Which of the following would explain why the yield to maturity is lower than the coupon?
ST has in issue unquoted 7% debentures which were issued at par and are redeemable in 1 year’s time. These debentures cannot be traded. The yield to maturity on these debentures has been calculated at 5%.
Which of the following would explain why the yield to maturity is lower than the coupon?
A . ST will benefit from the tax relief on the interest payment.
B . The debentures will be redeemed at a discount to their par value.
C . The debentures will be redeemed at their par value.
D . The market value of the debentures must be higher than their par value.
Answer: B
Latest CIMAPRA19-F02-1-ENG Dumps Valid Version with 248 Q&As
Latest And Valid Q&A | Instant Download | Once Fail, Full Refund
Subscribe
Login
0 Comments
Inline Feedbacks
View all comments