A user sends a print job lo a network printer, and the print job uses double the amount of paper as expected.
Which of the following should the user configure to get the expected result?
- A . Duplex
- B . Collate
- C . Landscape
- D . Transparency
A
Explanation:
The user should configure the print job to use the Duplex option, which will print on both sides of the paper and reduce the amount of paper used.
A field technician has been dispatched to a site with an internet outage. Upon arriving, the technician discovers that the POTS lines are not working as well.
Which of the following technologies is the site MOST likely using?
- A . Fiber
- B . Cable
- C . DSL
- D . Satellite
C
Explanation:
DSL (Digital Subscriber Line) uses POTS (Plain Old Telephone Service) lines to provide high-speed internet access. If the POTS lines are not working, it could cause an internet outage for DSL customers. Fiber and cable internet typically use different types of infrastructure, while satellite internet is not reliant on POTS lines. References: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 1 – Page 231
A technician was called in to look at a user’s PC. The user reported the PC was very sluggish. The HDD light on the PC was constantly on without blinking. The PC itself was slow receiving input and took a very long time to load the OS. The technician also noticed updates had failed.
Which of the following is MOST likely the cause of these issues?
- A . The hard disk drivers have been corrupted
- B . The HDD cables need reseating.
- C . A RAID disk failed.
- D . The HDD has no free space.
D
Explanation:
If a user’s PC is very sluggish, the HDD light on the PC is constantly on without blinking, the PC itself is slow receiving input, and it takes a very long time to load the OS, the HDD has no free space is most likely the cause of these issues. When the hard disk drive (HDD) has no free space, the computer may become slow and unresponsive. The technician should check the amount of free space on the HDD and delete any unnecessary files to free up space.
Which of the following options provides correct information about 2.4GHz and 5GHz wireless frequencies? (Select TWO)
- A . 2.4GHz has less interference. 5GHz transmits inlower speed.
- B . 2.4GHz penetrates solid objects more effectively. 5GHz provides faster data connections.
- C . 2.4GHz has a higher data rate. 5GHz has 23 channels.
- D . 2.4GHz has Il channels. 5GHz has no data interference.
- E . 2.4GHz has a higher coverage area. 5GHz has higher bandwidth.
- F . 2.4GHz has a higher bandwidth. 5GHz has lower transmit power.
B,E
Explanation:
The correct answers are B. 2.4GHz penetrates solid objects more effectively. 5GHz provides faster data connections and E. 2.4GHz has a higher coverage area. 5GHz has higher bandwidth. The 2.4GHz frequency has a lower data rate compared to 5GHz, but it can penetrate solid objects more effectively and has a higher coverage area. The 5GHz frequency, on the other hand, provides faster data connections and has higher bandwidth, but it has fewer channels and lower transmit power.
CORRECT TEXT
Which of the following is the PRIMARY security concern with virtual machine escape?
- A . Cross-site scripting
- B . Compromising the hypervisor
- C . Overutilization of resources
- D . Rogue virtual machines installed on the hypervisor
B
Explanation:
The primary security concern with virtual machine escape is compromising the hypervisor, which can allow attackers to gain access to other virtual machines or the host system. Virtual machine escape refers to an attack that allows a guest virtual machine to break out of its isolated environment and access other parts of the system.
A technician is upgrading a faulty motherboard that was ordered by an end user for an old, high-end desktop computer. However, the technician is unable to install the CPU into the socket. Upon closer inspection, the technician notices the pins on the CPU do not line up with the socket.
Which of the following would be the best course of action for the technician to take NEXT?
- A . Try to set as many pins as possible.
- B . Install an adaptor to create a universal socket.
- C . Verify the socket type and manufacturer.
- D . Find a compatible motherboard for the CPU.
C
Explanation:
In this situation, the best course of action for the technician to take NEXT would be
C. Verify the socket type and manufacturer. If the pins on the CPU do not line up with the socket on the motherboard, it is likely that there is a compatibility issue between the two components. The technician should verify that the socket type and manufacturer of the motherboard match those of the CPU to ensure that they are compatible.
Which of the following components houses the MX record?
- A . DNS
- B . VLAN
- C . DHCP
- D . SMTP
A
Explanation:
The MX record is housed in the DNS (Domain Name System) which is responsible for translating domain names into IP addresses and vice versa. The MX record specifies the mail server responsible for accepting email messages on behalf of a domain name and is a resource record in the DNS123.
An organization is looking to upgrade the processing ability for its computers. Most users report that whenever multiple applications are being utilized, the system’s response time slows down drastically. When only one application is open, the response time is acceptable.
Which of the following should be upgraded FIRST?
- A . SSD
- B . CPU
- C . HDD
- D . RAM
D
Explanation:
The component that should be upgraded first is the RAM. When multiple applications are being utilized, the system’s response time slows down drastically. This is because the computer is running out of memory. Upgrading the RAM will allow the computer to store more data in memory, which will improve performance when multiple applications are being used123.
A company needs to support a 10Gbps throughput.
Which of the following is the MINIMUM cable category that could be used?
- A . Cat 5
- B . Cat 5e
- C . Cat 6
- D . Cat 6a
D
Explanation:
The minimum cable category that could be used to support a 10Gbps throughput is Cat 6a. Cat 6a cable is required with 10 Gigabit Ethernet for reliable performance with cable lengths up to 100 metres. However, lower-specification cables can often be successfully used, particularly with the shorter cable lengths required in a typical home123.
A technician needs to install RAM into a rackmount server that will be used as a VM host.
Which of the following would be BEST to install?
- A . SODIMM
- B . VRAM
- C . DDR4
- D . ECC
D
Explanation:
When installing RAM into a server that will be used as a VM host, it is recommended to install ECC (Error-Correcting Code) RAM to help prevent errors that can cause virtual machines to crash.
References: https://www.servermonkey.com/blog/ecc-vs-non-ecc-ram-what-are-the-differences.html
When installing RAM into a rackmount server that will be used as a VM host, it would be best to install ECC (Error Correcting Code) RAM which can detect and correct common types of data corruption.
A technician is troubleshooting a laptop that has a blank LCD panel. The technician shines a flashlight into the LCD and sees a faint image.
Which of the following BEST describes the issue?
- A . Defective inverter
- B . Incomplete video driver
- C . Incorrect input source
- D . Burned-out bulb
A
Explanation:
an inverter is a device that converts DC power from the laptop’s battery or AC adapter to AC power for the backlight of the LCD panel. If the inverter is defective, the backlight will not work and the LCD panel will appear blank or very dim. The user can still see a faint image if they shine a flashlight into the LCD because the LCD itself is still working.
A technician is on site troubleshooting a customer’s laptop. The technician needs to download a software update but the company’s proxy is blocking updates.
Which of the following would be the MOST appropriate action for the technician to take to get the update?
- A . Connect to a hotspot
- B . Request a traffic exemption.
- C . Change the DNS address to 1.1.1.1
- D . Update the Group Policy settings
B
Explanation:
If a technician is on site troubleshooting a customer’s laptop and needs to download a software update but the company’s proxy is blocking updates, the most appropriate action for the technician to take would be to request a traffic exemption from the company’s IT department.
A technician installed a new router at a small office. After the Installation, the technician notices that all devices have a I69.254.x.x IP address. Printers and fileshares are still working, but PCs cannot access the Internet.
Which of the following should the technician configure on the router to enable devices to connect to the internet?
- A . APIPA
- B . DNS
- C . DHCP
- D . SMB
C
Explanation:
To enable devices to connect to the internet after installing a new router at a small office, the technician should configure DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) on the router. DHCP is a network protocol that automatically assigns IP addresses and other network configuration parameters to devices on a network. By configuring DHCP on the router, the technician can ensure that all devices on the network are assigned a valid IP address that allows them to connect to the internet.
If all devices have a 169.254.x.x IP address, this suggests that the router is not assigning IP addresses to the devices using DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol). Configuring the DHCP settings on the router can enable the devices to receive IP addresses automatically and access the internet. References: CompTIA A+ Certification All-in-One Exam Guide, Tenth Edition, Chapter 14
A department sends in a ticket to report a printer is not working. The responding technician sees paper stuck to the fuser, which is much hotter than normal. The (user was just installed a few weeks ago. as indicated by the service history.
Which of the following should the technician do NEXT?
- A . Disable the printer for repairs.
- B . Install a printer roller kit.
- C . Remove the paper and let the fuser cool down.
- D . Replace the paper with thicker paper stock.
A user submits a help desk ticket regarding a smartphone that will no longer accept its charging cable. The assigned technician notices the phone does not have a protective case, and the user constantly transport the phone in a pocket. The technician attempts to use a secondary charger, but the cable falls out of the phone.
Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the issue?
- A . The phone requires a firmware update to address charging issues.
- B . The charge port contains foreign objects, such as lint.
- C . The phone’s battery has swelled, preventing the utilization of the charge port.
- D . The phone has experienced water damage, thus the battery is not charring.
B
Explanation:
The symptoms suggest that the charging cable falls out of the phone, indicating that the charge port may contain foreign objects such as lint, which can interfere with the connection between the charging cable and the phone.
A desktop support technician is tasked with upgrading a laptop so that it has the fastest data access possible.
Which of the following BEST satisfies this requirement?
- A . mSATASSD
- B . M.2NVMeSSD
- C . 2.5SATASSD
- D . 2.5SASHHD
B
Explanation:
M.2 NVMe SSD provides the fastest data access possible for a laptop. It is a high-performance solid-state drive that connects directly to the motherboard through an M.2 slot.
A user requested upgrades to a company-issued laptop to increase its performance while working with a large database stored on drive C.
Which of the following tasks should a systems administrator complete to BEST meet this goal? (Select TWO).
- A . Configure RAID 1.
- B . Install a hybrid drive.
- C . Upgrade to 1GB NIC.
- D . Increase the RAM.
- E . Migrate to a SSD.
- F . Upgrade the power supply.
D,E
Explanation:
To increase the performance of a laptop working with a large database stored on drive C, a systems administrator should increase the RAM and migrate to an SSD. Increasing the RAM will help the laptop to better handle the large database, while migrating to an SSD will improve the speed at which the laptop can access the database. Configuring RAID 1, installing a hybrid drive, upgrading to a 1GB NIC, and upgrading the power supply will not directly improve the laptop’s performance when working with a large database.
References: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 1 – Objective 3.1
A user’s computer is not receiving a network connection. The technician confirms that the connection seems to be down and looks for the user’s port on the patch panel. The port and patch panel are not labeled.
Which of the following network tools should the technician use to identify the port?
- A . Network tap
- B . Punchdown tool
- C . Toner probe
- D . Crimper
C
Explanation:
Toner Probe Many cable testers also incorporate the function of a toner probe, which is used to identify a cable from within a bundle. This may be necessary when the cables have not been labeled properly. The tone generator is connected to the cable using an RJ45 jack and applies a continuous audio signal on the cable. The probe is used to detect the signal and follow the cable over ceilings and through ducts or identify it from within the rest of the bundle.
A user’s laptop is running out of disk space and requires a new hard drive. The user wants to replace the existing hard drive with the fastest possible I TB HDD. A technician assesses the user’s hardware and determines the connections that are available.
Which of the following drive types should the technician recommend as the BEST choice?
- A . 1TB NVMe SSD
- B . 1TB flash drive
- C . 1TB SATA SSD
- D . 1TB SAS
A
Explanation:
The best choice for the user’s laptop is a 1TB NVMe SSD. NVMe (Non-Volatile Memory Express) is a high-performance storage protocol designed specifically for solid-state drives (SSDs). It is significantly faster than SATA SSDs and SAS hard drives, making it ideal for users who need fast storage for their laptop. NVMe SSDs also have lower latency and higher bandwidth than traditional hard drives, making them well-suited for data-intensive tasks such as video editing, gaming, and running multiple applications simultaneously. Additionally, NVMe offers more reliable data reliability than traditional hard drives, and is less susceptible to performance degradation over time.
Which of the following 802.11 standards supports both 5GHz and 2.4GHz channel frequencies?
- A . 802.11a
- B . 802.11ac
- C . 802.11b
- D . 802.11g
B
Explanation:
Which of the following 802.11 standards supports both 5GHz and 2.4GHz channel frequencies?
- A . 802.11a
- B . 802.11ac
- C . 802.11b
- D . 802.11g
B
Explanation:
A software developer used client-side virtualization on a server to configure a web application. Although the application is working locally on the software developer’s PC, other users on the LAN are not able to access the application.
Which of the following would allow other users to access the application?
- A . Bridge networking
- B . Application virtualization
- C . Virtual desktop
- D . Site-to-site VPN
A
Explanation:
Client-side virtualization is used to run an application or process on a separate virtual machine, isolated from the main operating system. To allow other users on the LAN to access the application, the software developer should configure a bridge networking connection between the virtual machine and the LAN. This will allow the virtual machine to communicate with other computers on the network. Application virtualization, virtual desktop, and site-to-site VPN are not necessary steps for allowing other users to access the application.
Which of the following wireless technologies has the MOST range and wireless throughput?
- A . 802.11ac
- B . 802.11ax
- C . 802. 11b/gin
- D . 802.11g
B
Explanation:
Which of the following wireless technologies has the MOST range and wireless throughput?
- A . 802.11ac
- B . 802.11ax
- C . 802. 11b/gin
- D . 802.11g
B
Explanation:
A technician is receiving reports that the entire office sporadically loses network connectivity throughout the day. The technician determines the root cause to be EMI.
Which of the cable mediums would be the MOST cost effective without sacrificing system performance?
- A . Coaxial
- B . Shielded Cat 6
- C . Plenum Cat 5e
- D . Multimode fiber
B
Explanation:
Electromagnetic interference (EMI) is unwanted noise or interference in an electrical path or circuit caused by an outside source. Hence shielded Cat 6 is better
If a technician determines that the root cause of sporadic network connectivity issues is EMI, the most cost-effective cable medium that can be used without sacrificing system performance is shielded Cat 6 cable. Shielded cables protect against electromagnetic interference (EMI) and radio frequency interference (RFI). References: CompTIA A+ Certification All-in-One Exam Guide, Tenth Edition by Mike Meyers (Page 548)
A help desk technician has been tasked with installing an IP phone in a small office with an unmanaged switch. When connected to an RJ45 receptacle, the phone does not boot.
Which of the following is the QUICKEST way to resolve this issue?
- A . Upgrade the Ethernet cable to the latest specification.
- B . Replace the phone.
- C . Install a PoE injector.
- D . Change ports on the switch.
C
Explanation:
https://intellinetnetwork.eu/pages/what-is-a-poe-injector
The quickest way to resolve the issue is to install a Power over Ethernet (PoE) injector to provide power to the IP phone. An unmanaged switch does not provide PoE, so an injector is needed to power the phone.
A technician is tasked with upgrading a laptop’s RAM.
Which of the following steps should the technician lake FIRST?
- A . Confirm that both the current and new memory are from the same brand.
- B . Run a diagnostic test on the current memory.
- C . Verify the memory requirements of the motherboard.
- D . Connect an electrostatic discharge strap.
C
Explanation:
If a technician is tasked with upgrading a laptop’s RAM, the technician should verify the memory requirements of the motherboard first. The motherboard of the laptop will have specific requirements for the type and amount of RAM that can be installed. By verifying the memory requirements of the motherboard, the technician can ensure that the new RAM is compatible with the laptop.
Before upgrading a laptop’s RAM, a technician should verify the memory requirements of the motherboard to ensure the new RAM is compatible. The type, speed, and maximum capacity of the RAM should be checked to ensure it meets the requirements of the motherboard. References: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Guide, pg. 347-348
A user reports limited or no connectivity on a laptop.
A technician runs ipconfig /all with the following result:
Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this issue?
- A . DHCP failure
- B . ARP cache
- C . DNS resolution
- D . Duplicate IP address
A user contacts the help desk in reference to a failing thumbprint scanner. The user states the scanner was functioning correctly yesterday.
Which of the following troubleshooting steps should be performed FIRST after the ticket has been filed?
- A . Inquire about possible changes.
- B . File a damage report.
- C . Requisition a new scanner.
- D . Attempt to clean the scanner.
A
Explanation:
http://www.221021.com/Hardware/input-output-devices/32310.html
A user contacts the help desk in reference to a failing thumbprint scanner. The user states the scanner was functioning correctly yesterday.
Which of the following troubleshooting steps should be performed FIRST after the ticket has been filed?
- A . Inquire about possible changes.
- B . File a damage report.
- C . Requisition a new scanner.
- D . Attempt to clean the scanner.
A
Explanation:
http://www.221021.com/Hardware/input-output-devices/32310.html
A user contacts the help desk in reference to a failing thumbprint scanner. The user states the scanner was functioning correctly yesterday.
Which of the following troubleshooting steps should be performed FIRST after the ticket has been filed?
- A . Inquire about possible changes.
- B . File a damage report.
- C . Requisition a new scanner.
- D . Attempt to clean the scanner.
A
Explanation:
http://www.221021.com/Hardware/input-output-devices/32310.html
A user contacts the help desk in reference to a failing thumbprint scanner. The user states the scanner was functioning correctly yesterday.
Which of the following troubleshooting steps should be performed FIRST after the ticket has been filed?
- A . Inquire about possible changes.
- B . File a damage report.
- C . Requisition a new scanner.
- D . Attempt to clean the scanner.
A
Explanation:
http://www.221021.com/Hardware/input-output-devices/32310.html
A user contacts the help desk in reference to a failing thumbprint scanner. The user states the scanner was functioning correctly yesterday.
Which of the following troubleshooting steps should be performed FIRST after the ticket has been filed?
- A . Inquire about possible changes.
- B . File a damage report.
- C . Requisition a new scanner.
- D . Attempt to clean the scanner.
A
Explanation:
http://www.221021.com/Hardware/input-output-devices/32310.html
A user contacts the help desk in reference to a failing thumbprint scanner. The user states the scanner was functioning correctly yesterday.
Which of the following troubleshooting steps should be performed FIRST after the ticket has been filed?
- A . Inquire about possible changes.
- B . File a damage report.
- C . Requisition a new scanner.
- D . Attempt to clean the scanner.
A
Explanation:
http://www.221021.com/Hardware/input-output-devices/32310.html
A user contacts the help desk in reference to a failing thumbprint scanner. The user states the scanner was functioning correctly yesterday.
Which of the following troubleshooting steps should be performed FIRST after the ticket has been filed?
- A . Inquire about possible changes.
- B . File a damage report.
- C . Requisition a new scanner.
- D . Attempt to clean the scanner.
A
Explanation:
http://www.221021.com/Hardware/input-output-devices/32310.html
An IT technician is inspecting the internal components of a desktop computer to assess a suspected power issue with the motherboard.
Which of the following connectors should the IT technician inspect further?
- A . RJ45
- B . Straight tip
- C . DB9
- D . Molex
D
Explanation:
The connector that the IT technician should inspect further is Molex. The Molex connector is used to provide power to the motherboard and other components in the computer. If there is a suspected power issue with the motherboard, the IT technician should inspect the Molex connector to ensure that it is properly connected and providing power to the motherboard1
A user reports that a printer is leaving streaks on printed pages. The paper type and the toner have been replaced.
Which of the following should the technician check NEXT to resolve the issue?
- A . System board
- B . Paper tray
- C . Memory
- D . Fuser
D
Explanation:
This is because the fuser is the part of the printer that heats and melts the toner onto the paper. If the fuser is defective or dirty, it can cause streaks or smudges on printed pages. The system board and the memory are not related to the quality of the print output. The paper tray may cause paper jams or misfeeds, but not streaks on the paper.
The Chief Executive Officer wants to ensure company data is stored in a manner that provides the company with complete control over how the data is managed.
Which of the following is the BEST cloud deployment model for this request?
- A . Community
- B . Hybrid
- C . Public
- D . Private
D
Explanation:
A private cloud deployment model provides the company with complete control over how the data is managed. This is because a private cloud is managed solely by the organization and resides on-premises or in a data center. Therefore, a private cloud deployment model is the best option for this scenario.
A user submitted a support ticket that states all of the printouts from a laser printer appear to have double images imposed on them. A review of past printer support tickets shows that maintenance kit has not been installed in more than a year.
Which of the following printer consumables is MOST likely causing the issue?
- A . Separation pad
- B . Transfer roller
- C . Ink cartridge
- D . Fuser
D
Explanation:
https://www.vingle.net/posts/4651722
A user failed to gain access to a building’s entrance after security measures at the entrance were upgraded last week. The company implemented the 13.56MHz frequency short band, and users can now utilize their mobile devices to authenticate.
Which of the following has to be enabled for the mobile device to authenticate?
- A . Bluetooth
- B . Biometrics
- C . NFC
- D . PIN
C
Explanation:
NFC (Near Field Communication) is a technology used for short-range wireless communication between devices, typically used for contactless payments and authentication. In this scenario, the 13.56MHz frequency short band was implemented, and users can authenticate using their mobile devices, which requires NFC to be enabled on the device. References: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Objectives 220-1001 – Mobile
device network and device synchronization – 4.4
A technician is troubleshooting an old desktop system that randomly shows a Windows BSOD or powers off unexpectedly. All system temperatures are within normal limits.
Which of the following should the technician do NEXT?
- A . Visually inspect the motherboard capacitors.
- B . Verify all case fans are operational.
- C . Check that the BIOS version supports the installed CPU.
- D . Compare the software requirements with the installed RAM.
A
Explanation:
BSoDs can be caused by poorly written device drivers or malfunctioning hardware, such as faulty memory, power supply issues, overheating of components, or hardware running beyond its specification limits. In the Windows 9x era, incompatible DLLs or bugs in the operating system kernel could also cause BSoDs.
A technician set up a new access point and has noticed significant latency on the selected channel.
Which of the following tools can assist with locating the BEST channel to use?
- A . Wi-Fi analyzer
- B . Netstat
- C . Net use
- D . Traceroute
- E . Network tap
A
Explanation:
A Wi-Fi analyzer is a tool that can be used to scan the local area for available wireless networks and can provide information such as signal strength, interference, and available channels. It can also be used to locate the best channel to use for a given access point, which can help to reduce latency and improve performance.
Recently, an organization received a number of spam emails that passed through the spam gateway. The emails contained generally the same information, but the sending domains were different.
Which of the following solutions would BEST help mitigate the issue?
- A . Updating the keyword filtering
- B . Editing the sender policy framework
- C . Contacting the gateway vendor
- D . Verifying DMARC is enabled
D
Explanation:
DMARC (Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting and Conformance) is an email authentication protocol. It is designed to give email domain owners the ability to protect their domain from unauthorized use, commonly known as email spoofing.
A user working in the field reported the GPS stopped working on a phone. The user’s older, in-car GPS continued to function. Later, the user reported that the phone’s GPS started working again.
Which of the following MOST likely caused the phone’s GPS to fail?
- A . The cell phone was in conservation mode
- B . The cell phone had lost service to the earner
- C . The eel phone received a firmware update
- D . The cell phone had overheated
B
Explanation:
The phone’s GPS may fail due to a loss of service from the carrier, which provides the phone with GPS location data. The fact that the in-car GPS continued to function suggests that the issue was related to the phone, not the GPS satellites. References: CompTIA A+ Certification Study Guide, Tenth Edition, pg. 372
A technician is setting up a new desktop computer and will be installing the hard drive directly on the motherboard without using cables to connect it.
Which of the following will the technician be installing?
- A . Thunderbolt
- B . eSATA
- C . M.2
- D . SCSI
C
Explanation:
M.2 is a form factor for solid-state drives (SSDs) that enables direct attachment to the motherboard without the need for cables. Thunderbolt is a high-speed interface that supports data transfer, video output, and charging. eSATA is an external interface for connecting SATA devices. SCSI is an older interface standard for connecting hard drives, printers, and other peripherals.
Installing a hard drive directly on the motherboard without using cables is usually done with an M.2 slot. References: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Guide, Ninth Edition, Chapter 5
Which of the following is a valid use for PaaS?
- A . Off-site backups
- B . An application development environment
- C . A virtual server installation and configuration model
- D . A web application for asset management
B
Explanation:
PaaS (Platform as a Service) is a cloud computing model in which a provider offers a platform that allows developers to create, run, and manage applications without the complexity of building and maintaining the infrastructure. An application development environment is a valid use for PaaS. References: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Objectives 1001, 1.7
Which of the following video cables can carry an audio signal?
- A . HDMI
- B . S-Video
- C . VGA
- D . DVI
A
Explanation:
This is because HDMI (High-Definition Multimedia Interface) is a digital video cable that can also carry audio signals1. HDMI cables are commonly used to connect devices like Blu-ray players, game consoles, and streaming boxes to HDTVs and monitors. The other options are not capable of carrying audio signals. VGA (Video Graphics Array) is an analog video cable that only carries RGBHV signals12. S-Video (Super Video) is another analog video cable that carries separate luminance and chrominance signals1
. DVI (Digital Visual Interface) is a digital video cable that can carry either analog or digital signals, but not audio1.
Which of the following cables replaced the Apple 30-pin connector and is also reversible?
- A . USB-C
- B . Lightning
- C . miniUSB
- D . DisplayPort
B
Explanation:
Lightning Connector: Apple introduced this brand-new connector back in 2012. It is over 80% smaller than the 30-pin connector and is reversible.
https://www.cablewholesale.com/support/technical_articles/whats_your_port.php#:~:text=Lightning%20Connector%3A%20Apple%20introduced%20this,pin%20connector%20and%20is%20reversible.
A Wi-Fi mesh network has been optimized to eliminate poor coverage areas, yet users still experience decreased bandwidth and connectivity issues.
Which of the following actions should the technician take NEXT?
- A . Relocate any large, dense, solid, and metal objects, such as mirrors and file cabinets, in the mesh network coverage area to the perimeter so that wireless reflections, absorptions, and occlusions are minimized.
- B . Use a Wi-Fi analyzer to determine whether the channel in use is overcrowded and to identify which channel the mesh network should use for best performance.
- C . Use the signal strength indicator on a mobile device to roam the coverage area and generate a heat map to isolate zones with weak signals.
- D . Turn off broadcasting of the SSID on the mesh network so that other networks cannot see it.
B
Explanation:
If users are experiencing decreased bandwidth and connectivity issues in a Wi-Fi mesh network, the technician should use a Wi-Fi analyzer to determine whether the channel in use is overcrowded and to identify which channel the mesh network should use for best performance. References: CompTIA A+ Certification Study Guide, Tenth Edition, pg. 308
An organization has some computers running macOS and some computers running Windows. The computers running macOS also need to run a piece of software that is only available on Windows.
Which of the following BEST describes the solution for running Windows software on a computer running macOS?
- A . Operating system spoofing
- B . Remote software provisioning
- C . Indirect software implementation
- D . Cross-platform virtualization
D
Explanation:
Cross-platform virtualization would be the best solution for running Windows software on a computer running macOS. This involves running a virtual machine (VM) on the macOS computer, which emulates a Windows environment and allows the Windows software to be installed and run within the VM.
Cross-platform virtualization allows a computer running macOS to run Windows software. It involves creating a virtual machine on the macOS computer and installing a Windows operating system on it. References: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Guide, Ninth Edition, Chapter 1
A technician just finished assembling a new PC for a client. Upon POST, the device presents an unspecified beep code and turns off automatically after five seconds. The technician double-checks the bill of materials for the new build and confirms all items have been installed.
Which of the following should the technician do NEXT?
- A . Ensure thermal paste is being used on the CPU.
- B . Check to make sure that any video cards have auxiliary power cabling connected.
- C . Verify the header panel connector is properly connected.
- D . Spot-check that the I/O shield for the motherboard is properly installed.
C
Explanation:
The technician should verify the header panel connector is properly connected. A beep code is a diagnostic tool used by motherboards to indicate issues with hardware components. This beep code may be indicating an issue with the connection between the motherboard and the case’s header panel connector. This connector is responsible for providing power to the system and any connected peripherals. Therefore, the technician should verify the connection is secure and properly connected before attempting any other troubleshooting steps.
A salesperson is using a weather application on a mobile device. The application appears to be draining the device’s battery very quickly.
Which of the following is the BEST action for the salesperson to take in order to view weather forecasts while traveling?
- A . Enable the GPS service to ensure accurate location detection.
- B . Update the PRL when getting to a new location.
- C . Configure less location checks using cellular location services,
- D . use the offices’ Wi-Fi IP addresses as the geolocation mechanism.
C
Explanation:
The best action for the salesperson to take in order to view weather forecasts while traveling and minimize the battery drain on their mobile device is to configure fewer location checks using cellular location services. This can be done by adjusting the settings for the weather application to limit how often it checks for updates and uses location services. This will help to conserve the battery on the device and keep the application from consuming too much power.
A technician is commissioning a workstation that is required to have mirrored storage, utilizing two 4TB drives that support one failure.
Which of the following BEST meets these requirements?
- A . RAID 0
- B . RAID 1
- C . RAID 5
- D . RAID 10
B
Explanation:
RAID 1 is a mirrored configuration that utilizes two drives and provides redundancy by allowing one drive to fail without data loss. This configuration meets the requirement of mirrored storage with two 4TB drives that support one failure. References: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Guide, Ninth Edition, Chapter 8
Which of the following network types would be used in a server room to connect virtual servers lo high-speed storage?
- A . WAN
- B . PAN
- C . MAN
- D . SAN
D
Explanation:
A Storage Area Network (SAN) is a dedicated, high-speed network that connects servers to data storage devices. SANs are used in server rooms to provide high-speed storage access to virtual servers.
A technician responds to a help desk ticket that indicates a user’s workstation is not booting. The technician initially suspects a failed hard drive. The technician performs diagnostics and confirms the hard drive is fully operational.
Which of the following steps should the technician complete NEXT?
- A . Reinstall the operating system.
- B . Configure a new RAID array.
- C . Report the status of the drive and close the ticket.
- D . Consider another possible cause of the issue.
- E . Restore the latest backup of the system.
D
Explanation:
Since the hard drive appears to be functioning normally, the technician should investigate other potential causes of the issue. This could include checking the BIOS settings, verifying the connections to the hard drive, and testing the RAM. Once these steps have been completed, the technician can then take the necessary steps to resolve the issue.
A technician recently discovered me root cause of an application error that several users have been experiencing.
The technician updated the configurations on the affected machines and verified full functionality was restored for all users, which of the following actions should the technician perform NEXT?
- A . Write a knowledge base article in the ticketing software to expedite future Incidents.
- B . Submit a bug report to the developer of the application, along with the steps taken to resolve the Issue.
- C . Work with the developer to proactively collect the application logs to identify future errors of this type.
- D . Send an email communication to the company about the issue and the steps taken to resolve it.
A
Explanation:
CompTIA 6-Step Troubleshooting Process:
A technician recently discovered me root cause of an application error that several users have been experiencing.
The technician updated the configurations on the affected machines and verified full functionality was restored for all users, which of the following actions should the technician perform NEXT?
- A . Write a knowledge base article in the ticketing software to expedite future Incidents.
- B . Submit a bug report to the developer of the application, along with the steps taken to resolve the Issue.
- C . Work with the developer to proactively collect the application logs to identify future errors of this type.
- D . Send an email communication to the company about the issue and the steps taken to resolve it.
A
Explanation:
CompTIA 6-Step Troubleshooting Process:
A technician recently discovered me root cause of an application error that several users have been experiencing.
The technician updated the configurations on the affected machines and verified full functionality was restored for all users, which of the following actions should the technician perform NEXT?
- A . Write a knowledge base article in the ticketing software to expedite future Incidents.
- B . Submit a bug report to the developer of the application, along with the steps taken to resolve the Issue.
- C . Work with the developer to proactively collect the application logs to identify future errors of this type.
- D . Send an email communication to the company about the issue and the steps taken to resolve it.
A
Explanation:
CompTIA 6-Step Troubleshooting Process:
A technician recently discovered me root cause of an application error that several users have been experiencing.
The technician updated the configurations on the affected machines and verified full functionality was restored for all users, which of the following actions should the technician perform NEXT?
- A . Write a knowledge base article in the ticketing software to expedite future Incidents.
- B . Submit a bug report to the developer of the application, along with the steps taken to resolve the Issue.
- C . Work with the developer to proactively collect the application logs to identify future errors of this type.
- D . Send an email communication to the company about the issue and the steps taken to resolve it.
A
Explanation:
CompTIA 6-Step Troubleshooting Process:
A technician recently discovered me root cause of an application error that several users have been experiencing.
The technician updated the configurations on the affected machines and verified full functionality was restored for all users, which of the following actions should the technician perform NEXT?
- A . Write a knowledge base article in the ticketing software to expedite future Incidents.
- B . Submit a bug report to the developer of the application, along with the steps taken to resolve the Issue.
- C . Work with the developer to proactively collect the application logs to identify future errors of this type.
- D . Send an email communication to the company about the issue and the steps taken to resolve it.
A
Explanation:
CompTIA 6-Step Troubleshooting Process:
A technician recently discovered me root cause of an application error that several users have been experiencing.
The technician updated the configurations on the affected machines and verified full functionality was restored for all users, which of the following actions should the technician perform NEXT?
- A . Write a knowledge base article in the ticketing software to expedite future Incidents.
- B . Submit a bug report to the developer of the application, along with the steps taken to resolve the Issue.
- C . Work with the developer to proactively collect the application logs to identify future errors of this type.
- D . Send an email communication to the company about the issue and the steps taken to resolve it.
A
Explanation:
CompTIA 6-Step Troubleshooting Process:
A technician recently discovered me root cause of an application error that several users have been experiencing.
The technician updated the configurations on the affected machines and verified full functionality was restored for all users, which of the following actions should the technician perform NEXT?
- A . Write a knowledge base article in the ticketing software to expedite future Incidents.
- B . Submit a bug report to the developer of the application, along with the steps taken to resolve the Issue.
- C . Work with the developer to proactively collect the application logs to identify future errors of this type.
- D . Send an email communication to the company about the issue and the steps taken to resolve it.
A
Explanation:
CompTIA 6-Step Troubleshooting Process:
A user has decided to build a new computer with parts purchased from a popular online vendor The user has referenced online resources to assemble the unit. However, when the user presses the power button, the new computer does not load the operating system’s installer. Instead, the onboard speaker beeps and immediately reports an issue on the screen.
Which of the following is the MOST likely issue with the new build?
- A . The user did not plug in the processor’s fan.
- B . The user did not apply thermal paste to the CPU.
- C . The user did not seat the GPU correctly.
- D . The user did not install the power supply.
A
Explanation:
If a computer is not booting and the onboard speaker emits beeps, it can indicate a hardware issue. One of the most common causes of beep codes is overheating, which can occur if the processor’s fan is not properly installed and running. The processor’s fan is responsible for cooling the processor and preventing damage to the internal components.
A technician is implementing a SOHO wireless solution with three access points.
Which of the following actions would avoid high latency?
- A . Enabling and configuring a 5GHz antenna
- B . Configuring separate IP ranges
- C . Enabling multiple SSIDs
- D . Configuring all devices with different channels
D
Explanation:
If a technician is implementing a SOHO wireless solution with three access points and wants to avoid high latency, the technician should configure all devices with different channels. By configuring all devices with different channels, the technician can ensure that the wireless signals from each access point do not interfere with each other, which can cause high latency.
While implementing a non-carrier-grade wireless backhaul, a technician notices the current channel selection is extremely polluted with various RF signals. Upon performing a spectral analysis, the technician discovers a channel containing almost no RF pollution.
Unfortunately, the technician is unable to select that channel.
Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for this issue?
- A . The channel is reserved for licensed band use.
- B . The channel selection is defective; contact the manufacturer.
- C . The channel must be unlocked by the vendor.
- D . The device requires a firmware update to unlock the channel.
A
Explanation:
The most likely reason that the technician is unable to select the channel with almost no RF pollution is that it is reserved for licensed band use. Some channels are reserved for specific purposes and require a license to use. These licensed bands are typically used for critical infrastructure, public safety, or military operations, and unlicensed devices are not allowed to use them. References: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Objectives – 220-1001: 3.3 Compare and contrast common networking hardware devices.
A technician is troubleshooting a projector that will not display any Images. The technician has verified the computer output and cable are providing a good video signal.
Which of the following should the technician do NEXT?
- A . Calibrate the image.
- B . Replace the bulb.
- C . Test the output resolution.
- D . Clean the fans.
C
Explanation:
The MOST efficient next step the technician should do is to test the output resolution1. The issue of a projector that will not display any images could be related to the output resolution1. If the output resolution is not compatible with the projector, the projector will not display any images1. Calibrating the image, replacing the bulb, or cleaning the fans may not be effective1.
If a projector is not displaying any images despite verifying that the computer output and cable are providing a good video signal, the technician should test the output resolution. The output resolution of the computer may not be compatible with the projector, which can cause the projector to not display any images.
A technician is troubleshooting a smartphone that has a large dark area on the screen. The screen has no damage to Indicate that It is cracked.
Which of the following BEST describes why a blot Is on the screen?
- A . Digitizer damage
- B . Improper charging
- C . Ambient light sensor damage
- D . Liquid damage
A
Explanation:
A blot on the screen of a smartphone is most likely caused by damage to the digitizer, which is the part of the device responsible for interpreting touch input. Improper charging is unlikely to cause a blot on the screen, as is damage to the ambient light sensor. Liquid damage is a possibility, but it is more likely to cause discoloration or other physical damage to the screen.
A technician identified an issue on a workstation, obtained details from the user, and made a backup of the system.
Which of the following should the technician do NEXT?
- A . Determine the next steps to resolve the issue and document it.
- B . Design a plan of action to resolve the issue and implement the solution.
- C . Document the findings, actions, and outcomes.
- D . Establish a theory of probable cause, researching internally or externally as needed.
D
Explanation:
After the issue has been identified and the backup of the system has been made, the next step is to establish a theory of probable cause. This involves researching the issue to determine the root cause of the problem. This can involve researching internally (e.g. referring to the system logs) or externally (e.g. searching online). Once the probable cause has been identified, the technician can then move on to the next step of designing a plan of action to resolve the issue and implementing the solution.
A user attempted to install an application on a desktop, and the installation attempt failed. A technician compares these installation files to those on another user’s machine and finds the files are different.
Which of the following should the technician do NEXT?
- A . Attempt to reinstall the application.
- B . Verify the system functionality.
- C . Test the functionality of the antivirus.
- D . Complete the final report.
- E . Determine the source of the installation file.
Which of the following standards supports MIMO technology?
- A . 802.11a
- B . 802.11b
- C . 802.11g
- D . 802.11n
D
Explanation:
The 802.11n wireless networking standard supports Multiple Input Multiple Output (MIMO) technology. MIMO technology uses multiple antennas on both the transmitting and receiving devices to improve wireless performance by increasing the amount of data that can be transmitted simultaneously. 802.11a, 802.11b, and 802.11g do not support MIMO technology. References: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 1 – Objective 3.3
An administrator is configuring a corporate-owned smartphone for a new manager. The company requires the ability to wipe the phone’s data remotely in the event of loss or theft and the capability to approve applications installed on the phone.
Which of the following tools would BEST meet this need?
- A . Tethering to a corporate-owned laptop
- B . WPA2-Enterpise wireless
- C . Corporate enterprise email
- D . Mobile device management
D
Explanation:
Mobile Device Management (MDM) is a software solution that allows companies to manage and secure mobile devices used in the corporate environment. MDM provides features such as remote data wipe, application management, and device security policies to ensure data protection and compliance with company policies. References: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Objectives 220-1001 – Mobile device hardware and operating systems – 2.8
A user is looking for a way to increase the total RAM in a system without upgrading the hardware.
Which of the following should the user perform to complete this task?
- A . Run a burn-in application
- B . Create a VM.
- C . Install hardware-tuning software.
- D . Set up virtual memory.
D
Explanation:
Virtual memory is a software-based memory management system that allows a computer to use hard disk storage space as RAM. This can be used to increase the total RAM in a system without upgrading the hardware. To set up virtual memory, the user should go to the System Properties window and select the Advanced tab. In the Performance section, click on the Settings button, which will open the Performance Options window. Then, click on the Advanced tab and click on the Change button in the Virtual memory section. Finally, select the option to Automatically manage paging file size for all drives, and then click OK to save the changes.
An online retailer wants to save money and is considering migrating to the public cloud so peak is over.
Which of the following BEST describes this aspect of cloud computing?
- A . Rapid elasticity
- B . Metered utilization
- C . Shared resources
- D . High availability
A
Explanation:
Rapid elasticity is only suitable for a domain whose resource requirements suddenly up and down for a specific time interval. Referring to the question the online retailer wants to migrate to public cloud services during peak season, then wants it to be removed "automatically" when the peak is over.
To which of the following should a technician connect individual pairs of a Cat 6 cable in order to provide a connection to a switch?
- A . Access point
- B . Patch panel
- C . Hub
- D . Firewall
- E . Wall jack
B
Explanation:
A patch panel is a mounted hardware unit containing ports used to manage cable connections. The individual pairs of a Cat 6 cable are terminated on the patch panel, which then provides a central location for cable management and organization. The patch panel is then connected to the switch using a patch cable.
Every time a user sends a print job, the user must walk over to the printer and press OK before the job will print. The same issue is occurring for multiple users.
Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the issue?
- A . The wrong network printer queue is being used.
- B . The network printer is on the wrong VLAN.
- C . A The default paper type has been changed.
- D . The print server has outdated print drivers.
C
Explanation:
The message prompting to press "OK" indicates that the printer is waiting for a user input. This suggests that there is some issue with the printer settings, and the most probable cause is that the default paper type has been changed, and the printer needs the user to confirm the paper type before proceeding with the print job. This is a common issue that can occur when the default paper type is not set correctly or has been changed without the user’s knowledge.
A technician is installing new power supplies for the application engineering team’s workstations. The management team has not yet made a decision about installing dual graphics cards, but they want to proceed with the project anyway.
Which of the following power supplies would provide the BEST solution?
- A . 1000W 24-pin modular power supply
- B . 220VAC 9000J surge protector
- C . 500W redundant power supply
- D . 2000VA uninterruptible power supply
A
Explanation:
A 1000W 24-pin modular power supply provides enough power to support a dual graphics card configuration, which requires a significant amount of power. A modular power supply allows the technician to connect only the cables that are necessary for the current configuration, reducing cable clutter and improving airflow inside the case. This makes it easier to install and maintain the power supply.
A technician needs to install a cost-effective storage device into a rackmount server that will be used as a VM host. This storage will be used for all VMs that run from the server.
Which of the following should be used?
- A . Optical disk drive
- B . eMMC storage device
- C . 15,000rpm drive
- D . RAID 10 array
D
Explanation:
RAID 10 array is often used for server virtualization as it provides both redundancy and performance benefits. It uses a combination of mirroring and striping to provide both fault tolerance and improved I/O performance. An optical disk drive or eMMC storage device would not provide enough storage or performance for a VM host server, while a 15,000rpm drive may provide good performance but would not provide redundancy for fault tolerance. Therefore, a RAID 10 array is the best option for cost-effective storage that will be used for all VMs that run from the server.
A home user has purchased a subscription for a service that blocks malicious sites by preventing them from resolving correctly.
Which of the following settings MOST likely needs to be changed on the user’s router to enable this functionally?
- A . DNS server
- B . Port forwarding
- C . Perimeter network
- D . Universal PnP
- E . DHCP server
A
Explanation:
The Domain Name System (DNS) is responsible for translating domain names into IP addresses. By blocking malicious sites from resolving correctly, the DNS server is able to prevent the user from accessing those sites. Therefore, the DNS server setting on the user’s router needs to be changed to enable this functionality123.
Which of the following describes metered utilization of cloud resources?
- A . Resources provisioned instantly
- B . Payments made only for resources that are used
- C . Resources pooled to increase computing power
- D . Implementation of rapid elasticity
B
Explanation:
Metered utilization of cloud resources refers to payments made only for resources that are used. Cloud providers offer a pay-as-you-go model where customers are charged based on their usage of resources. Customers can easily scale up or down their usage of resources as per their needs and only pay for what they use. References: CompTIA A+ Certification All-in-One Exam Guide, Tenth Edition by Mike Meyers (Page 642)
Which of the following technologies can allow multiple networks to traverse a switch?
- A . VLAN
- B . VRRP
- C . VPN
- D . DHCP
A
Explanation:
The technology that allows multiple networks to traverse a switch is VLAN (Virtual Local Area Network) which is a logical grouping of devices on the same network regardless of their physical location12.
Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN) technology can allow multiple networks to traverse a switch. A VLAN is a logical network created within a physical network that can separate traffic and allow multiple networks to coexist on the same physical network infrastructure. VRRP (Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol), VPN (Virtual Private Network), and DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) do not allow multiple networks to traverse a switch. References: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 1 – Objective 3.2
A user is researching hard drives to upgrade a PC and has decided to purchase a NVMe drive.
Which of the following Should the user confirm are available on the PC before making the purchase? (Select TWO).
- A . SATA
- B . M.2
- C . PCIe
- D . SAS
- E . SCSI
- F . DRAM
B,C
Explanation:
NVMe (Non-Volatile Memory Express) drives are high-speed solid-state drives that utilize the PCIe (Peripheral Component Interconnect Express) interface to connect to the motherboard. Before purchasing an NVMe drive, the user should confirm that the PC has an available M.2 slot for the drive and that the PC has a PCIe interface for the M.2 slot. SATA (Serial ATA) is an older interface for hard drives and is not compatible with NVMe drives. SAS (Serial Attached SCSI) is a newer interface for hard drives and is typically used for enterprise-level storage systems. SCSI (Small Computer System Interface) is a parallel interface for hard drives that is primarily used in high-end workstations and servers. DRAM (Dynamic Random Access Memory) is a type of memory commonly used in computers, but it is not relevant to the storage of data on a hard drive.
Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Guide, page 267.
CORRECT TEXT
A technician has set up a new conference room with a TV and a video soundbar. The technician wants to test the system with a conference call. During the test, the TV speaker produces sound, but the soundbar does not.
Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the issue?
A The volume on the TV needs to be turned up.
B. The conference call needs to be unmuted for audio.
C. An incorrect HDMI cable is being used.
D. The TV’s HDMI-ARC port is not being used.
Explanation:
HDMI-ARC (Audio Return Channel) is an HDMI connection that allows audio to be sent from the TV to an external sound system, such as a soundbar. If the TV’s HDMI-ARC port is not being used, then the soundbar will not receive any audio from the TV and thus will not produce any sound. To resolve the issue, the technician should ensure that the TV’s HDMI-ARC port is being used to connect the TV to the soundbar.
A help desk technician thinks a desktop PC has failed due to a defective power supply.
Which of the following steps should the technician take NEXT?
- A . Inquire about environmental or infrastructure changes.
- B . Conduct external or internal research based on symptoms.
- C . Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solution.
- D . Document the findings, actions, and outcomes.
C
Explanation:
Once the technician has determined that the power supply is likely to be defective, they should establish a plan of action to resolve the problem. This may include replacing the power supply or further testing to confirm that it is indeed defective. After establishing a plan of action, the technician should implement the solution and verify that it has resolved the issue.
A user calls the help desk lot assistance configuring an Android phone with a new NFC-enabled speaker that will be used for an upcoming conference call. The user was unable to direct the phone’s audio to the NFC speaker.
Which of the following sequences should the help desk technician walk the customer through to accomplish this task?
- A . Enable NFC on the speaker. Ensure the speaker is less than 33ft (10m) from the Android phone. On the phone’s Bluetooth settings menu for Connected Devices, select Pair New Device. Tap to accept the connection to the speaker when the prompt is displayed on the phone’s screen.
- B . Enable NFC and Bluetooth on the Android phone. From the Android phone’s Bluetooth settings menu for Connected Devices, select the Previously Connected Devices option. Select a listed device that most closely matches the speaker. Tap lo accept the connection lo the speaker when the prompt is displayed on the phone’s screen.
- C . Enable NFC and Bluetooth on the Android phone. Tap and hold the Android phone to the spot on the speaker where the NFC logo is displayed. Accept the connection to the speaker when the prompt is displayed on the phone’s screen.
- D . Enable Wi-Fi on the speaker. Enable Wi-Fi on the Android phone. Tap and hold the Android phone to the spot on the speaker where the NFC logo is displayed. Accept the connection to the speaker when the prompt is displayed on the phone’s screen.
A remote user reports connectivity issues with the local internet provider. Even after a technician reboots the modem supplied by the ISP. the issue persists.
Which of the following would BEST establish the connection in minimal time?
- A . Radio frequency ISP
- B . Neighbor’s Wi-Fi
- C . Mobile hotspot
- D . Fiber optic
C
Explanation:
Using a mobile hotspot is the best way to establish an internet connection in minimal time for a remote user who is experiencing connectivity issues with the local internet provider. A mobile hotspot can be set up quickly and provides a reliable connection using cellular data. References: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Objectives 1001, 3.4
A technician goes to a classroom to troubleshoot a projector that occasionally powers off. The technician recreates the issue and notices the projector will not power back on until approximately 15 minutes have passed. After 15 minutes of being powered on. the projector shuts off again.
Which of the following should the technician perform NEXT to resolve the issue?
- A . Clean the filter.
- B . Adjust the standby timeout.
- C . Check the power cable connection.
- D . Replace the bulb.
A
Explanation:
Based on the given information, it seems that the projector is experiencing issues with overheating or a faulty power supply. The fact that it shuts off and cannot be turned back on until it has cooled down for 15 minutes suggests that the projector is
overheating or there is a problem with the power supply. Therefore, the next logical step would be to clean the filter to ensure proper ventilation and airflow, as a dirty filter can cause overheating.
CORRECT TEXT
A user’s track pad has stopped working.
Which of the following should the user do to resolve the track pad’s functionality?
A Reinstall the mouse drivers
B. Use the Function key.
C. Calibrate the digitizer
D. Configure the mouse settings.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Use the Function key.
The explanation is that some laptops have a Function key (Fn) that can be used to toggle the track pad on or off. This can be useful if the user wants to use an external mouse instead of the track pad, or if the track pad is accidentally activated by palm movements. The user should look for a Fn key on their keyboard and a track pad icon on one of the other keys, such as F5 or F9, and press them together to enable or disable the track pad.
A technician recently received a written warning for causing a system-wide outage. The outage was a result of an unscheduled patch being manually pushed during production hours.
Which of the following could have MOST likely prevented the technician from receiving the warning?
- A . Following corporate procedures
- B . Testing before deployment
- C . Documenting the findings
- D . Establishing a plan of action
A
Explanation:
Following corporate procedures would have been the most likely factor that could have prevented the technician from receiving the written warning. Following established procedures, such as change management, helps ensure that changes made to the production environment are thoroughly tested, approved, and implemented in a controlled and safe manner, reducing the risk of system-wide outages and other unintended consequences.
An online retailer would like to add capacity to support increased sales. Additional servers have been installed.
Which of the following should be used to ensure each new server is being properly utilized?
- A . Virtualization
- B . Clustering
- C . Load balancer
- D . Round-robin DNS
C
Explanation:
https://www.resonatenetworks.com/2020/04/29/clustering-vs-load-balancing-whats-the-difference/
A load balancer distributes network traffic evenly across multiple servers, ensuring each server is being properly utilized. This helps to prevent overloading of any individual server, which can cause downtime or slow response times for users. In this scenario, adding a load balancer would be the best way to ensure the new servers are being properly utilized. References: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 1 – Page 181
Which of the following would MOST likely be used to obtain electronic images of a large number of printed documents?
- A . NFC device
- B . ADF/flatbed scanner
- C . Camera/webcam
- D . QR scanner
B
Explanation:
ADF/flatbed scanner would most likely be used to obtain electronic images of a large number of printed documents. References: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Guide,
Exam 220-1001, Page 351
A user reports issues with a smartphone after dropping it. The icons on the screen all look normal, but when the user touches the email icon, for example, nothing happens.
Which of the following is MOST likely the cause?
- A . Digitizer issues
- B . Overheating
- C . Broken screen
- D . Malware
A
Explanation:
Dropping a smartphone can damage the digitizer, which is the component responsible for sensing touch input. This can cause issues with tapping and swiping on the screen, as well as other touchscreen-related issues. References: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Core 1 Exam Objectives – 3.3 Given a scenario, troubleshoot mobile device issues
A technician is replacing the RAM on an entry-level server with hot-swappabte components.
Which of the following should the technician do NEXT?
- A . Replace the RAM while the server is at a cool temperature
- B . Replace the RAM while the server is running
- C . Power down the server completely and then replace the RAM
- D . Verify that the OS supports hot swapping the RAM
D
Explanation:
Verify that the OS supports hot swapping the RAM. Before replacing the RAM on an entry-level server with hot-swappable components, the technician should verify that the operating system supports hot swapping of RAM.
An administrator chose a shared-tenant model for a cloud deployment.
Which of the following is the MOST likely reason the administrator chose this model?
- A . Cost savings
- B . Highly available
- C . Dedicated hardware
- D . Increased security
A
Explanation:
The shared-tenant model for a cloud deployment, also known as a multi-tenant model, allows multiple customers to use the same resources and infrastructure of the cloud service provider, with each customer’s data and applications isolated from one another. This model is often chosen for cost savings, as resources are shared and users only pay for what they use. Therefore, the MOST likely reason that an administrator chose this model is A. Cost savings.
A customer reports that a computer is never able to reach more than a 100Mbps transfer data rate, even when using a Gigabit LAN card. While troubleshooting, the technician notices the network cable needs to be replaced.
Which of the following cable categories is limiting the transfer speed?
- A . Cat 5
- B . Cat 5e
- C . Cat 6
- D . Cat 6a
A
Explanation:
Cat 5 cable is limited to a maximum data transfer rate of 100Mbps, while Cat 5e, Cat 6, and Cat 6a cables support Gigabit Ethernet (1000Mbps) and higher speeds. Even though the LAN card is capable of Gigabit speeds, it cannot achieve that speed when using a Cat 5 cable. Upgrading to a Cat 5e or higher cable would allow the computer to achieve Gigabit speeds. References: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 1 – Page 196
A technician installs a new printer for a workstation and tries to print a test page, but the
page does not print. The technician looks at the print queue and notices that the printer is called ‘Generic Printer." Which of the following BEST describes what the technician should do to fix this issue?
- A . Connect the printer with a USB cable rather than over the network.
- B . Install the appropriate printer drivers for the OS.
- C . Install the correct toner in the printer.
- D . Set the printer trays to allow duplex printing
B
Explanation:
The technician should install the appropriate printer drivers for the OS to enable the computer to communicate with the printer. The generic printer name suggests that the drivers are missing or not installed correctly.
A technician is configuring a new CAD workstation that has four large hard drives. The workstation will be used to edit large, critical files, so the storage configuration should be both fast and redundant.
Which of the following RAID levels BEST meets these requirements?
- A . 0
- B . 1
- C . 5
- D . 10
D
Explanation:
RAID 10 combines the benefits of RAID 0 and RAID 1. It uses a striped configuration across multiple disks (similar to RAID 0) to provide high-speed read and write access. Additionally, it also mirrors the striped array onto a second set of drives (similar to RAID 1), providing redundancy in case of a drive failure.
A colleague has a laptop that has been working as expected for several years wall outlet.
The MOST likely component that needs to be replaced is the:
- A . power adapter.
- B . battery.
- C . system fan.
- D . hard drive.
B
Explanation:
Based on the information provided in the question, the MOST likely component that needs to be replaced is A. power adapter. If a laptop has been working as expected for several years but suddenly stops working when it is plugged into a wall outlet, it is possible that the power adapter has failed and is no longer able to provide power to the laptop. In this case, replacing the power adapter would likely resolve the issue.
The other components listed in the options (battery, system fan, and hard drive) could also potentially fail and cause issues with a laptop’s performance. However, based on the specific scenario described in the question (the laptop suddenly stops working when plugged into a wall outlet), it seems most likely that the issue is related to the power adapter.
If the laptop has been working as expected for several years and suddenly stops working, the power adapter is the most likely component that needs to be replaced. Over time, the power adapter can become worn or damaged, resulting in a loss of power to the laptop. References: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Guide, Ninth Edition, Chapter 3
A startup company is outgrowing its current office space and is requiring employees to work remotely. The company must comply with government-enforced requirements to safeguard all aspects of data, so the IT department plans to maintain complete control over users’ operating systems.
Which of the following should the IT department implement?
- A . VDI
- B . laaS
- C . VPN
- D . SaaS
A
Explanation:
The IT department should implement VDI. Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI) is a technology that allows users to access a desktop operating system from a remote location. VDI provides complete control over users’ operating systems, which is important for safeguarding data. VDI also provides a secure way to access data from remote locations, which is important for compliance with government-enforced requirements1.
A user reboots a machine. On rebooting, the user hears one beep, and then an error message is displayed.
Which of the following are MOST likely causing this issue? (Select TWO).
- A . RAM module
- B . Graphics card
- C . CPU
- D . Boot order
- E . USB flash drive
- F . Power supply
A,D
Explanation:
When a user hears one beep on rebooting a machine, and then an error message is displayed, it could indicate that there is a problem with the RAM module or the boot order. The beep sound indicates that the POST process was successful, and the error message indicates that the boot process was unsuccessful. The boot order determines the sequence in which the computer looks for bootable devices. References: CompTIA A+ Certification All-in-One Exam Guide, Tenth Edition by Mike Meyers (Page 693)
A user’s mobile phone gets really hot to the touch and does not retain a charge. The user also reports that the phone is very slow, especially while charging.
Which of the following is MOST likely causing these symptoms?
- A . Broken charging port
- B . Digitizer failure
- C . CPU overheating
- D . Defective battery
D
Explanation:
A defective battery is the most likely cause of a mobile phone that gets really hot to the touch, does not retain a charge, and is slow while charging. A defective battery can cause the phone to overheat and may also cause performance issues. References: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Objectives 1001, 2.14
A Microsoft Windows user is preparing to work in another country and needs to comply with corporate policy for data protection when copying files to portable media.
Which of the following solutions would MOST likely satisfy this requirement?
- A . A USB 3.1 flash drive with BitLocker to Go installed
- B . An SD memory card with NTFS
- C . An xD memory card with ext3
- D . A portable hard drive with FAT32
A
Explanation:
Using a USB 3.1 flash drive with BitLocker to Go installed is the best option for complying with corporate policy for data protection when copying files to portable media. References: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Guide, Ninth Edition, Chapter 12
A laptop has been returned for a screen repair. The owner insists the screen is broken, but occasionally a faded image is able to be seen in very bright settings on the desktop.
Which of the following steps should the repair technician take FIRST?
- A . Replace the graphics card.
- B . Replace the screen, as the customer insists.
- C . Recommend the usage of an external display instead.
- D . Ensure the backlight is functioning as expected.
D
Explanation:
If a laptop has been returned for a screen repair and the owner insists the screen is broken, but occasionally a faded image is able to be seen in very bright settings on the desktop, the first step the repair technician should take is to ensure the backlight is functioning as expected. If the backlight is faulty, the screen may appear to be broken, but it may only be dim or too dark to be visible
Several users who share a multifunction printer in an office have reported unintended, thin, vertical lines that cover the entire height of every page printed from the printer.
Which of the following steps should a technician complete in order to MOST likely resolve this issue?
- A . Replace the printer paper with a new ream.
- B . Clear the print spooler on each computer.
- C . Reinstall the printer driver on each computer
- D . Perform the drum-cleaning procedure.
D
Explanation:
Thin, vertical lines on every printed page are usually caused by a dirty drum or toner cartridge. Performing the drum-cleaning procedure will likely resolve the issue. References: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Guide, Ninth Edition, Chapter 18
To control costs a company provides a limited number or users with company phones One of these users opens a support ticket because the phone no longer allows internet Drowsing over a cellular connection. The user acknowledges that the phone worked before the user’s child streamed several movies using the device.
Which of the following describes why the phone cannot browse the Internet?
- A . The child accidentally connected to a neighbor’s WLAN
- B . The company’s group policy disabled the device
- C . The device has a data cap and has reached that limit
- D . The device’s plan has been unpaid
C
Explanation:
It is common for companies to place a data cap on the devices they provide to their employees, to control costs. If a user has exceeded the data cap, the phone may no longer allow internet browsing over a cellular connection. This is usually because the cellular data usage has exceeded the allotted amount for the particular plan the device is on, and the service provider has temporarily suspended the data connection.
It is unlikely that the child accidentally connected to a neighbor’s WLAN because this would not affect the cellular data connection. Similarly, it is unlikely that the company’s group policy has disabled the device, as this would likely affect all devices under the same policy. If the device’s plan has been unpaid, the service provider would likely temporarily suspend all services, not just the cellular data connection.
Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Guide, page 329.
A company wants to use client-side visualization for application testing.
Which of the following configurations would BEST support this goal?
A)
B)
C)
D)
- A . Option A
- B . Option B
- C . Option C
- D . Option D
Which of the following is the MAXIMUM power PoE+ provides?
- A . 15.4W
- B . 30W
- C . 60W
- D . 95W
B
Explanation:
The earliest PoE switches from a few years ago generated 15 Watts per port (IEEE 802.3af). Today, most use the PoE+ standard (IEEE 802.3at), which generates up to 30 Watts per port. That’s plenty for most devices that people want to connect
Which of the following components enables the input on a mobile device’s touch screen?
- A . OLED
- B . Digitizer
- C . Inverter
- D . CMOS sensor
B
Explanation:
The digitizer is the component that enables input on a mobile device’s touch screen. It is a transparent layer that sits over the screen and detects the location of touch inputs. OLED (Organic Light Emitting Diode) is a type of display technology. Inverter is a component used in older LCD displays to provide power to the backlight. CMOS (Complementary Metal-Oxide-Semiconductor) sensor is a type of image sensor used in digital cameras and smartphones to capture images. References: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 1 – Page 177
An insurance company wants to implement cloud computing and would like a cloud solution in which the infrastructure is shared with businesses in the same industry.
Which of the following cloud models BEST addresses the company’s need?
- A . Community
- B . Private
- C . Public
- D . Hybrid
A
Explanation:
The cloud model that BEST addresses the company’s need is the Community cloud model. A community cloud is a cloud infrastructure in which multiple organizations share resources and services based on common operational and regulatory requirements. The concept of a community cloud is akin to a community garden, where different individuals grow produce on a single piece of shared land1.
Which of the following describes the main difference between T568A and T568B cabling standards?
- A . The T568B data transfer rate is higher than T568A.
- B . The green and the orange cables are interchanged.
- C . T568A is used in blue cables, and T568B is used in green cables.
- D . The standards use different cable connectors.
B
Explanation:
he main difference between T568A and T568B cabling standards is that the green and orange cables are interchanged12. T568A is designed for backward compatibility with older telephone wires, while T568B is designed for better signal isolation and noise protection for newer networking systems and products3. T568A is used in blue cables, and T568B is used in green cables1. The standards use the same cable connectors3.
A technician is troubleshooting a computer that is not completing POST and gets stuck at the manufacturer logo screen. All internal, removable parts have been disconnected and only the minimum parts necessary to POST were reconnected. However, the symptoms remain the same.
Which of the following should the technician try NEXT?
- A . Test the RAM in different slots, one at a time.
- B . Remove and test the power supply.
- C . Replace the motherboard.
- D . Change the CMOS battery.
A
Explanation:
Every computer has a CMOS battery and when you remove that battery, your computer will work almost the same as before. The only difference is you won’t be able to save any settings in the BIOS, which includes the date and time. If your PC is not booting after removing CMOS, you need to make sure that you have your CPU and RAM connected because it’s not possible for your system to boot without those.. Your motherboard and computer will be able to boot just fine even without a CMOS battery present. The only issue is all your BIOS settings will be reset and the time and date will be inaccurate. You will also be unable to save BIOS settings.
Which of the following utilizes TCP ports 20/21 and transfers data in cleartext?
- A . SNMP
- B . SSH
- C . FTP
- D . Telnet
C
Explanation:
FTP (File Transfer Protocol) uses TCP ports 20/21 and transfers data in cleartext, which means the data is not encrypted and can be read by anyone who intercepts it. This makes FTP insecure for transferring sensitive information. SSH (Secure Shell), on the other hand, uses port 22 and encrypts data, making it more secure. SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) uses ports 161/162 and is used to monitor network devices. Telnet uses port 23 and transfers data in cleartext, making it insecure.
References: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 1 – Page 199
Upon booting a workstation, a technician hears a distinct clicking sound after power is applied to the motherboard.
Which of the following would MOST likely be the cause?
- A . RAID
- B . SSD
- C . S.M.A.R.T
- D . HDD
D
Explanation:
The clicking sound is the sound of a damaged disk in the HDD A clicking sound from a hard disk drive typically indicates a mechanical failure, such as the read/write head hitting a physical obstruction or a problem with the disk motor. This can cause the drive to fail to initialize or not be recognized by the system during booting.
A small office has a wireless network with several access points for roaming laptop use. Users occasionally report that the wireless connection drops or becomes very slow. Users have confirmed that this issue only happens when connected to the office wireless network.
Which of the following would MOST likely be the cause?
- A . Hidden SSID
- B . Device interference
- C . Ethernet port flapping
- D . High ISP latency
B
Explanation:
Device interference is the most likely cause of the wireless connection dropping or becoming slow. Interference can come from other wireless devices, microwave ovens, or physical barriers like walls and metal objects. Hidden SSID, Ethernet port flapping, and high ISP latency are not likely to cause this issue.
Wireless interference from other devices can cause a drop in wireless connection speed and stability. In a small office environment, there may be several wireless devices competing for the same bandwidth, causing the issues described. References: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Core 1 Exam Objectives – 3.7 Given a scenario, troubleshoot wired and wireless networks with appropriate tools
A new employee has been issued a company laptop. The employee requests an accessory with a single power source that has wired network connectivity and supports a keyboard, mouse, speakers, and dual monitors.
Which of the following accessories should the systems administrator deploy to BEST meet the new user’s needs?
- A . PoE switch
- B . USB-C hub with power delivery
- C . Docking station with DisplayPort
- D . KVM switch with audio
C
Explanation:
A docking station is a hardware accessory that allows laptops to connect to multiple peripherals and devices with a single connection. A docking station with DisplayPort would provide the necessary connectivity for the dual monitors, and it can also support the required peripherals such as the keyboard, mouse, and speakers. In addition, it will provide a wired network connectivity for faster and more reliable network access.