In which phase of the project should the Procurement Strategy be written?
- A . Concept
- B . Definition
- C . Deployment
- D . Transition
In developing a network the first task after listing the activities is to…
- A . Define activity durations
- B . Determine float
- C . Determine the interdependencies of activities
- D . Harmonise the activity to a calendar
Which of these is a correct definition of an Estimate?
- A . The use of a range of tools and techniques to produce forecasts of the probable time or cost of completing work
- B . An educated guess that improves over time
- C . A forecast of the probable time or cost of completing work
- D . An estimate is an approximation of project time and cost targets that forms the basis of the contract
Risk management should be initiated…
- A . when the Project Management Plan is initiated.
- B . at the time the Work Breakdown Structure is developed.
- C . at the start of the project.
- D . once the project concept is understood.
When are benefits usually realised when using an iterative life cycle?
- A . During the project
- B . Post project
- C . At project closure
- D . Both during and after the project
When is an analysis of a project’s environment most likely to be undertaken?
- A . In the Definition Phase
- B . In the Transition Phase
- C . In the Concept Phase
- D . In the Deployment Phase
Which one of the following statements BEST defines procurement?
- A . A technique to establish the best approach for obtaining the resources for the project
- B . A group of interrelated resources and activities that transform inputs into outputs
- C . The description of the purpose, form and components to support delivery of a product
- D . The process by which products and services required for the project are acquired
Which one of the following statements BEST defines procurement?
- A . A technique to establish the best approach for obtaining the resources for the project
- B . A group of interrelated resources and activities that transform inputs into outputs
- C . The description of the purpose, form and components to support delivery of a product
- D . The process by which products and services required for the project are acquired
Which one of the following statements BEST defines procurement?
- A . A technique to establish the best approach for obtaining the resources for the project
- B . A group of interrelated resources and activities that transform inputs into outputs
- C . The description of the purpose, form and components to support delivery of a product
- D . The process by which products and services required for the project are acquired
Which one of the following statements BEST defines procurement?
- A . A technique to establish the best approach for obtaining the resources for the project
- B . A group of interrelated resources and activities that transform inputs into outputs
- C . The description of the purpose, form and components to support delivery of a product
- D . The process by which products and services required for the project are acquired
Which one of the following statements BEST defines procurement?
- A . A technique to establish the best approach for obtaining the resources for the project
- B . A group of interrelated resources and activities that transform inputs into outputs
- C . The description of the purpose, form and components to support delivery of a product
- D . The process by which products and services required for the project are acquired
Scheduling problems
- A . 1, 2 and 3
- B . 1, 2 and 4
- C . 1, 3 and 4
- D . 2, 3 and 4
Which of the following is included in a Procurement Strategy?
- A . Benefits
- B . Stakeholder list
- C . Contract pricing information
- D . Specification of works
A review undertaken to decide whether a project should proceed into its next phase is known as a…
- A . decision gate.
- B . feasibility study.
- C . milestone review.
- D . evaluation review.
Which of these is not part of the linear project life cycle?
- A . Concept
- B . Definition
- C . Operations
- D . Transition
Which of these is a key aspect of Programme Management?
- A . Business as usual reporting
- B . Strategic direction
- C . Benefits management
- D . Managing the project schedules
Which of these statements is FALSE?
- A . Stakeholders may be for the change or against
- B . Stakeholders may have little influence or lots
- C . Stakeholders may be internal or external to your organisation
- D . Stakeholders with high influence always have high interest in the project
Which project management process is NOT likely to be used when resolving an issue?
- A . Risk management
- B . Change control
- C . Scope management
- D . Team building
Which one of the following statements BEST defines the purpose of a Product Breakdown Structure (PBS)?
- A . To define the hierarchy of deliverables that are required to be produced on the project
- B . To define how the products are produced by identifying derivations and dependencies
- C . To establish the extent of work required prior to project commissioning and the handover
- D . To identify the health and safety strategies and procedures to be used on the project
Which of the following BEST describes a project issue?
- A . An uncertain event that may or may not occur
- B . An opportunity that occurs through change control
- C . A problem that the project manager has to deal with on a day-to-day basis
- D . A problem that needs to be escalated to the next level of management for resolution
The justification for the investment to be made in a project is documented in the…
- A . Cost breakdown structure
- B . Procurement strategy
- C . Business case
- D . Project management plan
Which of the following BEST describes a project issue?
- A . An event that may or may not occur
- B . An opportunity that occurs through change control
- C . A problem that the project manager has to deal with on a day-to-day basis
- D . A problem that must be escalated to the appropriate level of management for resolution
Programme Management can BEST be described as…
- A . the management of multiple projects by one project manager.
- B . the management of very large, complex projects.
- C . the means of linking business strategy to projects within an organisation.
- D . a fashionable term which means the same as Project Management.
Which is one of the three key project constraints?
- A . Time
- B . Political
- C . Environmental
- D . Technical
Which of the following is not a stage in an issue resolution process?
- A . Share the issue with stakeholders.
- B . Track the issue to closure.
- C . Escalate to the sponsor.
- D . Apply change control.
Which of the following are challenges for a project manager developing and leading a project team?
1) Issues and incompatibility amongst team members
2) Getting the right skills and attributes amongst team members
3) Co-location of team members in the same geographic area
4) Lack of accountability of team members
- A . 1,2&3
- B . 1,2&4
- C . 1,3&4
- D . 2,3&4
Which of the following is an activity in a typical change control process?
- A . Recommendation.
- B . Justification.
- C . Planning.
- D . Continuous improvement
The purpose of quality assurance is to:
- A . provide confidence the project will satisfy the relevant quality standards.
- B . determine a set of procedures and standards for project management.
- C . inspect, measure and test deliverables and processes.
- D . define the scope and specifics of a project’s deliverables
A project manager might use a PESTLE analysis in order to:
- A . mitigate all possible risks to the project.
- B . identify and mitigate factors that may affect the project.
- C . control technological change during the project.
- D . consider team social roles in early stages of the project
Which of the following are phases in an iterative project life cycle? 1) Concept 2) Feasibility 3) Deployment 4) Development
- A . 3 and 4 only
- B . 1, 2 and 3
- C . 1 and 2 only
- D . 2, 3 and 4
Which of the following is the responsibility of a project manager?
- A . Ensuring a project is aligned to the organisation’s strategy.
- B . Focusing on project benefits and aligning priorities.
- C . Achieving the project’s success criteria.
- D . Improving process, tools and techniques used in a project
To develop and establish a proper communication plan within a project, the project manager needs to consider which type of analysis?
- A . Budget.
- B . Stakeholder.
- C . Resource.
- D . Schedule
Which of the following is a responsibility of the project sponsor?
- A . Creating a project cost breakdown structure.
- B . Authoring the project management plan.
- C . Creating a project work breakdown structure.
- D . Owning the project business case.
Portfolio management includes prioritising:
- A . projects and/or programmes that contribute directly to the organisation’s strategic objectives.
- B . projects with exceptionally high returns on investment.
- C . projects and programmes over business as usual.
- D . projects which maximise change over those which maximise investment
Which of the following actions would not help a team leader influence the performance of their team?
- A . Creating an exclusive environment.
- B . Providing clear roles and responsibilities.
- C . Promoting openness and honesty.
- D . Developing a trusting relationship.
One difference between a project and business as usual is:
- A . projects achieve specified benefits but business as usual has only vague benefits.
- B . projects drive change whereas business as usual continues existing activities.
- C . projects have tightly controlled budgets whereas business as usual does not.
- D . projects have unclear deadlines but business as usual has multiple milestones
The purpose of project progress reporting is to:
- A . ensure a simpler critical path.
- B . enable the tracking of project deliverables.
- C . ensure stakeholder acceptance of project deliverables.
- D . provide an increased total float.
Which of the following is the purpose of an estimating funnel?
- A . Keeping resource usage to a minimum to help reduce costs.
- B . Supporting the production of comparative estimates.
- C . Identifying where costs can be minimised when preparing a budget.
- D . Representing increasing levels of estimating accuracy achieved through the life cycle
One advantage of virtual communications is:
- A . that nonverbal signals can have an impact on discussions.
- B . it’s easy to detect signs of conflict within the project team.
- C . access to a wider resource pool for the project.
- D . that the project team will always be co-located.
Which technique could be used by a project manager when resources are limited?
- A . Resource aggregation.
- B . Resource estimation.
- C . Resource levelling.
- D . Resource expansion
The main aim of quality management is to:
- A . prepare a high-quality management plan.
- B . ensure that deliverables meet appropriate standards.
- C . validate the use of consistent standards.
- D . determine whether to accept change requests.
Which of the following is a purpose of issue management?
- A . To stop issues occurring within the project.
- B . To address and resolve the issues that occur.
- C . To address and resolve uncertainty.
- D . To reschedule activities to reduce costs
Product breakdown structures illustrate the required scope of work by a hierarchical structure itemising the:
- A . components of each product.
- B . budget of each product.
- C . benefits of each product.
- D . risks of each product.
The definition of benefits management includes which key activities?
- A . Planning, analysis and integration of project benefits.
- B . Justification, validation and acceptance of project benefits.
- C . Identification, tracking and realisation of project benefits.
- D . Realisation, acceptance and integration of project benefits
Which of the following statements about scheduling is false?
- A . Defines the sequence of activities.
- B . Considers work calendars and time contingency.
- C . Provides a baseline for safety considerations.
- D . Quantifies the required resources.
Which of the following defines the term ‘deployment baseline’?
- A . The starting point for creating a resource histogram.
- B . The basis for creating an organisational breakdown structure.
- C . The starting point for the monitoring of project risks.
- D . The basis for progress monitoring.
Which of the following is an activity in a typical configuration management process?
- A . Evaluation.
- B . Identification.
- C . Registration.
- D . Justification.
Stakeholder analysis supports effective stakeholder engagement by:
- A . identifying stakeholders with high levels of power and interest.
- B . ensuring stakeholder acceptance of project deliverables.
- C . justifying the preferred project option to stakeholders.
- D . providing information to all stakeholders.
Which of the following is a project?
- A . Introducing a new information technology system.
- B . Operating a national rail network.
- C . Organising ongoing catering in the armed forces.
- D . Managing day-to-day security for senior politicians
One purpose of a typical project business case is to:
- A . carry out earned value analysis.
- B . allocate resources to the project.
- C . analyse cost-benefit of the project.
- D . plan project work packages
One disadvantage of physical communication is:
- A . its significant environmental impact when compared to other forms of communication.
- B . that no audit trail is available for review at a later date by project team members.
- C . it is reliant on technology being available to all relevant members of the project.
- D . that your body language may not reflect what you’re saying when passing on information
One of the benefits of developing communication plans in projects is that this ensures:
- A . the power and influence of stakeholders is understood.
- B . that all communication is delivered face to face.
- C . your message is understood.
- D . clear reporting lines for the project.
A project life cycle which combines approaches from the linear and iterative life cycles is known as _________ project life cycle.
- A . a hybrid.
- B . an extended.
- C . a reduced.
- D . a combined.
The purpose of project management is to:
- A . organise management plans.
- B . keep all stakeholders happy.
- C . control change initiatives.
- D . effect beneficial change.
Which of the following statements refers to how scope is managed in a linear project but not an iterative project?
- A . Teams can act on new knowledge to change the scope.
- B . Teams can re-prioritise requirements within the scope.
- C . The scope of work is the starting point for the implementation of change control.
- D . Scope definition is assumed to be fixed for the whole project
One difference between an issue and a risk is an issue:
- A . must be recorded but a risk does not.
- B . is an uncertain event but a risk is not.
- C . is a certain event but a risk is not.
- D . always affects scope but a risk does not
Communication includes:
1) exchanging information
2) managing stakeholders
3) confirming there is a shared understanding
4) building relationships within your team
- A . 2 and 3 only
- B . 1 and 4 only
- C . 1 and 3 only
- D . 2 and 4 only
A project manager requires a team member to focus on the team’s objectives and draw out other team members.
Which of the Belbin’s team roles is most appropriate?
- A . Shaper.
- B . Monitor evaluator.
- C . Specialist.
- D . Co-ordinator
An extended project life cycle can be defined as:
- A . an approach that adds operational and termination phases to a linear life cycle.
- B . an approach that adds adoption and benefits realisation phases to a linear life cycle.
- C . a framework for conducting a cost-benefit analysis once a project has closed.
- D . a framework for ensuring the re-deployment of assets post project.
One aspect of quality planning is to:
- A . plan the audit of a project to provide assurance to the project board.
- B . provide confidence that a project will achieve its objectives in the required time frame.
- C . specify the acceptance criteria used to validate the outputs are fit for purpose.
- D . confirm routes for reporting to ensure effective communication
Which of the following is not a key element of project scope management?
- A . Define outputs.
- B . Identify outputs.
- C . Share outputs.
- D . Control outputs
Which of the following is a difference between deployment baselines in linear life cycles and iterative life cycles?
- A . Linear project life cycles set the deployment baseline for the whole project.
- B . In an iterative project life cycle the scope and quality are fixed in the deployment baseline.
- C . Only deployment baselines in iterative life cycles have an integrated baseline review.
- D . Only deployment baselines in linear life cycles have an integrated baseline review
Which of the following defines the term ‘risk’?
- A . The potential of a situation or event to impact on the achievement of specific objectives.
- B . A problem that is now or is about to breach delegated tolerances for work on a project or programme.
- C . Scope creep within an uncontrolled project.
- D . The use of estimation to determine costs, resources and activities.
Suppliers are stakeholders of a project management plan because they:
- A . contribute to the project’s procurement strategy.
- B . help satisfy the project’s resource requirements.
- C . provide acceptance certificates based on quality of resources supplied.
- D . determine the quality requirements of goods supplied.
Which of the following defines the term ‘issue’?
- A . A problem which is now or is about to breach delegated tolerances for work on a project or programme.
- B . A problem which occurs on a day-to-day basis which could have an immediate impact on a project.
- C . A problem which has the potential to impact on the achievement of specific project objectives.
- D . A problem which can only be resolved by a project manager and within the project team
Which of the following define leadership?
1) Ability to establish vision and direction
2) Developing team skills that enhance project performance
3) Empowering and inspiring people to achieve success
4) Ability to influence and align others towards a common purpose
- A . 1,2&4
- B . 1,2&3
- C . 2,3&4
- D . 1,3&4
Which of the following are typical estimating methods? 1) Analytical 2) Budgeting 3) Analogous 4) Parametric
- A . 1, 2 and 4
- B . 1, 2 and 3
- C . 1, 3 and 4
- D . 2, 3 and 4
Procurement strategy can be defined as the high-level approach for securing:
- A . stakeholder engagement.
- B . funding for the project.
- C . buy in from the project sponsor.
- D . goods and services required for the project.
Which of the following is not an output of a critical path analysis?
- A . Total and free float.
- B . Earliest start time and latest finish time of activities.
- C . Project completion time.
- D . Cost-benefit analysis.
A project manager would use a cost breakdown structure to produce:
- A . the cost of a do-nothing option.
- B . an analytical estimate.
- C . high-level project costs.
- D . a comparative estimate.
Which of the following is the correct sequence for the stages of a linear project life cycle?
- A . Deployment, Concept, Definition, Transition.
- B . Concept, Transition, Definition, Deployment.
- C . Concept, Definition, Deployment, Transition.
- D . Transition, Definition, Deployment, Concept
At which stage, in the Tuckman team development model, are team members clear and comfortable with their roles and responsibilities, and the project manager starts to see signs of the team working together?
- A . Storming.
- B . Forming.
- C . Norming.
- D . Performing
Which of the following is a definition of project management?
- A . A complex process of supervising and managing the delivery of any time-bound deliverable.
- B . Any change in management techniques in a company that achieves strategic objectives.
- C . The application of processes, methods, knowledge, skills and experience to achieve specific objectives for change.
- D . The coordination of several projects alongside business as usual.
Which of the following defines quality?
- A . The fitness for purpose of outputs and processes.
- B . The value for money of a product.
- C . The satisfaction of the stakeholders.
- D . The thoroughness of the management plan.
Quality control verifies that:
- A . the project follows appropriate processes.
- B . project outputs are delivered on time.
- C . the project follows appropriate governance.
- D . project outputs meet acceptance criteria.
The purpose of a decision gate is to decide whether:
- A . the response to a risk is valid.
- B . a project is viable in line with the business case.
- C . the project delivered against the success criteria.
- D . lessons were effectively learned during the project.
Establishing success criteria is important at the start of the project, as they:
- A . indicate how the stakeholder needs will be met.
- B . ensure adequate resource allocation.
- C . indicate what is important in supplier selection.
- D . ensure comprehensive risk analysis.
One purpose of risk management is to:
- A . adapt the plan to resolve problems.
- B . minimise threats and maximise opportunities.
- C . continually improve the project teams’ efficiency.
- D . manage variations in a controlled way
Which of the following is an activity in a typical risk management process?
- A . Verification.
- B . Request.
- C . Closure.
- D . Justification
When an item goes through change control, which of the following must happen as part of a robust configuration management process?
- A . Costs associated with the change are evaluated and documented.
- B . Risks associated with the change are monitored to avoid delays to the project.
- C . The item is approved or declined in line with stakeholder expectations.
- D . Documents are updated to include any approved changes.
The purpose of a risk register is to provide a:
- A . structured process for risk identification.
- B . record of the ownership of risk and issue management actions.
- C . means of assessing the likelihood and impact of all of the risks.
- D . record of risks, their impact and the actions taken to manage them.
Which of the following is a part of change control?
- A . Requests for change are realised.
- B . Requests for change are mitigated.
- C . Requests for change are evaluated.
- D . Requests for change are resolved.
The primary purpose of a milestone in a project is to show:
- A . significant events.
- B . resource constraints.
- C . task dependencies.
- D . critical path highlights.
Which of the following can be adjusted during a time box? 1) Scope 2) Resource 3) Time 4) Quality
- A . 1 and 2 only
- B . 1 and 4 only
- C . 3 and 4 only
- D . 2 and 4 only
A communication management plan identifies the relevant information that should be communicated to:
- A . the project team.
- B . the project stakeholders.
- C . the project board.
- D . the project sponsor
Which one of the following statements is true?
- A . Independent reviews and quality audits form part of quality assurance to ensure the project manager delivers on time and to budget.
- B . Quality assurance provides confidence to stakeholders that requirements for quality will be exceeded.
- C . Quality control verifies that the project deliverables conform to specification, are fit for purpose and meet stakeholder expectations.
- D . Quality planning enables the project manager to manage the trade-off between customer expectations and budget.
Project risk management is best described as:
- A . managing responses to threats.
- B . identifying and acknowledging threats and opportunities.
- C . planning responses to threats.
- D . minimising threats and maximising opportunities.
Which one of the following best describes a project issue?
- A . A major problem that requires formal escalation.
- B . A problem that the project manager has to deal with on a day-to-day basis.
- C . An uncertain event that may or may not occur.
- D . An opportunity that occurs through change control.
Scheduling can best be defined as the process used to determine:
- A . overall project duration.
- B . project cost estimating.
- C . the project management plan.
- D . sub-contractor’s responsibilities
Which one of the following statements is true?
- A . An increase in project scope is likely to increase project cost.
- B . A decrease in the project time is likely to increase project quality.
- C . An increase in the project quality requirements is likely to decrease project cost.
- D . A decrease in the project cost is likely to decrease project time.
Which one of the following statements best defines the purpose of a Product Breakdown Structure (PBS)?
- A . To define the hierarchy of deliverables that are required to be produced on the project.
- B . To define how the products are produced by identifying derivations and dependencies.
- C . To establish the extent of work required prior to project commissioning and the handover.
- D . To identify the health and safety strategies and procedures to be used on the project.
Which one of the following is least likely to be a success criteria?
- A . A target for the project to receive zero change requests.
- B . The date by which the project is to be completed.
- C . Delivery of products that meet required specifications.
- D . The awarding of bonuses to senior management.
Which one of the following is a valid project Key Performance Indicator (KPI)?
- A . Staff appraisals.
- B . Management buy in.
- C . Milestone achievement.
- D . Master schedule.
Which one of the following statements is true?
- A . The business case is owned by the sponsor and is created during the concept phase of the project life cycle.
- B . The business case is owned by the project manager and is created during the concept phase of the project life cycle.
- C . The business case is owned by the sponsor and is created during definition phase of the project life cycle.
- D . The business case is owned by the project manager and is created during the definition phase of the project life cycle.
Who owns the Project Management Plan (PMP)?
- A . The project team.
- B . The chief executive.
- C . The project manager.
- D . The project support office
Which one of the following best describes users?
- A . Providers of both strategic and tactical direction to the project.
- B . Those intended to receive benefits or operate outputs.
- C . Facilitators of an appropriate issue resolution procedure.
- D . Those providing full-time commitment to the project.
Which statement best describes a responsibility of the project manager:
- A . to be the sole source of expertise for estimating techniques on cost and time.
- B . to deliver the project objectives to enable benefits to be realised.
- C . to take ultimate accountability for the delivery of the business benefits.
- D . to delegate all accountability for managing time, cost and quality to team leaders
A project is typically defined in terms of scope, time, cost and which other parameter?
- A . Benefits.
- B . Quality.
- C . Tolerance.
- D . Controls.
Which one of the following statements is true?
- A . Business-as-usual activities cannot be improved.
- B . Business-as-usual activities are more difficult to manage than projects.
- C . Projects are transient endeavours that bring about change to business-as-usual.
- D . A project is always the starting point for operation refinement.
What is defined as "the ability to influence and align others towards a common purpose"?
- A . Teamwork.
- B . Motivation.
- C . Management.
- D . Leadership
Which one is a true statement relating to project communications?
- A . A project sponsor is responsible for all communication methods and media.
- B . Different stakeholders typically have different communication needs.
- C . It is best to have a standard set of project reports used for every project.
- D . Email is the only way to communicate with large numbers of people.
In project management, the term quality is best defined as:
- A . inspection, testing and measurement.
- B . reviews and audits.
- C . fitness for purpose of deliverables.
- D . professionally-bound project reports.
The main outcome of risk identification, in a risk management process, is to:
- A . identify and determine the relative importance of the project risks.
- B . identify and describe all risks that might occur on the project.
- C . identify and determine the responses to the project risks.
- D . identify and describe risks that have occurred on previous projects
Which one of the following is not considered in resource management?
- A . Identifying resources.
- B . Influencing resources.
- C . Assigning resources to activities.
- D . Matching resources to the schedule.