How is that possible?

You have activated budget availability control against the overall value for an internal order and entered an overall budget of 10000.

Actuals of 10000 were posted in the previous year.

You are surprised to realize that a purchase order 1000 was created for this internal order in the current year.

How is that possible? Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.
A . The purchase order has NOT generated a budget yet.
B . The purchase order was entered in a different year than the budget.
C . The cost element is exempted from budget availability control.
D . The difference of 1000 is within the tolerance limits defined in the configuration.

Answer: C,D