, making them susceptible to sophisticated attacks, including those involving physical implants that can be introduced during manufacturing or shipping processes.
Strict Mitigations: Implementing an allow list for specific countries aims to mitigate the risk of supply chain attacks by limiting the sources of hardware. However, the primary concern remains the introduction of malicious components through tampering.
References:
CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide by Mike Chapple and David Seidl
NIST Special Publication 800-161: Supply Chain Risk Management Practices for Federal
Information Systems and Organizations
ISO/IEC 20243:2018 – Information Technology – Open Trusted Technology Provider Standard
A central bank implements strict risk mitigations for the hardware supply chain, including an allow list for specific countries of origin .
Which of the following best describes the cyberthreat to the bank?
- A . Ability to obtain components during wartime
- B . Fragility and other availability attacks
- C . Physical Implants and tampering
- D . Non-conformance to accepted manufacturing standards
C
Explanation:
The best description of the cyber threat to a central bank implementing strict risk mitigations for the hardware supply chain, including an allow list for specific countries of origin, is the risk of physical implants and tampering.
Here’s why:
Supply Chain Security: The supply chain is a critical vector for hardware tampering and physical implants, which can compromise the integrity and security of hardware components before they reach the organization.
Targeted Attacks: Banks and financial institutions are high-value targets, making them susceptible to sophisticated attacks, including those involving physical implants that can be introduced during manufacturing or shipping processes.
Strict Mitigations: Implementing an allow list for specific countries aims to mitigate the risk of supply chain attacks by limiting the sources of hardware. However, the primary concern remains the introduction of malicious components through tampering.
References:
CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide by Mike Chapple and David Seidl
NIST Special Publication 800-161: Supply Chain Risk Management Practices for Federal
Information Systems and Organizations
ISO/IEC 20243:2018 – Information Technology – Open Trusted Technology Provider Standard
A central bank implements strict risk mitigations for the hardware supply chain, including an allow list for specific countries of origin .
Which of the following best describes the cyberthreat to the bank?
- A . Ability to obtain components during wartime
- B . Fragility and other availability attacks
- C . Physical Implants and tampering
- D . Non-conformance to accepted manufacturing standards
C
Explanation:
The best description of the cyber threat to a central bank implementing strict risk mitigations for the hardware supply chain, including an allow list for specific countries of origin, is the risk of physical implants and tampering.
Here’s why:
Supply Chain Security: The supply chain is a critical vector for hardware tampering and physical implants, which can compromise the integrity and security of hardware components before they reach the organization.
Targeted Attacks: Banks and financial institutions are high-value targets, making them susceptible to sophisticated attacks, including those involving physical implants that can be introduced during manufacturing or shipping processes.
Strict Mitigations: Implementing an allow list for specific countries aims to mitigate the risk of supply chain attacks by limiting the sources of hardware. However, the primary concern remains the introduction of malicious components through tampering.
References:
CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide by Mike Chapple and David Seidl
NIST Special Publication 800-161: Supply Chain Risk Management Practices for Federal
Information Systems and Organizations
ISO/IEC 20243:2018 – Information Technology – Open Trusted Technology Provider Standard
A central bank implements strict risk mitigations for the hardware supply chain, including an allow list for specific countries of origin .
Which of the following best describes the cyberthreat to the bank?
- A . Ability to obtain components during wartime
- B . Fragility and other availability attacks
- C . Physical Implants and tampering
- D . Non-conformance to accepted manufacturing standards
C
Explanation:
The best description of the cyber threat to a central bank implementing strict risk mitigations for the hardware supply chain, including an allow list for specific countries of origin, is the risk of physical implants and tampering.
Here’s why:
Supply Chain Security: The supply chain is a critical vector for hardware tampering and physical implants, which can compromise the integrity and security of hardware components before they reach the organization.
Targeted Attacks: Banks and financial institutions are high-value targets, making them susceptible to sophisticated attacks, including those involving physical implants that can be introduced during manufacturing or shipping processes.
Strict Mitigations: Implementing an allow list for specific countries aims to mitigate the risk of supply chain attacks by limiting the sources of hardware. However, the primary concern remains the introduction of malicious components through tampering.
References:
CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide by Mike Chapple and David Seidl
NIST Special Publication 800-161: Supply Chain Risk Management Practices for Federal
Information Systems and Organizations
ISO/IEC 20243:2018 – Information Technology – Open Trusted Technology Provider Standard
A natural disaster may disrupt operations at Site A, which would then cause unreliable internet connectivity at Site B due to route flapping.
INSTRUCTIONS
Match each relevant finding to the affected host by clicking on the host name and selecting the appropriate number.
For findings 1 and 2, select the items that should be replicated to Site B. For finding 3, select the item requiring configuration changes, then select the appropriate corrective action from the drop-down menu.
See the complete solution below in Explanation:
Finding 1:
Affected Host: DNS
Reason: Users are unable to log into the domain from their workstations after relocating to Site B, which implies a failure in domain name services that are critical for user authentication and domain login.
Finding 2:
Affected Host: Pumps
Reason: The pump room at Site B becoming inoperable directly points to the critical infrastructure components associated with pumping operations.
Finding 3:
Affected Host: VPN Concentrator
Reason: Unreliable internet connectivity at Site B due to route flapping indicates issues with network routing, which is often managed by VPN concentrators that handle site-to-site Exams Prep connectivity.
Corrective Actions for Finding 3:
Finding 3 Corrective Action:
Action: Modify the BGP configuration
Reason: Route flapping is often related to issues with Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) configurations. Adjusting BGP settings can stabilize routes and improve internet connectivity reliability.
Replication to Site B for Finding 1:
Affected Host: DNS
Domain Name System (DNS) services are essential for translating domain names into IP addresses, allowing users to log into the network. Replicating DNS services ensures that even if Site A is disrupted, users at Site B can still authenticate and access necessary resources.
Replication to Site B for Finding 2:
Affected Host: Pumps
The operation of the pump room is crucial for maintaining various functions within the infrastructure. Replicating the control systems and configurations for the pumps at Site B ensures that operations can continue smoothly even if Site A is affected.
Configuration Changes for Finding 3:
Affected Host: VPN Concentrator
Route flapping is a situation where routes become unstable, causing frequent changes in the best path for data to travel. This instability can be mitigated by modifying BGP configurations to ensure more stable routing. VPN concentrators, which manage connections between sites, are typically configured with BGP for optimal routing.
References:
CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: This guide provides detailed information on disaster recovery and continuity of operations, emphasizing the importance of replicating critical services and making necessary configuration changes to ensure seamless operation during disruptions.
CompTIA Security+ Exam Objectives: These objectives highlight key areas in disaster recovery planning, including the replication of critical services and network configuration adjustments.
Disaster Recovery and Business Continuity Planning (DRBCP): This resource outlines best practices for ensuring that operations can continue at an alternate site during a disaster, including the replication of essential services and network stability measures.
By ensuring that critical services like DNS and control systems for pumps are replicated at the alternate site, and by addressing network routing issues through proper BGP configuration, the organization can maintain operational continuity and minimize the impact of natural disasters on their operations.
A company isolated its OT systems from other areas of the corporate network These systems are required to report usage information over the internet to the vendor.
Which oi the following b*st reduces the risk of compromise or sabotage’ (Select two).
- A . Implementing allow lists
- B . Monitoring network behavior
- C . Encrypting data at rest
- D . Performing boot Integrity checks
- E . Executing daily health checks
- F . Implementing a site-to-site IPSec VPN
A F
Explanation:
A compliance officer is reviewing the data sovereignty laws in several countries where the organization has no presence.
Which of the following is the most likely reason for reviewing these laws?
- A . The organization is performing due diligence of potential tax issues.
- B . The organization has been subject to legal proceedings in countries where it has a presence.
- C . The organization is concerned with new regulatory enforcement in other countries
- D . The organization has suffered brand reputation damage from incorrect media coverage
C
Explanation:
Reviewing data sovereignty laws in countries where the organization has no presence is likely due to concerns about regulatory enforcement. Data sovereignty laws dictate how data can be stored, processed, and transferred across borders. Understanding these laws is crucial for compliance, especially if the organization handles data that may be subject to foreign regulations.
A financial technology firm works collaboratively with business partners in the industry to share threat intelligence within a central platform This collaboration gives partner organizations the ability to obtain and share data associated with emerging threats from a variety of adversaries.
Which of the following should the organization most likely leverage to facilitate this activity? (Select two).
- A . CWPP
- B . YAKA
- C . ATTACK
- D . STIX
- E . TAXII
- F . JTAG
D E
Explanation:
D. STIX (Structured Threat Information eXpression): STIX is a standardized language for representing threat information in a structured and machine-readable format. It facilitates the sharing of threat intelligence by ensuring that data is consistent and can be easily understood by all parties involved.
E. TAXII (Trusted Automated eXchange of Indicator Information): TAXII is a transport mechanism that enables the sharing of cyber threat information over a secure and trusted network. It works in conjunction with STIX to automate the exchange of threat intelligence among organizations.
Other options:
A security analyst received a notification from a cloud service provider regarding an attack detected on a web server.
The cloud service provider shared the following information about the attack:
• The attack came from inside the network.
• The attacking source IP was from the internal vulnerability scanners.
• The scanner is not configured to target the cloud servers.
Which of the following actions should the security analyst take first?
- A . Create an allow list for the vulnerability scanner IPs m order to avoid false positives
- B . Configure the scan policy to avoid targeting an out-of-scope host
- C . Set network behavior analysis rules
- D . Quarantine the scanner sensor to perform a forensic analysis
D
Explanation:
When a security analyst receives a notification about an attack that appears to originate from an internal vulnerability scanner, it suggests that the scanner itself might have been compromised. This situation is critical because a compromised scanner can potentially conduct unauthorized scans, leak sensitive information, or execute malicious actions within the network. The appropriate first action involves containing the threat to prevent further damage and allow for a thorough investigation.
Here’s why quarantining the scanner sensor is the best immediate action:
Containment and Isolation: Quarantining the scanner will immediately prevent it from continuing any malicious activity or scans. This containment is crucial to protect the rest of the network from potential harm.
Forensic Analysis: By isolating the scanner, a forensic analysis can be performed to understand how it was compromised, what actions it took, and what data or systems might have been affected. This analysis will provide valuable insights into the nature of the attack and help in taking appropriate remedial actions.
Preventing Further Attacks: If the scanner is allowed to continue operating, it might execute more unauthorized actions, leading to greater damage. Quarantine ensures that the threat is neutralized promptly.
Root Cause Identification: A forensic analysis can help identify vulnerabilities in the scanner’s configuration, software, or underlying system that allowed the compromise. This information is essential for preventing future incidents.
Other options, while potentially useful in the long term, are not appropriate as immediate actions in this scenario:
While reviewing recent modem reports, a security officer discovers that several employees were contacted by the same individual who impersonated a recruiter .
Which of the following best describes this type of correlation?
- A . Spear-phishing campaign
- B . Threat modeling
- C . Red team assessment
- D . Attack pattern analysis
A
Explanation:
The situation where several employees were contacted by the same individual impersonating a recruiter best describes a spear-phishing campaign.
Here’s why:
Targeted Approach: Spear-phishing involves targeting specific individuals within an organization with personalized and convincing messages to trick them into divulging sensitive information or performing actions that compromise security.
Impersonation: The use of impersonation, in this case, a recruiter, is a common tactic in spear-phishing to gain the trust of the targeted individuals and increase the likelihood of a successful attack.
Correlated Contacts: The fact that several employees were contacted by the same individual suggests a coordinated effort to breach the organization’s security by targeting multiple points of entry through social engineering.
References:
CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide by Mike Chapple and David Seidl
NIST Special Publication 800-61: Computer Security Incident Handling Guide
OWASP Phishing Cheat Sheet
A security architect is establishing requirements to design resilience in un enterprise system trial will be extended to other physical locations.
The system must
• Be survivable to one environmental catastrophe
• Re recoverable within 24 hours of critical loss of availability
• Be resilient to active exploitation of one site-to-site VPN solution
- A . Load-balance connection attempts and data Ingress at internet gateways
- B . Allocate fully redundant and geographically distributed standby sites.
- C . Employ layering of routers from diverse vendors
- D . Lease space to establish cold sites throughout other countries
- E . Use orchestration to procure, provision, and transfer application workloads lo cloud services
- F . Implement full weekly backups to be stored off-site for each of the company’s sites
B
Explanation:
To design resilience in an enterprise system that can survive environmental catastrophes, recover within 24 hours, and be resilient to active exploitation, the best strategy is to allocate fully redundant and geographically distributed standby sites.
Here’s why:
Geographical Redundancy: Having geographically distributed standby sites ensures that if one site is affected by an environmental catastrophe, the other sites can take over, providing continuity of operations.
Full Redundancy: Fully redundant sites mean that all critical systems and data are replicated, enabling quick recovery in the event of a critical loss of availability.
Resilience to Exploitation: Distributing resources across multiple sites reduces the risk of a single point of failure and increases resilience against targeted attacks.
References:
CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide by Mike Chapple and David Seidl
NIST Special Publication 800-34: Contingency Planning Guide for Federal Information Systems
ISO/IEC 27031:2011 – Guidelines for Information and Communication Technology Readiness for Business Continuity
During a security assessment using an CDR solution, a security engineer generates the following report about the assets in me system:
After five days, the EDR console reports an infection on the host 0WIN23 by a remote access Trojan.
Which of the following is the most probable cause of the infection?
- A . OW1N23 uses a legacy version of Windows that is not supported by the EDR
- B . LN002 was not supported by the EDR solution and propagates the RAT
- C . The EDR has an unknown vulnerability that was exploited by the attacker.
- D . 0W1N29 spreads the malware through other hosts in the network
A
Explanation:
OWIN23 is running Windows 7, which is a legacy operating system. Many EDR solutions no longer provide full support for outdated operating systems like Windows 7, which has reached its end of life and is no longer receiving security updates from Microsoft. This makes such systems more vulnerable to infections and attacks, including remote access Trojans (RATs).
An organization wants to implement a platform to better identify which specific assets are affected by a given vulnerability .
Which of the following components provides the best foundation to achieve this goal?
- A . SASE
- B . CMDB
- C . SBoM
- D . SLM
B
Explanation:
A Configuration Management Database (CMDB) provides the best foundation for identifying which specific assets are affected by a given vulnerability. A CMDB maintains detailed information about the IT environment, including hardware, software, configurations, and relationships between assets. This comprehensive view allows organizations to quickly identify and address vulnerabilities affecting specific assets.
References:
CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide: Discusses the role of CMDBs in asset management and vulnerability identification.
ITIL (Information Technology Infrastructure Library) Framework: Recommends the use of CMDBs for effective configuration and asset management.
"Configuration Management Best Practices" by Bob Aiello and Leslie Sachs: Covers the importance of CMDBs in managing IT assets and addressing vulnerabilities.
During a gap assessment, an organization notes that OYOD usage is a significant risk. The organization implemented administrative policies prohibiting BYOD usage However, the organization has not implemented technical controls to prevent the unauthorized use of BYOD assets when accessing the organization’s resources .
Which of the following solutions should the organization implement to b»« reduce the risk of OYOD devices? (Select two).
- A . Cloud 1AM to enforce the use of token based MFA
- B . Conditional access, to enforce user-to-device binding
- C . NAC, to enforce device configuration requirements
- D . PAM. to enforce local password policies
- E . SD-WAN. to enforce web content filtering through external proxies
- F . DLP, to enforce data protection capabilities
B C
Explanation:
To reduce the risk of unauthorized BYOD (Bring Your Own Device) usage, the organization should implement Conditional Access and Network Access Control (NAC).
Why Conditional Access and NAC?
Conditional Access:
User-to-Device Binding: Conditional access policies can enforce that only registered and compliant devices are allowed to access corporate resources.
Context-Aware Security: Enforces access controls based on the context of the access attempt, such as user identity, device compliance, location, and more.
Network Access Control (NAC):
Device Configuration Requirements: NAC ensures that only devices meeting specific security configurations are allowed to connect to the network.
Access Control: Provides granular control over network access, ensuring that BYOD devices comply with security policies before gaining access.
Other options, while useful, do not address the specific need to control and secure BYOD devices effectively:
Users are willing passwords on paper because of the number of passwords needed in an environment .
Which of the following solutions is the best way to manage this situation and decrease risks?
- A . Increasing password complexity to require 31 least 16 characters
- B . implementing an SSO solution and integrating with applications
- C . Requiring users to use an open-source password manager
- D . Implementing an MFA solution to avoid reliance only on passwords
B
Explanation:
Implementing a Single Sign-On (SSO) solution and integrating it with applications is the best way to manage the situation and decrease risks.
Here’s why:
Reduced Password Fatigue: SSO allows users to log in once and gain access to multiple applications and systems without needing to remember and manage multiple passwords. This reduces the likelihood of users writing down passwords.
Improved Security: By reducing the number of passwords users need to manage, SSO decreases the attack surface and potential for password-related security breaches. It also allows for the implementation of stronger authentication methods.
User Convenience: SSO improves the user experience by simplifying the login process, which can lead to higher productivity and satisfaction.
References:
CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide by Mike Chapple and David Seidl
NIST Special Publication 800-63B: Digital Identity Guidelines – Authentication and Lifecycle Management
OWASP Authentication Cheat Sheet
3 1. A vulnerability can on a web server identified the following:
Which of the following actions would most likely eliminate on path decryption attacks? (Select two).
You are a security analyst tasked with interpreting an Nmap scan output from company’s privileged network.
The company’s hardening guidelines indicate the following:
There should be one primary server or service per device.
Only default ports should be used.
Non-secure protocols should be disabled.
INSTRUCTIONS
Using the Nmap output, identify the devices on the network and their roles, and any open ports that should be closed.
For each device found by Nmap, add a device entry to the Devices Discovered list, with the following information:
The IP address of the device
The primary server or service of the device (Note that each IP should by associated with one service/port only)
The protocol(s) that should be disabled based on the hardening guidelines (Note that multiple ports may need to be closed to comply with the hardening guidelines)
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
See explanation below.
You are a security analyst tasked with interpreting an Nmap scan output from company’s privileged network.
The company’s hardening guidelines indicate the following:
There should be one primary server or service per device.
Only default ports should be used.
Non-secure protocols should be disabled.
INSTRUCTIONS
Using the Nmap output, identify the devices on the network and their roles, and any open ports that should be closed.
For each device found by Nmap, add a device entry to the Devices Discovered list, with the following information:
The IP address of the device
The primary server or service of the device (Note that each IP should by associated with one service/port only)
The protocol(s) that should be disabled based on the hardening guidelines (Note that multiple ports may need to be closed to comply with the hardening guidelines)
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
See explanation below.
You are a security analyst tasked with interpreting an Nmap scan output from company’s privileged network.
The company’s hardening guidelines indicate the following:
There should be one primary server or service per device.
Only default ports should be used.
Non-secure protocols should be disabled.
INSTRUCTIONS
Using the Nmap output, identify the devices on the network and their roles, and any open ports that should be closed.
For each device found by Nmap, add a device entry to the Devices Discovered list, with the following information:
The IP address of the device
The primary server or service of the device (Note that each IP should by associated with one service/port only)
The protocol(s) that should be disabled based on the hardening guidelines (Note that multiple ports may need to be closed to comply with the hardening guidelines)
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
See explanation below.
You are a security analyst tasked with interpreting an Nmap scan output from company’s privileged network.
The company’s hardening guidelines indicate the following:
There should be one primary server or service per device.
Only default ports should be used.
Non-secure protocols should be disabled.
INSTRUCTIONS
Using the Nmap output, identify the devices on the network and their roles, and any open ports that should be closed.
For each device found by Nmap, add a device entry to the Devices Discovered list, with the following information:
The IP address of the device
The primary server or service of the device (Note that each IP should by associated with one service/port only)
The protocol(s) that should be disabled based on the hardening guidelines (Note that multiple ports may need to be closed to comply with the hardening guidelines)
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
See explanation below.
You are a security analyst tasked with interpreting an Nmap scan output from company’s privileged network.
The company’s hardening guidelines indicate the following:
There should be one primary server or service per device.
Only default ports should be used.
Non-secure protocols should be disabled.
INSTRUCTIONS
Using the Nmap output, identify the devices on the network and their roles, and any open ports that should be closed.
For each device found by Nmap, add a device entry to the Devices Discovered list, with the following information:
The IP address of the device
The primary server or service of the device (Note that each IP should by associated with one service/port only)
The protocol(s) that should be disabled based on the hardening guidelines (Note that multiple ports may need to be closed to comply with the hardening guidelines)
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
See explanation below.
A security analyst reviews the following report:
Which of the following assessments is the analyst performing?
- A . System
- B . Supply chain
- C . Quantitative
- D . Organizational
B
Explanation:
The table shows detailed information about products, including location, chassis manufacturer, OS, application developer, and vendor. This type of information is typically assessed in a supply chain assessment to evaluate the security and reliability of components and services from different suppliers.
Why Supply Chain Assessment?
Component Evaluation: Assessing the origin and security of each component used in the products, including hardware, software, and third-party services.
Vendor Reliability: Evaluating the security practices and reliability of vendors involved in providing components or services.
Risk Management: Identifying potential risks associated with the supply chain, such as vulnerabilities in third-party components or insecure development practices.
Other types of assessments do not align with the detailed supplier and component information provided:
A security architect for a global organization with a distributed workforce recently received funding lo deploy a CASB solution.
Which of the following most likely explains the choice to use a proxy-based CASB?
- A . The capability to block unapproved applications and services is possible
- B . Privacy compliance obligations are bypassed when using a user-based deployment.
- C . Protecting and regularly rotating API secret keys requires a significant time commitment
- D . Corporate devices cannot receive certificates when not connected to on-premises devices
A
Explanation:
A proxy-based Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB) is chosen primarily for its ability to block unapproved applications and services. Here’s why:
Application and Service Control: Proxy-based CASBs can monitor and control the use of applications and services by inspecting traffic as it passes through the proxy. This allows the organization to enforce policies that block unapproved applications and services, ensuring compliance with security policies.
Visibility and Monitoring: By routing traffic through the proxy, the CASB can provide detailed visibility into user activities and data flows, enabling better monitoring and threat detection.
Real-Time Protection: Proxy-based CASBs can provide real-time protection against threats by analyzing and controlling traffic before it reaches the end user, thus preventing the use of risky applications and services.
References:
CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide by Mike Chapple and David Seidl
NIST Special Publication 800-125: Guide to Security for Full Virtualization Technologies
Gartner CASB Market Guide
An organization mat performs real-time financial processing is implementing a new backup solution Given the following business requirements?
* The backup solution must reduce the risk for potential backup compromise
* The backup solution must be resilient to a ransomware attack.
* The time to restore from backups is less important than the backup data integrity
* Multiple copies of production data must be maintained
Which of the following backup strategies best meets these requirement?
- A . Creating a secondary, immutable storage array and updating it with live data on a continuous basis
- B . Utilizing two connected storage arrays and ensuring the arrays constantly sync
- C . Enabling remote journaling on the databases to ensure real-time transactions are mirrored
- D . Setting up antitempering on the databases to ensure data cannot be changed unintentionally
A
Explanation:
A company wants to use loT devices to manage and monitor thermostats at all facilities The thermostats must receive vendor security updates and limit access to other devices within the organization.
Which of the following best addresses the company’s requirements”
- A . Only allowing Internet access to a set of specific domains
- B . Operating lot devices on a separate network with no access to other devices internally
- C . Only allowing operation for loT devices during a specified time window
- D . Configuring IoT devices to always allow automatic updates
B
Explanation:
The best approach for managing and monitoring IoT devices, such as thermostats, is to operate them on a separate network with no access to other internal devices. This segmentation ensures that the IoT devices are isolated from the main network, reducing the risk of potential security breaches affecting other critical systems. Additionally, this setup allows for secure vendor updates without exposing the broader network to potential vulnerabilities inherent in IoT devices.
References:
CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide: Recommends network segmentation for IoT devices to minimize security risks.
NIST Special Publication 800-183, "Network of Things": Advises on the isolation of IoT devices to enhance security.
"Practical IoT Security" by Brian Russell and Drew Van Duren: Discusses best practices for securing IoT devices, including network segmentation.
An audit finding reveals that a legacy platform has not retained loos for more than 30 days The platform has been segmented due to its interoperability with newer technology. As a temporary solution, the IT department changed the log retention to 120 days .
Which of the following should the security engineer do to ensure the logs are being properly retained?
- A . Configure a scheduled task nightly to save the logs
- B . Configure event-based triggers to export the logs at a threshold.
- C . Configure the SIEM to aggregate the logs
- D . Configure a Python script to move the logs into a SQL database.
C
Explanation:
To ensure that logs from a legacy platform are properly retained beyond the default retention period, configuring the SIEM to aggregate the logs is the best approach. SIEM solutions are designed to collect, aggregate, and store logs from various sources, providing centralized log management and retention. This setup ensures that logs are retained according to policy and can be easily accessed for analysis and compliance purposes.
References:
CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide: Discusses the role of SIEM in log management and retention.
NIST Special Publication 800-92, "Guide to Computer Security Log Management": Recommends the use of centralized log management solutions, such as SIEM, for effective log retention and analysis.
"Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) Implementation" by David Miller: Covers best practices for configuring SIEM systems to aggregate and retain logs from various sources.
A security analyst is reviewing the following log:
Which of the following possible events should the security analyst investigate further?
- A . A macro that was prevented from running
- B . A text file containing passwords that were leaked
- C . A malicious file that was run in this environment
- D . A PDF that exposed sensitive information improperly
B
Explanation:
Based on the log provided, the most concerning event that should be investigated further is the presence of a text file containing passwords that were leaked.
Here’s why:
Sensitive Information Exposure: A text file containing passwords represents a significant security risk, as it indicates that sensitive credentials have been exposed in plain text, potentially leading to unauthorized access.
Immediate Threat: Password leaks can lead to immediate exploitation by attackers, compromising user accounts and sensitive data. This requires urgent investi
A security analyst is troubleshooting the reason a specific user is having difficulty accessing company resources.
The analyst reviews the following information:
Which of the following is most likely the cause of the issue?
- A . The local network access has been configured to bypass MFA requirements.
- B . A network geolocation is being misidentified by the authentication server
- C . Administrator access from an alternate location is blocked by company policy
- D . Several users have not configured their mobile devices to receive OTP codes
B
Explanation:
The table shows that the user "SALES1" is consistently blocked despite having met the MFA requirements. The common factor in these blocked attempts is the source IP address (8.1 1. 4.16) being identified as from Germany while the user is assigned to France. This discrepancy suggests that the network geolocation is being misidentified by the authentication server, causing legitimate access attempts to be blocked.
Why Network Geolocation Misidentification?
Geolocation Accuracy: Authentication systems often use IP geolocation to verify the location of access attempts. Incorrect geolocation data can lead to legitimate requests being denied if they appear to come from unexpected locations.
Security Policies: Company security policies might block access attempts from certain locations to prevent unauthorized access. If the geolocation is wrong, legitimate users can be inadvertently blocked.
Consistent Pattern: The user "SALES1" from the IP address 8.1 1. 4.16 is always blocked, indicating a consistent issue with geolocation.
Other options do not align with the pattern observed:
A software development team requires valid data for internal tests. Company regulations, however do not allow the use of this data in cleartext .
Which of the following solutions best meet these requirements?
- A . Configuring data hashing
- B . Deploying tokenization
- C . Replacing data with null record
- D . Implementing data obfuscation
B
Explanation:
Tokenization replaces sensitive data elements with non-sensitive equivalents, called tokens, that can be used within the internal tests. The original data is stored securely and can be retrieved if necessary. This approach allows the software development team to work with data that appears realistic and valid without exposing the actual sensitive information.
Configuring data hashing (Option A) is not suitable for test data as it transforms the data into a fixed-length value that is not usable in the same way as the original data. Replacing data with null records (Option C) is not useful as it does not provide valid data for testing. Data obfuscation (Option D) could be an alternative but might not meet the regulatory requirements as effectively as tokenization.
References:
CompTIA Security+ Study Guide
NIST SP 800-57 Part 1 Rev. 5, "Recommendation for Key Management"
PCI DSS Tokenization Guidelines